AP Biology practice test, Prüfungen von Biologie

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• Practice Test

II. Practice Test 1 | 11

AP

Biology Exam

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

SECTION I: Multiple-Choice Questions

The Exam

Instructions

Section I of this examination contains 60 multiple-choice questions.

Indicate all of your answers to the multiple-choice questions on the answer sheet. Answer sheets are available in the back of this book and online in your Students Tools (More Free Content). No credit will be given for anything written in this exam booklet, but you may use the booklet for notes or scratch work. After you have decided which of the suggested answers is best, completely fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. Give only one answer to each question. If you change an answer, be sure that the previous mark is erased completely. Here is a sample question and answer.

Sample Question Sample Answer

Chicago is a A^ B^ C^ D

(A) state (B) city (C) country (D) continent

Use your time effectively, working as quickly as you can without losing accuracy. Do not spend too much time on any one question. Go on to other questions and come back to the ones you have not answered if you have time. It is not expected that everyone will know the answers to all the multiple-choice questions.

About Guessing

Many candidates wonder whether or not to guess the answers to questions about which they are not certain. Multiple-choice scores are based on the number of questions answered correctly. Points are not deducted for incorrect answers, and no points are awarded for unanswered questions. Because points are not deducted for incorrect answers, you are encouraged to answer all multiple-choice questions. On any questions you do not know the answer to, you should eliminate as many choices as you can, and then select the best answer among the remaining choices.

Total Time 1 hour and 30 minutes Number of Questions 60 Percent of Total Score 50% Writing Instrument Pencil required

At a Glance

VI. Practice Test 2 | 3 3 1

Section I

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Questions 8–11 refer to the following passage.

The affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen is reduced by many factors, including low pH and high CO 2. The graph below shows the different dissociation curves that maternal (normal) hemoglobin and fetal hemoglobin have.

100

100

90

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0 10

Fetal

Maternal

p O 2 (mm Hg)

Percent Saturation of Hemoglobin

1. Based on the graph, it can be concluded that (A) fetal hemoglobin surrenders O 2 more readily than maternal hemoglobin (B) the dissociation curve of fetal hemoglobin is to the right of maternal hemoglobin (C) fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for O 2 than does maternal hemoglobin (D) fetal and maternal hemoglobin differ in structure
2. Which of the following processes would likely shift the normal dissociation curve to the right? (A) Photosynthesis (B) Respiration (C) Fermentation (D) Mitosis
3. Hemoglobin’s affinity for O 2 (A) decreases as blood pH decreases (B) increases as H +^ concentration increases (C) increases as blood pH decreases (D) decreases as OH −^ concentration increases
4. A cell experiences a nondisjunction event in Meiosis I. Calculate the chances of each resulting gamete exhibiting a normal karyotype. (A) 15 (B) 30 (C) 45 (D) 60
5. G protein-coupled receptors (GPCR) consist of seven transmembrane receptors consisting of alpha helices. The amino end of the protein is on the outside of the plasma membrane. The seven receptors are coupled either on the outside or inside of the plasma membrane. The helix between the 5th and 6th receptors is usually significantly longer than the other helices. A scientist wants to perform an experiment to inhibit the GPCR’s function. Which of the following would the scientist aim to target? (A) the phospholipid bilayer of the plasma membrane (B) the external side of the receptor (C) the internal side of the receptor (D) the sequence of amino acids that make up the binding site for the G protein
6. In minks, the gene for brown fur ( B ) is dominant over the gene for silver fur ( b ). Which set of genotypes represents a cross that could produce offspring with silver fur from parents that both have brown fur? (A) BB × BB (B) BB × Bb (C) Bb × Bb (D) Bb × bb
7. Retroviruses violate the Central Dogma because (A) they store their genetic material as RNA, which is reverse-transcribed to DNA (B) they do not contain hereditary material but use the host DNA instead (C) retroviruses do not use the same codon sequences that living organisms do (D) retroviruses do not require transcription to make proteins
8. Which of the following is an example of dehydration synthesis? (A) conversion of fats to fatty acids and glycerol (B) conversion of proteins to amino acids (C) conversion of starch to simple sugars (D) conversion of nucleic acids to a strand of DNA

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Section I

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1. Which of the following macromolecules can provide short-term energy, speed up chemical reactions, and store genetic information, in that order? (A) Carbohydrates, proteins, and nucleic acids (B) Carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids (C) Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins (D) Lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids

Questions 17–20 refer to the following passage. The Loop of Henle is a structure within each of the million nephrons within a kidney. As shown in the figure, the two sides have different permeabilities, and there is differential movement across each membrane. The Loop acts as a counter-current multiplier that makes the medulla of the kidney very osmotic. The longer the loop, the higher and more powerful the osmolarity gradient that is created. The gradient is required for the reclamation of water from the urine collecting duct. On the right side of the figure is the urine collecting duct. If the body needs to retain water, anti-diuretic hormone makes this region permeable to water via the introduction of aquaporins, and the osmotic pull of the medulla reclaims the water, out of the collecting duct, which makes the urine more concentrated.

Descending limb

Ascending limb

Blood vesselsVasa recta

Collecting Duct

Filtrate entering kidney

Water flow

Osmotic medulla

Osmotic medulla

Osmotic medulla

Normally impermeable to water

Ions actively pumped

1. Which of the following statements correctly describes the state of things near the top of the descending limb? (A) The fluid within the descending limb is hypotonic to fluid in the space surrounding the tubule. (B) The blood within the vasa recta is hypotonic to the filtrate within the descending limb. (C) The fluid in the area surrounding the tubule is hypertonic to the blood in the vasa recta. (D) The water in the area surrounding the tubule has a higher water potential than the water in the descending tubule. 18. What type of transport is occurring when water flows out of the descending tubule? (A) Simple diffusion (B) Facilitated diffusion (C) Active transport (D) Secondary active transport 19. If an inhibitor of anti-diuretic hormone, such as caffeine, was ingested, what would be the result? (A) Aquaporins would appear in the collecting duct. (B) Aquaporins would increase in number in the collecting duct. (C) It would block aquaporins like a competitive inhibitor. (D) Aquaporins would not appear in the collecting duct. 20. The ability to reclaim water from the collecting duct is directly related to the osmotic pull of the medulla. Kan- garoo rats are known to produce extremely concentrated urine. Compared to a human, the nephrons in kangaroo rats must have (A) thick walls that are impermeable to water (B) shorter Loops of Henle (C) longer Loops of Henle (D) shorter collecting ducts

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Section I

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Questions 30–32 refer to the following passage. The following are important pieces of replication and transcription machinery:

DNA polymerase

RNA polymerase

Enhancer

Repressor

Single strand of DNA Single strand of RNA

Double helix

Unwound double helix

1. Which of the following figures would be present without helicase? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

1. What might have occurred to produce the following situation?

(A) Stalled DNA replication (B) Initiation of transcription (C) Repression of transcription (D) Crossing-over in meiosis

1. Put these four situations in the correct order:

I.

II.

III.

IV.

(A) I, III, IV, II

(B) I, IV ,II, III

(C) IV, I, III, II

(D) I, III, II, IV

Time (min)

CO

(ppm) 2 O

(ppm) 2

1. Which process is demonstrated in the figure above? (A) Krebs cycle (B) Photosynthesis (C) Glycolysis (D) Fermentation
2. Scientists performed a transformation experiment in which they added DNAse, protease, and RNAse to degrade DNA, proteins, and RNA respectively. They found no change in bacteria treated with protease and RNAse, but the transfor- mation did not occur in those treated with DNAse. These results are most consistent with which of the following conclusions? (A) The double helix is the structure of a DNA molecule. (B) DNA is the hereditary material. (C) DNA replication is semiconservative. (D) DNA polymerase adds bases to only the 3' side of DNA.
3. Which of the following processes occur in the cytoplasm of a eukaryotic cell? (A) DNA replication (B) Transcription (C) Translation (D) Translocation
4. Crossing-over during meiosis permits scientists to determine (A) the chance for variation in zygotes (B) the rate of mutations (C) the distance between genes on a chromosome (D) which traits are dominant or recessive

VI. Practice Test 2 | 3 3 5

Section I

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1. An animal cell that is permeable to water but not salts has an internal NaCl concentration of 10%. If placed in freshwater, the cell will (A) plasmolyze (B) swell and eventually lyse (C) endocytose water into a large central vacuole (D) shrivel
2. Three distinct bird species, flicker, woodpecker, and elf owl, all inhabit a large cactus, Cereus giganteus , in the desert of Arizona. Since competition among these birds rarely occurs, the most likely explanation for this phe- nomenon is that these birds (A) have a short supply of resources (B) have different ecological niches (C) do not live together long (D) are unable to breed
3. Lampreys attach to the skin of lake trout and absorb nutrients from its body. This relationship is an example of (A) commensalism (B) parasitism (C) mutualism (D) gravitropism
4. The nucleotide sequence of a template DNA molecule is 5'-C-A-T-3'. An mRNA molecule with a complementary codon is transcribed from the DNA. What would be the sequence of the anticodon that binds to this mRNA? (A) 5'-G-T-A-3' (B) 5'-G-U-A-3' (C) 5'-C-A-U-3' (D) 5'-U-A-C-3'
5. Viruses are considered an exception to the cell theory because they (A) require a host cell (B) do not contain a genome (C) do not contain a nuclei (D) cannot evolve via mechanisms that cells evolve from

Questions 42–44 refer to the following passage. It is difficult to determine exactly how life began. Answer the following questions as if the following data had been collected billions of years ago.

billion years ago

billion years ago

billion years ago

billion years ago Atmospheric carbon dioxide

Present Present Present Present

Atmospheric oxygen

Absent Absent Absent Present

RNA Absent Present Present Present Protein Absent Absent Present Present DNA Absent Absent Present Present Life Absent Present Present Present

1. Which best describes the origin of life according to the data? (A) Life required an environment with atmospheric oxygen and any type of nucleic acids. (B) Life required an environment with atmospheric carbon dioxide, but not atmospheric oxygen. (C) Life required an environment with self-replicating nucleic acids that can take on many shapes. (D) Life required an environment with nucleic acids and proteins, but not atmospheric oxygen.
2. How long is the window in which the earliest functional ribosomes could have been found? (A) 0.10 billion years (B) 0.25 billion years (C) 0.50 billion years (D) 0.75 billion years
3. Photosynthesis likely began_______ billion years ago when the first ____________ appeared. (A) 4.5; autotrophs (B) 3.2; autotrophs (C) 3.5; heterotrophs (D) 3.2; heterotrophs

VI. Practice Test 2 | 3 3 7

Section I

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1. Based on the data, which is the most likely location for Snippeiq to be placed? (A) Position O (B) Position P (C) Position R (D) Position S
2. Which location contains the oldest common ancestor? (A) Position I (B) Position II (C) Position III (D) Position IV
   1. Which species is the out-group? (A) Snippeiq (B) Fixxels (C) Snorflak (D) Sqellert
   2. Which 2 species would you expect to have the most shared derived characters? (A) Snippeiq and Sqellert (B) Gerdellen and Sqellert (C) Snorflak and Gerdellen (D) Snorflak and Fixxels

Questions 53–56 refer to the following figures, which show 5 species of insects that were discovered on a previously unknown island and were named as shown in the table. Proteomic analysis was performed on a highly conserved protein in the insects, and the number of amino acid differences was calculated and included in the table below. The scientists used this data to create the phylogenetic tree shown below with positions labeled I, II, III, and IV as well as O, P, Q, R, and S.

Snippeiq Fixxels Snorfak Gerdellen Sqellert Snippeiq 0 13 3 12 3 Fixxels 0 3 8 8 Snorflak 0 9 9 Gerdellen 0 4 Sqellert 0

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Section I

1. Pre- and post-zygotic barriers exist that prevent two different species from producing viable offspring. Which of the following is an example of a post-zygotic barrier to reproduction? (A) anatomical differences preventing copulation (B) different temporality of mating (C) sterility of offspring (D) incompatible mating songs
2. Birds and insects have both adapted wings to travel by flight. The wings of birds and insects are an example of (A) divergent evolution (B) convergent evolution (C) speciation (D) genetic drift
3. The two most closely related organisms are (A) sea anemone and hagfish (B) eel and salamander (C) hagfish and eel (D) sea anemone and salamander
4. The correct order of evolution for the traits above is (A) jaws – vertebral column – walking legs (B) walking legs – jaws – vertebral column (C) jaws – walking legs – vertebral column (D) vertebral column – jaws – walking legs

Questions 57 and 58 refer to the data below concerning the general animal body plan of four organisms.

Characteristic Sea anemone Hagfish Eel Salamander

Vertebral column + + +

Jaws + +

Walking legs +

Note: + indicates a feature present in an organism.

STOP

END OF SECTION I

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS

SECTION. DO NOT GO ON TO SECTION II UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

VI. Practice Test 2 | 3 4 1

Section I

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Section II

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1. In a forest there are two types of wildflowers: red flowers and yellow flowers. The red flowers are the food of choice for a population of rodents. The yellow flowers are the food of choice for a type of mountain deer. Both populations of animals appear to be evenly distributed throughout the forest, but it often looks like there are more red flowers on one side of the forest than on the other side.

A researcher wanted to determine if the red flowers preferred to grow on the western side of the forest and the yellow preferred to grow on the eastern side of the forest. For 5 years, she counted the number of red flowers on each side of the forest. The results are in Table 1.

Table 1

Year Western RedFlowers Eastern RedFlowers

2006 1,527 986 2007 1,324 1, 2008 1,478 876 2009 1,048 788 2010 1,140 800 Average 1,304 892 Standard Error 208 103

(a) Explain how biotic and abiotic factors affect where plants grow. (b) Construct a graph of averages and standard error for the western and eastern flowers. (c) Perform a chi-squared analysis using the average data for both flower types. (d) Using your chi-squared analysis data, explain if you can reject the null hypothesis that flowers do not prefer the western side.

1. Schizosaccharomyces pombe , or fission yeast, has a cell cycle that resembles that of mammalian cells. During interphase, fission yeast grow to twice their normal size, and at the end of mitosis, both daughter offspring are equal in size to the original parent cell. Genes that regulate the division of fission yeast are known as cell-division cycle, or cdc , genes.

The following experiments were conducted to determine the effect of cdc gene mutations on yeast cell division.

Experiment 1 In order to determine the effect of cdc mutations, wild-type cells and mutants were grown at 37°C in the presence of a radioactive drug that specifically binds to the spindle apparatus. Stages of the cell cycle were elucidated for both cell types incubated at this temperature. At 37°C, temperature-sensitive cdc mutants were unable to re-enter interphase after mitosis. The illustration below depicts the results for wild-type cells and cdc mutants.

Radiolabeled

Radiolabeled Radiolabeled

Wild-type Mutant

No further replication

Figure 1

Experiment 2 Cdc mutants were initially incubated at 25°C for 30 minutes and several rounds of mitosis occurred. Separate colonies were then exposed to temperatures near 37°C at different times during the cell cycle. For each colony, the cell cycle was arrested immediately after the last phase of mitosis.

(a) Describe how a mutation in DNA can lead to a protein that no longer functions correctly. (b) Explain the impact of the radiolabeled drug on the cell cycle. (c) Predict what would happen if the cdc mutants were initially incubated at 37°C and then switched to 25°C. (d) Justify your prediction.

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Section I

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Section II

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1. A prairie was sampled by entomological researchers to determine the species abundance and diversity. Three years into the study a fire swept through the prairie. Two years later quadrant sampling was completed again. Results were compiled in the table below.

Organism Before Fire 2 Years After Fire Hazel-hued bugs 3 10 Hairy bear moths 14 9 Telluride tiger beetles 6 15 Golden-winged butterflies 21 10

(a) Describe what happened to the biodiversity of the ecosystem before and after the fire. (b) Explain your description in (A) using Simpson’s Diversity Index.

(c) Predict what would happen to the biodiversity if there was an invasive insect species introduced into this ecosystem. (d) Justify your prediction.

a b

g h i j k l

g h i j k l o p q r v w x y

c d e f m n

a b

a b

c d e f m n

s t u

II

I

Generation

III

= Disease 1 = Disease 2^ = Both diseases

The diagram above is a pedigree of three generations showing the occurrence of two genetically transmitted diseases. Pheno- types of affected individuals are shown. Circles represent females, and squares represent males. Assume that the diseases are rare, unlinked, and that individuals not blood-related to I-a and I-b (“in-laws”) do not have either disease-producing allele.

(a) Explain how it is possible for a person to have two rare unlinked genetic diseases at the same time. (b) Calculate the ratios of affected males and affected females for Disease 2.

(c) Identify the likely inheritance patterns of Disease 1 and Disease 2. (d) Describe how inheritance patterns are shaped by the chromosomes upon which the genes are located.