Final Exam, part 2 | PSYC 3230 - Abnormal Psychology, Quizzes of Abnormal Psychology

Download Final Exam, part 2 | PSYC 3230 - Abnormal Psychology and more Quizzes Abnormal Psychology in PDF only on Docsity! TERM 1 distal contributory cause. DEFINITION 1 Childhood abuse is commonly seen in those who develop dissociative disorders later in life. Childhood abuse would best be described as a a.necessary contributory cause. b.proximal contributory cause. c.reinforcing contributory cause. d.distal contributory cause. TERM 2 delay seeking treatment, sometimes for many years. DEFINITION 2 Most people with psychological disorders a.seek treatment as soon as they realize there is a problem. b.recover only if they seek treatment. c.delay seeking treatment, sometimes for many years. d.exaggerate their symptoms so it takes longer for them to recover. TERM 3 punitive DEFINITION 3 During the first half of the twentieth century, mental hospital care would best be characterized as a.effective. b.humane. c.moral. d.punitive. TERM 4 experimental DEFINITION 4 A researcher who provides a certain treatment for one group and withholds treatment from a completely comparable group is using the ________ research method. a.correlational b.epidemiological c.case study d.experimental TERM 5 The fever that was induced killed off the cause of the observed symptoms. DEFINITION 5 Why was malarial therapy effective in treating general paresis? a.The fever that was induced killed off the cause of the observed symptoms. b.General paresis was caused by malaria, and malarial therapy triggered an immune response that destroyed the existing infection. c.Malarial therapy prevented the syphilis spirochetes from entering the brain. d.There is no know treatment for general paresis. TERM 6 the difficulty of generalizing to the naturally occurring phenomenon. DEFINITION 6 A major scientific problem with analogue studies is a.the difficulty of disentangling intercorrelated factors. b.the difficulty of manipulating variables in a laboratory. c.the inability to draw causal inferences from such studies. d.the difficulty of generalizing to the naturally occurring phenomenon. TERM 7 were characterized by fear, horror, and ignorance DEFINITION 7 At the start of the twentieth century in America, public attitudes toward the mentally ill a.had become enlightened and humane. b.associated mental disorder with "tainted genes" and divine retribution. c.had become a conviction that the mentally ill were incurable and should be executed or jailed for the rest of their lives. d.were characterized by fear, horror, and ignorance. TERM 8 an influence that modifies a persons response to environmental stressors. DEFINITION 8 A protective factor is a.an influence that modifies a persons response to environmental stressors. b.an influence that modifies a persons response to genetic problems. c.a distal causal factor for a mental disorder. d.a biological makeup that makes people more resistant to stress. TERM 9 Warm baths and massages DEFINITION 9 Which of the following would be characteristic of the treatment provided by the firstmental hospitals or sanatoria used by the Romans and Greeks? a.The use of trephining and other biological approaches b.Psychodynamic therapy c.Exorcisms d.Warm baths and massages TERM 10 children who share a risk factor for a disorder are studied before signs of the disorder show up. DEFINITION 10 In most prospective studies, a.large samples of individuals are interviewed to see if there are any risk factors that differentiate those with the disorder of interest. b.children who share a risk factor for a disorder are studied before signs of the disorder show up. c.analogue research is used because of the ethical problems with other experimental research. d.a representative sample of a general population of adults is used. TERM 21 assimilation DEFINITION 21 New perceptions and experiences tend to be worked into our existing schemas, even if the new information must be distorted to fit them. This process is called a.accommodation. b.assimilation. c.appropriation. d.attribution. TERM 22 twenty-two chromosome pairs and one pair of sex chromosomes DEFINITION 22 Normal human cells have a.twenty-two chromosome pairs and one pair of sex chromosomes. b.twenty-one trisomy chromosome pairs, one autosomal pair and one pair of sex chromosomes. c.twenty-one chromosome pairs and two trisomy chromosome pairs. d.twenty-three chromosome pairs. TERM 23 Paracelsus DEFINITION 23 Who was one of the first physicians in the early 1500stocriticize the idea that mental illness was due to demon possession (although he did believe the moon influenced the brain)? a.Paracelsus b.Galen c.Pinel d.Hippocrates TERM 24 the consequences of behavior influence its likelihood of being repeated DEFINITION 24 The central principle of operant conditioning is that a.certain reflexes cause us to engage in habitual behavior. b.we repeat those actions that we see others engage in. c.the consequences of behavior influence its likelihood of being repeated. d.the interaction of genetics and social factors best explains human behavior. TERM 25 A combination of psychological therapy and antidepressant drugs DEFINITION 25 Dr. Simon, a psychiatrist, takes a biopsychosocial viewpoint of psychopathology. Which of the following treatments is he most likely to suggest for Julia's current state of depression? a.Intense psychotherapy b.A prolonged vacation c.A combination of psychological therapy and antidepressant drugs d.Family therapy and a change in her work environment TERM 26 over half of the people with a history of one serious disorder had two or more comorbid disorders. DEFINITION 26 A major finding from the National Comorbidity Survey (NCS) was that a.those people who have three or more comorbid disorders have one or more mild and transitory disorders. b.over half of the people with a history of one serious disorder had two or more comorbid disorders. c.people who have one mental disorder are unlikely to have a second comorbid disorder. d.as people grow older they are more likely to have multiple severe disorders. TERM 27 After failing French the first time, Carl did not earn a passing grade when he took the course for a second time. DEFINITION 27 Which of the following is NOT an example of the three phenomena that the term resilience has been used to describe? a.Despite her low IQ, Julie finished school and became a successful banker. b.After failing French the first time, Carl did not earn a passing grade when he took the course for a second time. c.The trauma of Julio's father's death never interfered with his plans. d.Following the events of September 11th, the children of PS100 in New York City were able to resume their studies and finish the school year without incident. TERM 28 a necessary or contributory cause that is proximal to the onset of symptoms DEFINITION 28 In the diathesis-stress model, a stressor is a.a distal, sufficient cause of a mental disorder. b.a necessary or contributory cause that is distal from the onset of symptoms. c.a necessary or contributory cause that is proximal to the onset of symptoms. d.a biological vulnerability. TERM 29 believed that most witches and mentally ill people were possessed by demons, but in different ways. DEFINITION 29 People in the Middle Ages a.believed that mentally ill people were witches. b.believed that witches were mentally ill. c.believed that mentally ill witches should be treated differently than other types of witches. d.believed that most witches and mentally ill people were possessed by demons, but in different ways. TERM 30 They cannot determine cause and effect DEFINITION 30 What is the most important limitation of correlational studies? a.They cannot determine cause and effect. b.They are very subject to bias. c.They rarely have representative samples. d.They are very difficult to do. TERM 31 It is often unethical or impossible to directly manipulate the variables involved in abnormal psychology DEFINITION 31 Why are correlational (observational) research designs often used in abnormal psychology? a.They are best at determining cause and effect. b.They are the most useful for comparing groups. c.They give in-depth descriptions of the disorder being studied. d.It is often unethical or impossible to directly manipulate the variables involved in abnormal psychology. TERM 32 "I will accept any explanation from psychoanalytic to biological as long as it works." DEFINITION 32 A psychologist who takes an eclectic approach is most likely to make which of the following statements? a."With the pace of discovery in science increasing, it is necessary to have one consistent approach to one's research." b."The beauty of an eclectic approach is that it requires one to integrate many ideas into one, synthesized viewpoint." c."I will accept any explanation from psychoanalytic to biological as long as it works." d."Clinical practice that is not guided by a theoretical rationale is guaranteed to be ineffective." TERM 33 Lack of scientific evidence DEFINITION 33 Which of the following is a criticism of traditional psychoanalytic theory? a.Underemphasis on the sex drive b.Overly positive view of women c.Lack of scientific evidence d.Too much focus on symptoms and not enough on underlying causes TERM 34 an emotional release DEFINITION 34 A catharsis is a.a type of hypnosis. b.an emotional release. c.the part of the brain where the unconscious exists. d.a type of hysteria. TERM 35 demonstrated the power of suggestion DEFINITION 35 The physicians of the Nancy School a.opposed the use of hypnotism. b.demonstrated the power of suggestion. c.found that hypnotism was not effective in the treatment of any mental illnesses. d.believed that hysteria was the result of brain degeneration. TERM 46 An adequate assessment should include as much information as possible DEFINITION 46 Which of the following statements regarding assessment is true? a.Assessment should focus only on the client's current level of functioning. b.An adequate assessment includes a determination of the amount of danger the client poses to himself and others. c.An adequate assessment should include as much information as possible. d.Assessment necessarily involves the gathering of data about the client from multiple sources. TERM 47 While all crises are stressors, not all stressors are crises DEFINITION 47 What is the difference between a stressor and a crisis? a.There is no difference, these are just two words for the same thing. b.While all crises are stressors, not all stressors are crises. c.There is a biological response to stress, but not to crisis. d.A stressor is an unexpected crisis. TERM 48 Preparing for chemotherapy DEFINITION 48 For which of the following would the use of stress- inoculation training be most effective? a.Preparing for chemotherapy b.Dealing with the aftermath of a rape c.Coping with the loss of a loved one d.Minimizing the impact of losing one's home TERM 49 any time when a stressful situation exceeds one's ability to cope DEFINITION 49 The term "crisis" refers to a.any time when a stressful situation exceeds one's ability to cope. b.encountering a number of stressors simultaneously. c.a period of especially acute stress. d.any encounter that requires a readjustment of self concept. TERM 50 is a form of cognitive preparation that can be used to minimize the impact of an anticipated threat. DEFINITION 50 Stress-inoculation training a.has been employed in the military and been found to be ineffective. b.prepares one to deal with a stressor by considering solutions to the problems that are likely. c.is a form of cognitive preparation that can be used to minimize the impact of an anticipated threat. d.can be used to prepare for most any disaster. TERM 51 cells that produce antibodies DEFINITION 51 B-cellsare a.cells that engulf antigens. b.cells that produce antibodies. c.cells that harm the immune system. d.cells that are antigens. TERM 52 rating scales DEFINITION 52 The reliability of the assessment interview may be enhanced by the use of a.a flexible, open-ended interview rather than a structured interview. b.the TAT. c.the Rorschach test. d.rating scales. TERM 53 something in a person's history that makes him or her more vulnerable to stress DEFINITION 53 A risk factor is a.something about the nature of a stressor that makes it worse for most people. b.something in a person's history that makes him or her more vulnerable to stress. c.something in a person's learning experiences that makes him or her thrill seekers. d.something in a person's genetic makeup that makes him or her respond well to stress. TERM 54 Client responses are limited DEFINITION 54 Which of the following is NOT a criticism of projective tests? a.Difficult to interpret b.Client responses are limited c.Subjective d.Time-consuming TERM 55 sometimes increases risk of PTSD, but may lower it because the person is actually used to anxiety and copes automatically. DEFINITION 55 Having a history of psychological problems before going into combat a.will make a soldier much more likely to develop PTSD. b.will make a soldier much more likely to develop PTSD only if the combat situation is extreme. c.sometimes increases risk of PTSD, but may lower it because the person is actually used to anxiety and copes automatically. d.doesn't have an impact on developing PTSD. TERM 56 Scoring and interpretation is very subjective DEFINITION 56 Several clinicians look at the TAT results of a hospitalized patient. The patient described the characters on the card as not speaking to each other. One clinician says this means the patient has a lot of unresolved anger. Another says it means the patient has a lot of social anxiety. The third says he thinks it means the patient is uninterested in people and prefers to be alone. This demonstrates the following problem with the TAT: a.Scoring and interpretation is very subjective. b.The pictures on the cards are new and updated. c.The amount of time it takes to score and interpret it. d.The lack of training of clinicians on using it. TERM 57 When consistent information is needed for research purposes DEFINITION 57 Under what circumstances is a structured interview most likely to be used? a.When consistent information is needed for research purposes b.When an accurate diagnosis is needed to ensure appropriate treatment c.When the behavior of the client is erratic d.When the information provided in an unstructured interview is found to lack reliability TERM 58 The client reported hearing voices DEFINITION 58 Which of the following is an example of a symptom? a.The client's hands would not stop shaking. b.The client reported hearing voices. c.A large lesion was visible on the CAT scan. d.Her children reported that she had not been sleeping well. TERM 59 picking items that differentiate between different groups, no subjective judgment is needed DEFINITION 59 The empirical keying approach to making a test like the MMPI involves a.subjective scoring of test items to assign items to different groups. b.the creation of ambiguous stimuli where there are many possible responses. c.picking items that differentiate between different groups, no subjective judgment is needed. d.using theoretically based concepts to develop questions for different groups. TERM 60 the TAT DEFINITION 60 Which of the following is an unstructured approach to studying personality? a.WISC-III b.the BPRS c.the Stanford-Binet d.the TAT TERM 71 Axis IV DEFINITION 71 During an assessment interview, Dr. Poole noted that Jane's boss at work was harassing her. On which of the five axes of the DSM would this information be noted? a.Axis II b.Axis III c.Axis IV d.Axis V TERM 72 Believing that their symptoms are a sign of personal strength DEFINITION 72 Which is not an individual risk factor for developing PTSD? a.Lower levels of social support b.Having a family history of depression c.Believing that their symptoms are a sign of personal strength d.Being neurotic TERM 73 releases hormones that regulate many bodily functions DEFINITION 73 The pituitary gland a.controls the release of hormones by the hypothalamus. b.is part of the immune system. c.produces adrenalin. d.releases hormones that regulate many bodily functions. TERM 74 measures what it is designed to measure DEFINITION 74 A valid test a.measures what it is designed to measure. b.yields consistent results. c.is standardized. d.rarely is reliable. TERM 75 Josh, who has just been told he has cancer and whose wife announces she is leaving him when he tells her the news DEFINITION 75 Who is likely to have the most severe stress? a.Anne, who is planning her wedding b.Bill, who has a deadline the next day for an important project c.Lauren, who sees the clean-up of an accident and finds out later it involved one of her friends d.Josh, who has just been told he has cancer and whose wife announces she is leaving him when he tells her the news TERM 76 can make a difference even for victims of torture - if the person feels he or she has some control, he or she tends to be less affected by the stressor over the long term DEFINITION 76 Feelings of control over stressors a.do not make a difference when it comes to extremely severe stressors like torture. b.can make a difference even for victims of torture - if the person feels he or she has some control, he or she tends to be less affected by the stressor over the long term. c.can make people feel worse because they believe they should have been able to change what happened. d.can make a difference even for victims of torture - if the person feels he or she has some control, he or she tends to be more affected by the stressor over the long term. TERM 77 are specified on Axis IV DEFINITION 77 In DSM-IV-TR, psychosocial stressors a.are not specified. b.are specified on Axis II. c.are specified on Axis III. d.are specified on Axis IV. TERM 78 is an imperfect means of quantifying the level of stress experience over a period of time DEFINITION 78 The Social Readjustment Rating Scale a.examines the role that coping plays in dealing with life changes. b.did not acknowledge that happy events create life changes and, as a consequence, stress. c.is an imperfect means of quantifying the level of stress experience over a period of time. d.has been used to demonstrate that life events and health are not related. TERM 79 newly acquired coping skills are applied DEFINITION 79 In the final phase of stress-inoculation training a.self- statements designed to promote effective adaptation are learned. b.newly acquired coping skills are applied. c.provides information about the stressful situation is provided. d.physical consequences of stress are examined. TERM 80 recognized that both happy and sad life events can be sources of stress DEFINITION 80 Selye a.recognized that both happy and sad life events can be sources of stress. b.conducted extensive research on the effects of stress on the immune system. c.failed to acknowledge the role of the environment in adapting to stress. d.focused on the cognitive component of the stress response. TERM 81 Major depressive disorder DEFINITION 81 George, a 22-year-old mechanic, always seems to have a cloud over his head. For the past three years, he has had problems sleeping and he seems to always overeat. While he may sometimes seem to be relatively content for short periods of time, this happens very rarely and it never lasts for more than a week. If George were to seek help for his negative mood state, which of the following diagnoses would he most likely receive? a.Adjustment disorder with depressed mood b.Chronic adjustment disorder with depressed mood c.Dysthymia d.Major depressive disorder TERM 82 Carol was absolutely convinced that her mother wanted to kill her, although there was no evidence for this DEFINITION 82 Which of the following would eliminate a potential diagnosis of cyclothymia? a.Gil had been showing both hypomanic and depressed symptoms for over three years. b.Carol was absolutely convinced that her mother wanted to kill her, although there was no evidence for this. c.Bob's most recent hypomanic episode lasted 3 days. d.Between her more recent episodes, Carla functioned quite well for 3 weeks. TERM 83 generalization in classical conditioning DEFINITION 83 When Kenneth was a young boy he went to a dentist who treated him uncaringly and inflicted a good deal of pain. Even years later, he has an uncontrollable and intense fear of not only dentists but physicians, too. This best illustrates how phobias might be the result of a.generalization in classical conditioning. b.observational conditioning. c.secondary gain. d.the inflation effect. TERM 84 Avoidant behavior DEFINITION 84 Which of the following is most characteristic of anxiety? a.Increased heart rate b.Avoidant behavior c.Trembling d.A desire to scream TERM 85 double depression DEFINITION 85 Margaret has been suffering with dysthymia for several years and has sought treatment on several occasions. About one month ago she developed more severe symptoms of depression, which have been maintained almost daily. The condition she is experiencing is best described as a.double depression. b.chronic melancholia. c.adjustment disorder with bipolar features. d.recurring melancholic depression. TERM 96 if he or she has a subjective belief that something awful is about to happen DEFINITION 96 The main way to tell someone is having an uncued panic attack rather than is in a state of fear is a.whether he or she thinks about what is happening. b.whether he or she shows physiological changes such as increased heart rate. c.if he or she has a subjective belief that something awful is about to happen. d.if he or she feels a strong urge to flee. TERM 97 mild manic episode DEFINITION 97 A hypomanic episode is best described as a a.mild manic episode. b.short manic episode. c.manic episode characterized by inactivity. d.manic episode followed by symptoms of a mild depression. TERM 98 increased GABA levels while regulating serotonin DEFINITION 98 If a pharmaceutical company were looking for a drug that would maximally treat generalized anxiety disorder they would want one that a.suppressed the activity of the locus coeruleus in the brain stem and the central gray in the midbrain. b.decreased GABA levels while increasing norepinephrine. c.increased GABA levels while regulating serotonin. d.decreased serotonin levels and suppressed activity in the locus coeruleus. TERM 99 Blood-injection-injury phobia DEFINITION 99 Which of the following is associated with a unique physiological response pattern? a.Agoraphobia b.Blood- injection-injury phobia c.Obsessive-compulsive disorder d.Generalized anxiety disorder TERM 100 symptoms are so somatic they are treated by physicians for medical problems DEFINITION 100 Panic disorders are often misdiagnosed because a.the symptoms overlap so much with major depression. b.the symptoms are so chronic and mild, they do not seem like serious forms of psychopathology. c.patients are so embarrassed by their problems, they do not make them known to professionals. d.symptoms are so somatic they are treated by physicians for medical problems. TERM 101 it keeps people from feeling the emotional and physiological consequences of anxiety DEFINITION 101 One of the main functions that worry seems to serve in generalized anxiety disorder is a.it keeps people distracted from what is really bothering them. b.it keeps people with the disorder feeling happier than if they didn't worry. c.it prevents people with the disorder from developing depression. d.it keeps people from feeling the emotional and physiological consequences of anxiety. TERM 102 Such drugs are frequently misused DEFINITION 102 Which of the following is a disadvantage of treating GAD with a benzodiazepine? a.A therapeutic response is not seen for several weeks b.There is a high risk of overdose c.Such drugs are frequently misused d.The somatic symptoms are not treated TERM 103 They are characterized by emotional extremes DEFINITION 103 What do all mood disorders have in common? a.The presence of a negative mood state. b.They are at least 6 months in duration. c.The presence of irrational thoughts. d.They are characterized by emotional extremes. TERM 104 diagnostic criteria are now based on shared, observable symptoms and are more clearly defined DEFINITION 104 The new DSM classification, which omits the concept of neurosis, is an improvement because a.each category now has a specific effective treatment. b.now anxiety disorders are identified regardless of whether anxiety symptoms are expressed. c.diagnostic criteria are now based on shared, observable symptoms and are more clearly defined. d.each category is made up of symptoms that have one causal origin. TERM 105 Uncued panic attacks DEFINITION 105 Which of the following is necessary for a diagnosis of panic disorder? a.Uncued panic attacks b.Depersonalization c.Panic attacks, cued and uncued, consisting of at least 6 of the 13 symptoms of a panic attack d.Derealization TERM 106 Only individuals who tend to catastrophize develop panic disorder DEFINITION 106 Which of the following is NOT an existing piece of evidence that provides support for the role of cognitions in panic? a.Panic can be prevented in a panic provocation study by explaining what will happen. b.Panic clients are more likely to interpret bodily sensations as catastrophic events. c.Only individuals who tend to catastrophize develop panic disorder. d.Evidence regarding the effectiveness of cognitive therapy for panic disorder. TERM 107 is preceded by one or more previous episodes DEFINITION 107 A recurrent depressive episode a.is preceded by one or more previous episodes. b.suggests that chronic major depression has developed. c.typically lasts 2-3 weeks. d.is characteristic of all forms of bipolar disorder. TERM 108 can occur even in infants and very young children DEFINITION 108 Depression a.can occur even in infants and very young children. b.is extremely rare in childhood. c.cannot occur in childhood. d.can occur in childhood in females but not in males. TERM 109 the amount of social and occupational impairment DEFINITION 109 The main difference between a manic episode and a hypomanic episode is a.whether the person also experiences depression. b.the number of symptoms the person has. c.whether the person has irritable mood. d.the amount of social and occupational impairment. TERM 110 emphasizes activity and involvement in interpersonal relationships DEFINITION 110 Behavior activation treatment a.focuses on implementing cognitive changes. b.combines pharmacotherapy and behavioral therapy. c.combines interpersonal therapy and behavioral methodology. d.emphasizes activity and involvement in interpersonal relationships. TERM 121 both ask for reassurance about their symptoms but don't feel relief when they get it DEFINITION 121 People with body dysmorphic disorder are similar to people with hypochondriasis in that a.both ask for reassurance about their symptoms but don't feel relief when they get it. b.both believe that a disease is causing their symptoms. c.both know that they are faking their symptoms for attention. d.both focus only on symptoms involving the face. TERM 122 Conversion disorder DEFINITION 122 Which of the following was once viewed as form of "hysteria"? a.Conversion disorder b.Dissociative identity disorder c.Dissociative fugue d.Hypochondriasis TERM 123 hypochondriasis and somatization disorder DEFINITION 123 Catastrophizing about minor bodily sensations is characteristic of individuals with both a.hypochondriasis and somatization disorder. b.hypochondriasis and conversion disorder. c.dissociative fugue and somatization disorder. d.dissociative fugue and conversion disorder. TERM 124 some patients regain their weight, but most lose a great deal of weight DEFINITION 124 After bariatric surgery, a.patients stay normal weight the rest of their lives. b.some patients do not lose any weight. c.most patients do not survive. d.some patients regain their weight, but most lose a great deal of weight. TERM 125 She experienced an instance of derealization DEFINITION 125 After learning of her father's death, Sophia felt dazed and confused but still retained her sense of self. When speaking of her response to the news, she said she felt like she was in a movie watching the events happening to her. Despite this strange feeling, she understood what was happening and did the things that she needed to do. What can be said of Sophia's response to her father's death? a.Her response is not typical and suggests that she is suffering from acute stress disorder. b.She experienced an instance of derealization. c.She had a psychotic break. d.She experience an instance of depersonalization. TERM 126 works modestly well for obesity DEFINITION 126 Orlistat, which works by interfering with the absorption of fat, a.works very well for obesity. b.works very well for extreme obesity but not regular obesity. c.works modestly well for obesity. d.results have been uncertain. TERM 127 she has periods of "lost time." DEFINITION 127 The text presented the case of Mary Kendall, who suffered from dissociative identity disorder. She is typical of individuals with this disorder in that a.she has periods of "lost time." b.was socially inept as a child. c.she was aware of her separate personalities prior to beginning treatment. d.tended to express her emotional distress in complaints about her body. TERM 128 obsessive-compulsive disorder and eating disorders DEFINITION 128 Body dysmorphic disorder is thought to be related to a.depression and bipolar disorders. b.dissociative disorders. c.panic disorder. d.obsessive-compulsive disorder and eating disorders. TERM 129 multiple personality disorder DEFINITION 129 Dissociative identity disorder was formerly known as a.psychogenic amnesia. b.multiple personality disorder. c.conversion hysteria. d.neurasthenia. TERM 130 suggests that there should be a low prevalence of eating disorders among these peoples DEFINITION 130 A lack of body distortions among the Amish a.provides evidence against a role for sociocultural factors in the development of eating disorders. b.indicates that the Amish do not value physical beauty. c.suggests that the influence of the Western media is not as great as commonly perceived. d.suggests that there should be a low prevalence of eating disorders among these peoples. TERM 131 Implicit memory is generally intact DEFINITION 131 Which of the following has been demonstrated about the effects of psychogenic amnesias on memory? a.Implicit memory is generally intact. b.Explicit memory is rarely affected. c.Episodic memory is not compromised. d.Semantic memory is most dramatically affected. TERM 132 exhibit tendencies towards perfectionism DEFINITION 132 Families of people with anorexia a.do not have any characteristic features. b.tend to provide few rules and limits. c.exhibit tendencies towards perfectionism. d.emphasize individuality. TERM 133 suggests that cognitive-behavioral therapy is the treatment of choice DEFINITION 133 Our current knowledge of the efficacy of treating eating disorders a.is quite thorough because there are many controlled studies comparing long-term outcomes. b.is much more detailed for anorexia nervosa than for bulimia nervosa. c.suggests that hospitalization is most effective for long-term maintenance of treatment gains. d.suggests that cognitive-behavioral therapy is the treatment of choice. TERM 134 Body dissatisfaction DEFINITION 134 Which of the following is likely to put whites at higher risk of developing an eating disorder than non-whites? a.Body dissatisfaction b.Living in an industrialized society c.Fear of stomach bloating d.Desire to please the family TERM 135 dissociative fugue DEFINITION 135 Gerard became amnesic, wandered away from home and assumed a completely new identity as a shoe salesman. He suffers from a.dissociative fugue. b.dissociative identity disorder. c.malingering identity disorder. d.depersonalization. TERM 146 experiences electrolyte imbalances and mineral deficiencies DEFINITION 146 Felicia has been diagnosed with bulimia nervosa, purging type. We should expect that she a.strongly denies that she has a serious disorder. b.is unconcerned about becoming fat. c.experiences electrolyte imbalances and mineral deficiencies. d.is less than 85 percent of normal body weight but still considers herself "fat." TERM 147 experienced shame, guilt, and self- deprecation DEFINITION 147 The text presented the case of Nicole, a college student with bulimia nervosa. She is typical of such individuals because she a.had suffered few health problems. b.had few thoughts of food except when she was eating. c.experienced shame, guilt, and self-deprecation. d.did not realize that her eating habits were abnormal. TERM 148 These conditions are too rare to permit more extensive study DEFINITION 148 Why has there been little systematic research conducted on dissociative amnesia and fugue? a.Case studies provide more useful information. b.Both disorders are relatively brief, preventing researchers from having ample time to systematically conduct full evaluations. c.The diagnosis of both disorders is too controversial; until a consensus is reached as to whether there is a true "psychogenic" amnesia, further study is virtually impossible. d.These conditions are too rare to permit more extensive study. TERM 149 Localized DEFINITION 149 Jill did not remember the accident happening or the following two days. What form of amnesia is this memory loss characteristic of? a.Localized b.Generalized c.Continuous d.Selective TERM 150 damaged teeth and mouth ulcers DEFINITION 150 A common sign of bulimia nervosa, purging type is a.lanugo. b.intolerance to cold. c.kidney failure. d.damaged teeth and mouth ulcers. TERM 151 There appears to be a relationship, but it appears to be indirect, involving an array of intervening variables DEFINITION 151 Which of the following statements best summarizes the relationship between sexual abuse and the development of eating disorders? a.There appears to be a relationship, but it appears to be indirect, involving an array of intervening variables. b.There is no relationship between early sexual abuse and the development of eating disorders later in life. c.Early sexual abuse may lead to a denial of one's sexuality and a desire to maintain a child-like appearance, resulting in attempts to prevent the development of a more mature figure through dieting. d.While sexual abuse has been found to increase the risk of developing anorexia, no relationship has been observed between abuse and other eating disorders. TERM 152 provide factual information about eating and dieting DEFINITION 152 In addition to altering the eating patterns of clients with Binge Eating Disorder, therapists using cognitive- behavioral therapy will also a.teach the clients to be greater risk-takers. b.educate the clients that fat people have certain character flaws. c.provide factual information about eating and dieting. d.help the client to emotionally separate from her family. TERM 153 is extremely common and not necessarily pathological DEFINITION 153 Dissociation a.only occurs in people with a dissociative disorder. b.is a sign that something is seriously wrong. c.is extremely common and not necessarily pathological. d.is extremely rare and not necessarily pathological. TERM 154 may be useful in treating depressive and psychotic symptoms, but are not a primary treatment DEFINITION 154 In the treatment of eating disorders, medications a.have proven to be especially helpful in treating patients with anorexia. b.may be useful in treating depressive and psychotic symptoms, but are not a primary treatment. c.are commonly used to stimulate appetite. d.have been found to be more effective than most psychological interventions. TERM 155 body dysmorphic disorder DEFINITION 155 Kristie is talking to a career counselor at college. She suddenly announces that it is pointless to discuss jobs, when she knows that her face is incredibly hideous due to her huge number of acne scars. The counselor is surprised, because, while she can barely see a couple of scars at Kristie's hairline, they were not noticeable until Kristie pointed them out. It is probable that Kristie suffers from a.conversion disorder. b.depersonalization disorder. c.body dysmorphic disorder. d.hypochondriasis. TERM 156 asthma DEFINITION 156 All of the following are dangers associated with obesity EXCEPT a.asthma. b.diabetes. c.high blood pressure. d.joint disease. TERM 157 Low parental education DEFINITION 157 Which of the following factors is associated with an increased risk for obesity? a.High socioeconomic status b.Living in an Asian culture c.Being well-cared-for as a child d.Low parental education TERM 158 people with eating disorders often have depression as well DEFINITION 158 One of the reasons it is difficult to know if a disruption in the serotonin system causes eating disorders is a.research has not supported the theory. b.people with eating disorders often have depression as well. c.serotonin doesn't seem to have anything to do with appetite or eating behaviors. d.after recovery from eating disorders, serotonin levels don't change. TERM 159 Although the findings to date are mixed, the evidence does indicate that a susceptibility to eating disorders may be inherited along with a diathesis for other psychological conditions DEFINITION 159 Which of the following statements about the role of genetics as a risk factor for eating disorders is true? a.While the gene underlying the restrictive type of anorexia nervosa has been identified, the role of genes in the development of other forms of eating disorders is not clear. b.The lack of adoption studies has made it impossible to determine the heritability of eating disorders. c.Due to the complex nature of eating disorders and the probability that multiple genes contribute to their development, a role for genes in such disorders has yet to be established. d.Although the findings to date are mixed, the evidence does indicate that a susceptibility to eating disorders may be inherited along with a diathesis for other psychological conditions. TERM 160 Kyla could not recall where she had been or what she had done all day DEFINITION 160 Which of the following is most suggestive of dissociative identity disorder? a.Grace's feelings about James switch from positive to negative instantly. b.Peter could not explain why he didn't complete the project. c.Delilah was never able to make up her mind. d.Kyla could not recall where she had been or what she had done all day. TERM 171 The high likelihood that an individual with one personality disorder may also have another DEFINITION 171 Which of the following is a factor that complicates determining the causes of personality disorders? a.The high likelihood that an individual with one personality disorder may also have another b.The availability of only prospective data c.The wealth of biological data available d.The inability to gather information from the patients themselves, due to the prevalence of memory disorders amongst those with personality disorders TERM 172 generalized social phobia DEFINITION 172 Avoidant personality disorder is extremely similar to and hard to distinguish from a.generalized social phobia. b.schizoid personality disorder. c.generalized anxiety disorder. d.paranoid personality disorder. TERM 173 can be minimized by administering another drug DEFINITION 173 Both alcohol and barbiturate withdrawal a.usually last several months. b.are purely psychological. c.are far less serious than opiate withdrawal. d.can be minimized by administering another drug. TERM 174 repeated manipulation of others to gain attention DEFINITION 174 Which of the following is most typical of the interpersonal attitudes and behaviors of someone with histrionic personality disorder? a.vacillation between overidealization and bitter disappointment b.excessive trust and dependence on others' opinions c.cruel and callous exploitation of others for personal gain d.repeated manipulation of others to gain attention TERM 175 is a model of normal personality that includes an expanded description of the five basic personality dimensions DEFINITION 175 The five factor model a.is a model of normal personality that includes an expanded description of the five basic personality dimensions. b.is a model that attempts to explain personality disorders by dividing them into five main categories. c.is a model that explains the causes of personality disorders by describing the five most important factors that lead to their development. d.is a five step model for the treatment of personality disorders. TERM 176 the ratio of male to female problem drinkers will decrease DEFINITION 176 Observed changes in drinking patterns suggest that in the future a.the ratio of male to female problem drinkers will increase. b.the ratio of male to female problem drinkers will decrease. c.the proportion of blacks that are problem drinkers will increase. d.the proportion of blacks that are problem drinkers will decrease. TERM 177 "If I am not fun, they will abandon me." DEFINITION 177 Which of the following core dysfunctional beliefs might explain the development of histrionic personality disorder? a."I need a man to define me." b."I am the only one I can trust." c."I am completely helpless." d."If I am not fun, they will abandon me." TERM 178 Lack of monitoring the adolescent's activities DEFINITION 178 Which parenting skill or parental behavior is most associated with adolescent substance use? a.Overindulging children by giving them too many gifts and privileges b.Restricting children from any form of experimentation with alcohol and other drugs c.Restricting the expression of positive emotions d.Lack of monitoring the adolescent's activities TERM 179 The symptoms tend to be maladaptive exaggerations of traits normally seen in women DEFINITION 179 Which of the following best accounts for why women are more likely to be diagnosed with histrionic personality disorder than men? a.Women are more likely to develop this disorder. b.The symptoms tend to be maladaptive exaggerations of traits normally seen in women. c.Women are naturally more likely than men to engage in attention- seeking behaviors. d.The primary feature of this disorder is emotionality and women are more emotional than men. TERM 180 dependent personality disorder DEFINITION 180 Emily calls her husband every day at work to ask him what she should make for dinner. She spends her days at her mother's, because Emily worries that something will go wrong in her own home that she won't be able to handle. Even though she paints and draws well, Emily has never tried to take a class or use her talent, because she says she knows she really isn't good enough. Emily's most likely diagnosis is a.borderline personality disorder. b.dependent personality disorder. c.schizoid personality disorder. d.paranoid personality disorder. TERM 181 cognitive DEFINITION 181 The reciprocal influence model is best described as a ________ explanation for teen drinking. a.behavioral b.cognitive c.psychodynamic d.sociocultural TERM 182 Antabuse; Naltrexone DEFINITION 182 Adam and Beth are both being treated for alcohol dependence by being given medications. Adam's medication makes him vomit if he drinks after taking it. Beth's medication reduces her craving for alcohol. Most likely Adam is taking ________; Beth is taking ________. a.methadone; Naltrexone b.Naltrexone; methadone c.methadone; Antabuse d.Antabuse; Naltrexone TERM 183 Paranoid and schizotypal DEFINITION 183 Transient psychotic symptoms are seen in which of the following personality disorders? a.Paranoid and schizoid b.Schizotypal and schizoid c.Schizoid and antisocial d.Paranoid and schizotypal TERM 184 may occur in alcoholics as alcohol interferes with the body's ability to use nutrients DEFINITION 184 Malnutrition a.does not occur in alcoholics as alcohol provides both calories and nutrients. b.only occurs when alcoholics are destitute and not able to afford to purchase food. c.may occur in alcoholics as alcohol interferes with the body's ability to use nutrients. d.is rare among alcoholics as alcohol is most commonly consumed with food. TERM 185 a personality disorder DEFINITION 185 People find Adam difficult to be around. His behavior is unpredictable and erraticbut most often is annoying to others. He doesn't seem to learn from his bad experiences, instead he keeps repeating the same mistakes over and over. His family says Adam has been like this since at least junior high school. Adam most likely has a.a mood disorder. b.an anxiety disorder. c.a dissociative disorder. d.a personality disorder. TERM 196 To minimize cravings DEFINITION 196 Why might opiate antagonists be used in the treatment of alcoholism? a.To minimize withdrawal b.To minimize cravings c.To make alcohol aversive d.To prevent alcohol from acting on the brain's reward system TERM 197 it is less likely that research on a disorder will be able to be replicated by other researchers DEFINITION 197 Since there are substantial problems with reliability and validity of the diagnoses of personality disorders, a.they are rarely used in clinical practice. b.it is less likely that research on a disorder will be able to be replicated by other researchers. c.they are considered by clinicians only as suggestions and do not have an impact on treatment decisions. d.very little research or search for treatments is done. TERM 198 a susceptibility to the development of a personality disorder may be inherited DEFINITION 198 The finding that temperament may play a role in the etiology of personality disorders suggests that a.all personality disorders have a biological basis. b.learning plays a significant role in the development of personality disorders. c.the environment does not play a causal role in the development of Axis II disorders. d.a susceptibility to the development of a personality disorder may be inherited. TERM 199 personality disorders develop gradually DEFINITION 199 Unlike disorders like depression and PTSD, a.personality disorders develop gradually. b.multiple causal events can be identified when a personality disorder has developed. c.those with personality disorders experience considerable subjective distress. d.personality disorders are found on Axis III. TERM 200 the central role of sexuality is not present DEFINITION 200 The borderline personality differs from histrionic disorder in that a.impulsive behavior is rare. b.a need for others is not exhibited. c.comorbid diagnoses are rare. d.the central role of sexuality is not present. TERM 201 tries to help people question their delusions to help reduce their intensity DEFINITION 201 Cognitive-behavioral treatment for people with schizophrenia a.tries to help people learn a trade so they can earn a living. b.tries to help people gain the skills they need for daily living. c.tries to help people find the services they need in the community. d.tries to help people question their delusions to help reduce their intensity. TERM 202 A stepdaughter DEFINITION 202 Which of the following is most likely to be a victim of incest? a.A son b.A stepdaughter c.A daughter d.A stepson TERM 203 A person whose father was over 50 when he/she was born DEFINITION 203 Which of the following people has the highest risk of developing schizophrenia? a.A person who came from New Guinea b.Someone who was physically abused as a child c.A person whose father was over 50 when he/she was born d.Someone who has a history of depression TERM 204 amount of sexual and aggressive motives DEFINITION 204 The newest classification system for types of rapists (McCabe & Wauchope) varies in terms of a.amount of violence. b.amount of sexual and aggressive motives. c.whether the rapists know their victims. d.whether they target children or adults. TERM 205 The frontal lobes DEFINITION 205 Ursula has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. If PET scans were done to measure her brain's activity, which area would probably be underactive? a.The visual cortex b.The deepest portions of the brain, the medulla and reticular activating system c.The frontal lobes d.The hypothalamus and pituitary TERM 206 surgical sex reassignment DEFINITION 206 The only treatment that has been shown to be effective in treating gender dysphoria is a.long-term psychodynamic therapy. b.aversion therapy. c.surgical sex reassignment. d.medication to alter hormone production. TERM 207 fondling DEFINITION 207 Pedophilia frequently involves a.adolescents. b.fondling. c.sadistic acts. d.masochism. TERM 208 Bob because he has inherited the same susceptibility that his twin is expressing DEFINITION 208 Both of Mary's parents have been diagnosed with schizophrenia. Bob has an identical twin who has schizophrenia. Who is more likely to develop schizophrenia and why? a.Bob because he is male and has a family history of schizophrenia. b.Mary because all of her genes come from her parents and they both have the disease. c.Bob because he has inherited the same susceptibility that his twin is expressing. d.Mary because females are more susceptible than males to the genetic forms of schizophrenia. TERM 209 Maternal antibodies could cross the placenta and interfere with brain development such that the risk of developing schizophrenia is enhanced later in life DEFINITION 209 Which of the following is a plausible explanation for how maternal influenza might lead to schizophrenia later in life? a.The flu virus may lie dormant in the brain until adolescence when it becomes active and initiates the degeneration that results in the symptoms of schizophrenia. b.The flu exposure may alter the fetal genes such that a susceptibility to schizophrenia is now part of the child's genetic makeup. c.Maternal antibodies could cross the placenta and interfere with brain development such that the risk of developing schizophrenia is enhanced later in life. d.The flu virus frequently has long-term effects on the behavior of affected individuals; maternal infection with influenza may result in an environment that is likely to trigger schizophrenia in the susceptible individual. TERM 210 very difficult to define because many things affect time to ejaculation DEFINITION 210 Premature ejaculation is a.extremely rare. b.very difficult to define because many things affect time to ejaculation. c.very easy to define because most men ejaculate at about the same stage of sexual relations. d.caused mainly by biological factors. TERM 221 insanity DEFINITION 221 It was once believed that masturbation caused a.infertility. b.insanity. c.narcissism. d.schizophrenia. TERM 222 are usually heterosexual DEFINITION 222 People with transvestic fetishism a.include males and females, although more males than females. b.are usually heterosexual. c.frequently cause harm to others. d.wish to be the opposite gender. TERM 223 frontal lobe DEFINITION 223 People with schizophrenia often show poor performance on tasks like the Wisconsin Card Sorting Task, which is thought to indicate a dysfunction of the a.parietal lobe. b.occipital lobe. c.temporal lobe. d.frontal lobe. TERM 224 most likely accurate DEFINITION 224 Research suggesting sexual dysfunctions are common has been shown to be a.most likely accurate. b.most likely an underestimate because many people were too embarrassed to admit problems. c.most likely an overestimate because researchers didn't ask about distress or impairment. d.most likely an overestimate because most people exaggerated their problems due to discomfort. TERM 225 A twenty-five-year-old pedophile DEFINITION 225 Which of the following sex offenders is most likely to reoffend? a.A twenty-five-year-old pedophile b.A thirty-year-old rapist c.A twenty-year-old convicted of statutory rape d.An eighty- year-old sadist TERM 226 work by blocking dopamine receptors DEFINITION 226 First-generation antipsychotics a.work by blocking dopamine receptors. b.are not effective. c.produce few side effects. d.include Risperdal and Zyprexa. TERM 227 Frank, who is interpersonally unskilled and feels in control when dominating a child DEFINITION 227 Which of the following people best illustrates the most common type of pedophile? a.Werner, who is sadistic and enjoys causing pain. b.Frank, who is interpersonally unskilled and feels in control when dominating a child. c.Norman, who is bisexual and but who cannot respond sexually to adult men or women. d.Ben, who has low self-esteem and fantasizes about being dominated by others in sexual relationships. TERM 228 the concordance rate for monozygotic twins would be 100 percent DEFINITION 228 If schizophrenia were exclusively a genetic disorder, a.anyone with schizophrenia in his or her family history would develop schizophrenia. b.the concordance rate for monozygotic twins would be 100 percent. c.marrying a schizophrenic would not increase the likelihood of developing schizophrenia. d.numerous cures would now be available. TERM 229 must have acted on the sexual fantasies DEFINITION 229 To be diagnosed with a paraphilia, a person a.must have acted on the sexual fantasies. b.must cause harm to another person. c.must have distress or impairment. d.may not have to have distress or impairment. TERM 230 that homosexual people were exposed to early hormonal influences that were more typical of the opposite gender DEFINITION 230 The current most influential model of the cause of sexual orientation is a.that homosexual people had domineering mothers and absent or withdrawn fathers. b.that homosexual people learned their behaviors through classical conditioning. c.that homosexual people were exposed to early hormonal influences that were more typical of the opposite gender. d.that homosexual people were reinforced for cross-gender behaviors. TERM 231 a variation of sexual function; a pathological escape from heterosexuality DEFINITION 231 Among psychoanalysts in the 1930s and 1940s, homosexuality was first seen as ________ but later was seen as ________. a.a form of criminal behavior; defense against heterosexual urges b.a severe form of psychological disability; a normal variant of sexual behavior c.a result of highly pathological parent-child relationships; a conscious effort to gain attention d.a variation of sexual function; a pathological escape from heterosexuality TERM 232 People tend to believe their current sexual standards are correct and to be intolerant of nonconformists DEFINITION 232 Which of the following is true? a.People tend to be envious of sexual nonconformists. b.Attitudes about what is sexually "normal" have stayed surprisingly the same over time. c.People tend to believe their current sexual standards are correct and to be intolerant of nonconformists. d.Attitudes about what is sexually "normal" are extremely consistent across cultures. TERM 233 resist efforts to change their position DEFINITION 233 Patients in a catatonic stupor a.are highly suggestible. b.experience overwhelming hallucinations. c.exhibit both echopraxia and echolalia. d.resist efforts to change their position. TERM 234 involve the impairment of either the desire for sexual gratification or the ability to achieve it DEFINITION 234 Sexual dysfunctions a.are only diagnosed when the cause is psychological maladjustment. b.only occur in heterosexual couples. c.rarely affect the enjoyment of sex for the two parties in the relationship. d.involve the impairment of either the desire for sexual gratification or the ability to achieve it. TERM 235 it can produce schizophrenic-like symptoms in normal subjects DEFINITION 235 Glutamate is an excitatory neurotransmitter that researchers suspect might be involved in schizophrenia because a.it makes dopamine. b.it causes the ventricles to enlarge. c.it is missing in the brains of people with schizophrenia. d.it can produce schizophrenic-like symptoms in normal subjects. TERM 246 proposes that dysfunctional interactions have served to maintain the child's problematic behavior DEFINITION 246 The cohesive family model is a treatment strategy for the child with conduct disorder that a. focuses on how the child's behavior elicits negative responses from other family members. b. proposes that dysfunctional interactions have served to maintain the child's problematic behavior. c. teaches the child basic moral lessons. d. combines punitive and therapeutic interventions. TERM 247 is usually reversible DEFINITION 247 Delirium a. is usually permanent. b. is usually reversible. c. rarely is a medical emergency. d. is characterized by a decline from a previously attained level of functioning. TERM 248 attention deficits DEFINITION 248 Mild to moderate diffuse brain damage is most likely to result in a. mood disturbance. b. attention deficits. c. visual distortions. d. altered sleep patterns. TERM 249 the damage is a result of the brain colliding with the skull DEFINITION 249 When a closed-head injury occurs, a. the damage is localized. b. the damage is a result of the brain colliding with the skull. c. post-trauma epilepsy is common. d. the skull is bruised. TERM 250 psychological conditions can signal the onset of brain damage DEFINITION 250 All of the following are reasons why cognitive disorders are addressed in an abnormal text EXCEPT a. these disorders are considered to be psychopathological conditions. b. some brain disorders cause symptoms that look like mood and anxiety disorders. c. psychological conditions can signal the onset of brain damage. d. brain damage can lead to psychological symptoms. TERM 251 delirium DEFINITION 251 Suddenly, Lavinia is unable to remember what she was doing. She screams that bugs are crawling all over the walls. She begins to wildly swing her arms around. She can't fall asleep at night, but finally falls asleep at daylight. Lavinia most likely has a. dementia. b. focal brain damage. c. schizophrenia. d. delirium. TERM 252 Sleepwalking disorder DEFINITION 252 Which of the following is not listed in the DSM-IV-TR under disorders of infancy, childhood, and adolescence? a. Autism b. Encopresis c. Enuresis d. Sleepwalking disorder TERM 253 degenerative brain disease DEFINITION 253 The most common cause of dementia is a. intracranial tumors. b. severe or repeated head injury. c. degenerative brain disease. d. drug toxicity. TERM 254 Isabella, who worries that her father will die if she is not near him DEFINITION 254 Separation anxiety disorder is best illustrated by which of the following people? a. Thomas, who is fiercely independent of other children and his parents. b. Harriet, who refuses to talk to her teachers or other adults other than her parents. c. Isabella, who worries that her father will die if she is not near him. d. Chuck, who is afraid he will be beaten by bullies at school. TERM 255 Virtually all children who develop conduct disorder have oppositional defiant disorder first DEFINITION 255 What is the relationship between oppositional defiant disorder and conduct disorder? a. Virtually all children who develop conduct disorder have oppositional defiant disorder first. b. Almost every case of oppositional defiant disorder develops into conduct disorder. c. Before children develop oppositional defiant disorder, they have conduct disorder. d. Children who develop conduct disorder almost never had oppositional defiant disorder. TERM 256 hydrocephaly DEFINITION 256 Shortly after birth, Darren's head began to grow. At age 5, a shunt was placed in his skull to drain fluid. He has seizures, trouble seeing, and is mildly mentally retarded. Darren's most likely diagnosis is a. microcephaly. b. phenylketonuria. c. Turner's syndrome. d. hydrocephaly. TERM 257 Secondary functional enuresis DEFINITION 257 After her parents' divorce, Julia began wetting the bed. She wets the bed almost nightly and is embarrassed about it in the morning. What disorder would this 7-year-old be diagnosed with? a. Primary functional enuresis b. Secondary functional enuresis c. Primary functional encopresis d. Secondary organic enuresis TERM 258 By ruling out all other potential causes of dementia DEFINITION 258 You are convinced that your grandmother has Alzheimer's. How can you doctor confirm your diagnosis? a. By conducting a blood test b. By determining if she has enlarged ventricles that indicate brain atrophy c. By looking to see if she has a decrease in frontal lobe function d. By ruling out all other potential causes of dementia TERM 259 Pervasive developmental disorders DEFINITION 259 ________ are a group of severely disabling conditions in children that are considered to be the result of structural differences in the brain and usually apparent at birth or as the child begins to develop. a. Pervasive developmental disorders b. Symptom disorders c. Conduct disorders d. Tic disorders TERM 260 forgetfulness DEFINITION 260 Damage to the temporal lobes of the brain is most likely to result in a. passivity. b. impulsivity. c. blindness. d. forgetfulness. TERM 271 anterograde amnesia DEFINITION 271 After the car accident, Sherry was unable to remember what happened from the time of the crash until the following morning. Sherry appears to have experienced a. amnestic disorder. b. anterograde amnesia. c. retrograde amnesia. d. dissociative fugue. TERM 272 helped almost half of the children in the treatment program achieve normal intellectual functioning DEFINITION 272 The extremely intensive experimental behavior program designed by Ivar Lovaas for children with autism a. has not proven successful. b. has shown promise, but not as much as medications. c. helped almost half of the children in the treatment program achieve normal intellectual functioning. d. helped most of the parents of autistic children learn to cope better with their children. TERM 273 acetylcholine DEFINITION 273 The first neurons to be affected in Alzheimer's disease are cells that release a. serotonin. b. dopamine. c. beta amyloid. d. acetylcholine. TERM 274 ibuprofen DEFINITION 274 Research suggests that the use of ________ may decrease the risk of developing Alzheimer's disease. a. aspirin b. codeine c. ibuprofen d. valium TERM 275 19 DEFINITION 275 Late-onset Alzheimer's disease has been linked to a gene on chromosome a. 7. b. 14. c. 19. d. 21. TERM 276 involve rejection and neglect DEFINITION 276 The families of children with conduct disorders typically a. accept the child's behavior as "normal." b. provide the child with harsh but consistent discipline. c. involve rejection and neglect. d. are overprotective. TERM 277 frontal lobe damage DEFINITION 277 Emotional dyscontrol and personality alterations are expected with a. amnestic syndrome. b. vascular dementia. c. frontal lobe damage. d. prolonged oxygen deprivation. TERM 278 are clearly involved in the more severe forms of retardation DEFINITION 278 Genetic factors a. are very common in most levels of retardation. b. are clearly involved in the more severe forms of retardation. c. are involved only in cases of profound retardation. d. are involved only in Down syndrome. TERM 279 prevention or treatment at the first sign of illness because lost neurons cannot be regained DEFINITION 279 The best avenue of research for effective treatment of Alzheimer's disease involves a. medications to remove placques, because they cause the symptoms in Alzheimer's disease. b. prevention or treatment at the first sign of illness because lost neurons cannot be regained. c. regenerating neurons in the brain to replace those lost or damaged by the disorder. d. behavioral therapy to help improve memory and living skills. TERM 280 impairment of emotional modulation DEFINITION 280 Jerry had a stroke several months ago. Among the changes his family has noticed is that he now blows up over little things, cries over minor problems, and laughs at anything, no matter how silly. Jerry is showing a. focal brain damage. b. impairment of receptive and expressive communication. c. impairment of emotional modulation. d. affective blunting. TERM 281 a set of tools DEFINITION 281 Psychotherapy is best viewed as a. a set of tools. b. a system of ethics. c. a means of keeping society "sick." d. a form of mind control. TERM 282 A pregnant and depressed 25-year-old DEFINITION 282 Which of the following would be the most likely candidate for ECT? a. A 22-two-year-old schizophrenic b. A middle-aged depressed woman who has just begun taking antidepressants c. A pregnant and depressed 25-year-old d. A 30-year-old man who has generalized anxiety disorder TERM 283 Early alcohol use is associated with later alcohol abuse and dependence DEFINITION 283 Why is it important to prevent teen alcohol use? a. Teens are more susceptible to alcoholism than adults. b. Most teens who drink go on to do "harder drugs." c. Teens are more prone to violence while drinking than adults. d. Early alcohol use is associated with later alcohol abuse and dependence. TERM 284 free association DEFINITION 284 A psychotherapist says to her client, "Say whatever comes to your mind, no matter how strange or painful it may seem." The psychotherapist is encouraging a. transference. b. resistance. c. free association. d. counter-transference. TERM 285 The realization that the family environment played a role in whether relapse occurred DEFINITION 285 What led to the development of family systems therapy? a. The observation that signs of mental illness often were seen in more than one family member b. The recognition that most psychological disorders can be attributed to and cause dysfunctional relationships c. The realization that the family environment played a role in whether relapse occurred d. The established importance of the interaction of nature and nurture in the development if all forms of psychopathology TERM 296 Medication in combination with therapy yields the best results DEFINITION 296 What has research on the use of a combined approach to the treatment of depression demonstrated? a. Medication alone yields the best results. b. Psychotherapy alone yields the best results. c. Psychotherapy in combination with a placebo or medication yields the best results. d. Medication in combination with therapy yields the best results. TERM 297 They are all mood-stabilizing drugs DEFINITION 297 What do lithium carbonate, carbamazepine (Tegretol), and valproate (Depakote) have in common? a. They are benzodiazepines. b. They are used in the treatment of anxiety disorders. c. They are atypical antipsychotic drugs. d. They are all mood-stabilizing drugs. TERM 298 The National Institute on Mental Health (NIMH) DEFINITION 298 Which of the following funds research on mental disorders and assists communities in establishing effective mental health services? a. The National Association for Mental Health (NAMH) b. The American Psychological Association (APA) c. Health maintenance organization (HMO) d. The National Institute on Mental Health (NIMH) TERM 299 is a study where people are assigned to different groups by a flip of a coin, one-half to a treatment group and one-half to a seemingly identical placebo group DEFINITION 299 A randomized clinical trial a. is a study where all subjects are treated the same to see what percentage of the total gets better, stays the same, or gets worse. b. is a study where people are assigned to different types of treatment by the flip of a coin to see which treatment is best. c. is a study where people go through different treatments in random order to see which one works best. d. is a study where people are assigned to different groups by a flip of a coin, one-half to a treatment group and one-half to a seemingly identical placebo group. TERM 300 make a reasonable effort to warn potential victims DEFINITION 300 In most states that have a Tarasoff-type rule, when a client threatens someone, a therapist must a. make a reasonable effort to warn potential victims. b. continue trying to warn potential victims until he or she reaches them. c. not break confidentiality. d. warn as many people who know the client as possible. TERM 301 The likelihood of relapse is decreased DEFINITION 301 Which of the following is an advantage of using Beck's cognitive treatment for depression, as compared to drugs? a. The likelihood of relapse is decreased. b. It is clearly more effective. c. It works quickly. d. The changes it produces in the brain are permanent, while the effects of drugs are only temporary. TERM 302 Wilson, whose complaint is premature ejaculation DEFINITION 302 For which client is behavior therapy most likely to be effective? a. Wilson, whose complaint is premature ejaculation. b. Angela, who has a variety of personality disorders. c. Colin, who is struggling with vague concerns about his career and marital prospects. d. Tamara, who is trying to understand the origins of her personality. TERM 303 he believed defenses were lowered during sleep and repressed material would start to come out in dreams DEFINITION 303 Freud called dreams "the royal road to the unconscious" because a. he believed they kept people from uncovering their true feelings. b. he believed people intentionally dreamed about material they wanted to discuss in therapy but were afraid to. c. he believed defenses were lowered during sleep and repressed material would start to come out in dreams. d. he believed people would only tell him about unimportant dreams, so he could dismiss the topics they brought up. TERM 304 Harvey, who is going through a job layoff and feels overwhelmed by the crisis DEFINITION 304 Individuals vary tremendously in their degree of motivation for psychological treatment. Which of the following is likely to be the most motivated? a. Harvey, who is going through a job layoff and feels overwhelmed by the crisis. b. Jennifer, who was referred by the court to undergo therapy because of a drunk driving charge. c. Marvin, whose wife has said she will divorce him unless he gets treatment for his compulsive gambling. d. Barry, who is is sure he has a heart condition but whose cardiologist suggests he needs psychotherapy to cope with stress better. TERM 305 aimed at increasing self-esteem and reducing the influence of negative peer pressure DEFINITION 305 Selective intervention programs that teach adolescents social skills and enhance feelings of competency are a. usually ineffective at reducing the impact of substance use. b. considered mass media and modeling programs. c. forms of crisis intervention. d. aimed at increasing self-esteem and reducing the influence of negative peer pressure. TERM 306 treat psychotic disorders DEFINITION 306 Drugs that block dopamine receptors are most likely to be used to a. distort perception. b. alleviate depression. c. stabilize mood. d. treat psychotic disorders. TERM 307 prescribing medications; examining and changing behavior and thought patterns DEFINITION 307 In general, psychiatrists tend to treat mental disorders by ________ and psychologists by ________. a. examining and changing behavior and thought patterns; prescribing medications b. prescribing medications; examining and changing behavior and thought patterns c. supportive therapy; behavior therapy d. hospitalization; supportive therapy TERM 308 GABA; serotonin DEFINITION 308 While most antianxiety drugs act on ________, Buspar acts primarily on ________. a. serotonin; GABA b. serotonin; epinephrine c. GABA; serotonin d. GABA; epinephrine TERM 309 Ones that combine different intervention strategies DEFINITION 309 Dr. Jones says, "These projects have clearly shown a promising path toward reducing the extent of substance abuse in young people." What projects is Dr. Jones talking about? a. Ones that combine different intervention strategies b. Ones that involve the interdiction or reduction in supply of drugs c. Ones that contradict the movies and TV commercials that glamorize drugs d. Ones that use teachers to tell students why drugs are bad for their health TERM 310 the belief that schizophrenia and epilepsy are rarely comorbid disorders DEFINITION 310 The use of electroconvulsive therapy can be traced to a. the observation that people were rarely depressed after being struck by lightning. b. the belief that schizophrenia and epilepsy are rarely comorbid disorders. c. the recognition that electricity could be used to alter brain chemistry. d. the use of electrical shock as an instrument of torture.