2024 BIOD 151 ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY 1 PORTAGE LEARNING ALL EXAMS (MODULE 1- MODULE 7) TES, Exams of Nursing

Download 2024 BIOD 151 ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY 1 PORTAGE LEARNING ALL EXAMS (MODULE 1- MODULE 7) TES and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 2024 BIOD 151 ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY 1 PORTAGE LEARNING ALL EXAMS (MODULE 1- MODULE 7) TEST BANK MODULE 1 All multiple choice questions have one answer unless otherwise specified. Choose the best response to the question with the information provided. 1. What is the study of the structure of the human body? A. Anatomy B. Physiology C. Anabolism D. Catabolism E. Metabolism A. Anatomy 2. B. The liver is an example of the organ level of organization in the human body A. Sodium B. The liver C. Mitochondria D. The skeletal system E. Epithelium 3. What is the breakdown of nutrients? A. Anatomy B. Physiology C. Anabolism D. Catabolism E. Metabolism D. Catabolism 1. List the four basic types of tissues. 4. What anatomical orientation term is used to indicate "further from the origin of the body part"? Distal 5. You are looking at a diagram of a patient standing in anatomical position. On the sheet of paper containing the diagram, which thumb points to the left side of the paper, right or left? Right Note: Essay answers must clearly be in your own words. All multiple choice questions have one answer unless otherwise specified. Choose the best response to the question with the information provided. 1. Are the arms part of the axial or appendicular region of the body? Appendicular 2. A patient is standing in anatomical position. The patient moves his hand to scratch his nose. What anatomical action term is best used to indicate the motion occurring at his elbow? A. Flexion B. Extension C. Elevation D. Depression E. Abduction A. Flexion (“closing of a joint”) 3. What anatomical action term is used to indicate "movement away from midline"? A. Flexion B. Extension C. Elevation D. Depression E. Abduction E. Abduction Note: Essay answers must clearly be in your own words. All multiple choice questions have one answer unless otherwise specified. Choose the best response to the question with the information provided. 1. Describe the position of the epigastric region relative to the umbilical region in anatomical position terms. Use a full sentence for your description. The epigastric region is superior to the umbilical region. (OR) The umbilical region is inferior to the epigastric region. 2. Which anatomical action is occurring at the elbow joint, in the direction of the arrow? (Elbow) Flexion 3. Look at the figure below. The right femur is moved in the direction of the arrow. What anatomical action term best describes this movement? Abduction (The femur is moving away from midline) Note: Essay answers must clearly be in your own words. All multiple choice questions have one answer unless otherwise specified. Choose the best response to the question with the information provided. 1. List two organs contained in the pelvic cavity. The pelvic cavity contains the bladder, reproductive organs and the rectum B. Carrier proteins move particles from greater concentration to lesser 4. List the three organelles, in order, involved in the synthesis, transport and shipping of proteins. A. rough ER, Golgi complex, lysosomes B. ribosomes, rough ER, Golgi complex C. ribosomes, smooth ER, Golgi complex D. rough ER, Golgi complex, vacuole B. ribosomes, rough ER, Golgi complex Note: Essay answers must clearly be in your own words. All multiple choice questions have one answer unless otherwise specified. Choose the best response to the question with the information provided. 1. Label the 5 organelles listed below: 3: 4: 5: 7: 8: 3: Nucleolus 4: Nuclear Envelope 5: Mitochondria 7: Lysosome 8: Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER) 2. True or False? a. The purpose of cellular respiration is to produce ADP. (T or F) b. Peripheral proteins are found on the outer surface of a cell membrane. (T or F) c. Exocytosis is the process that occurs to bring biomacromolecules inside the cell. (T or F) d. Receptor-mediated endocytosis uses a signaling molecule from another cell, binding to the cell membrane to bring about changes within the cell proteins. (T or F) e. Endocytosis is a passive process. It does not require cellular energy expenditure.(T or F) A: T B: T C: F D: T E: F 2. True or False? a. The purpose of cellular respiration is to produce ADP. (T or F) b. Peripheral proteins are found on the outer surface of a cell membrane. (T or F) c. Exocytosis is the process that occurs to bring biomacromolecules inside the cell. (T or F) d. Receptor-mediated endocytosis uses a signaling molecule from another cell, binding to the cell membrane to bring about changes within the cell proteins. (T or F) e. Endocytosis is a passive process. It does not require cellular energy expenditure.(T or F) a. FALSE (ATP is produced, not ADP) b. TRUE (Peripheral proteins can be found on the outer or inner surface, but do not span across the entire membrane). c. FALSE (This process is called endocytosis) d. TRUE e. FALSE (Endocytosis is an active process and requires cellular energy) Note: Essay answers must clearly be in your own words. All multiple choice questions have one answer unless otherwise specified. Choose the best response to the question with the information provided. 1. In your own words, discuss Tay-Sachs disease. What organelle within the cell is impacted? What are the symptoms of the disease and why do they occur? (1) Lysosomes (2) buildup of toxic lipids inside the cell (biomacromolecules) (3) disability and death In the genetic disease known as Tay-Sachs, one of the normally present digestive enzymes inside lysosomes is lacking. Thus, a toxic lipid in the brain cells cannot be broken down. The resulting buildup of lipids in these cells can cause intellectual disability and death. 2. You are observing two cells under the microscope. They are the same type of eukaryotic cell but one appears much larger. Based on appearance alone, which one would you expect to be carrying out respiration at a more active rate, the larger or smaller cell? Explain why. The smaller cell. Cells need to remain relatively small because as a cell expands the amount of surface area relative to the volume of the cell decreases. The smaller cell is more active because relative to its volume, its surface area is larger than a bigger cell. With a larger surface area (relative to its volume) this allows the metabolic processes to occur faster. 2. Explain at least two differences between Type I and Type II alveolar cells. a. Type I form the very thin simple squamous epithelium of the alveoli in junction with capillaries. Make up roughly 95% of alveolar epithelial cells. b. Type II produce and secrete pulmonary surfactant which is needed throughout the alveolar surface to keep the alveoli open. In addition, Type II cells can divide to replace damaged Type I cells. Make up roughly 5% of alveolar epithelial cells. Answer the following five true or false questions: 1. Negative pressure is used to move air into the lungs. True 2. During exhalation the diaphragm contracts to actively push air out of the lungs. False (during inhalation) 3. During inhalation the rib cage lifts in an upward motion to open and expand the lungs. True 4. As the thoracic cavity expands and lung volume increases, the density of the gases filling the lungs decreases. True 5. When the diaphragm rises, thoracic pressure increases and air naturally flows out of the lungs. True (air naturally flows out of the lungs because of the pressure difference) Answer the following five multiple choice questions: 1. Boyle's law states that gas volume is A. Directly proportional to temperature B. Inversely proportional to temperature C. Directly proportional to pressure D. Inversely proportional to pressure E. Both A and B D. Inversely proportional to pressure 2. Typical respiratory epithelium contains all of the following, except which one? A. cilia B. layers C. tall, narrow cells D. mucus producing cells E. goblet cells B. layers 3. Which cells are most abundant within the alveoli? A. Macrophages B. Type 1 alveolar cells C. Type 2 alveolar cells D. Erythrocytes E. Ciliated columnar cells A. Macrophages 4. Which one of the following is not true of the respiratory physiology? A. Tidal volume is the maximum amount of air able to be inhaled beyond normal inhalation B. Tidal volume is the amount of air inhaled and exhaled in one cycle of quiet breathing C. Inspiratory reserve volume is the maximum amount of air able to be inhaled beyond normal inhalation D. Expiratory reserve volume is the maximum amount of air able to be exhaled beyond normal exhalation A. Tidal volume is the maximum amount of air able to be inhaled beyond normal inhalation 5. Which one of the following is true of the respiratory physiology calculations? (You may find it helpful to draw the respiratory physiology diagram on a piece of scratch paper.) A. Vital Capacity (VC) = ERV+TV B. Total Lung Capacity (TLC) = VC +RV C. Inspiratory Capacity (IC) = TV+RV D. Functional Residual Capacity (FRC) = IRV + TV B. Total Lung Capacity (TLC) = VC +RV Answer the following five true or false questions: 1. Typical respiratory epithelium contains cells where only some of the pseudostratified columnar cells touch the basement membrane. False -all pseudostratified cells touch the basement membrane. 2. The vestibule is the most external portion of the nasal cavity. True 3. The vestibule is lined with typical respiratory epithelium. False- stratified squamous epithelium is found in the vestibule. 4. The fossae is another name for the pleural cavities. False 5. The bronchioles are surrounded by capillaries for gas exchange. False Matching: Look carefully at the diagram below. Label the following 5 1) Which of the following statements regarding pulmonary function would be true? 2) Explain your answer. A. Inspiratory capacity would be MODULE 3 Note: Essay answers must clearly be in your own words. All multiple choice questions have one answer unless otherwise specified. Choose the best response with the information provided. Answer the following two questions: 1. Explain why a patient with liver disease would have intolerance to fatty foods. The liver produces bile which breaks down fats. If it is not producing bile (or less bile), fats will not be broken down effectively. 2. Explain in detail how the stomach contents enter the small intestine. The pyloric sphincter (valve), located at the base of the stomach, relaxes causing a small quantity of chyme to pass through the opening into the first part of the small intestine. This initiates a reflex that causes the muscles of the sphincter to contract and close the opening temporarily. Then the sphincter relaxes again and allows more chyme to enter. Gallbladder 7: Jejunum (not small intestine) 9: Appendix (not large intestine) 10: Rectum (not large intestine) Answer the following two questions: 1. A doctor is looking to prescribe a larger dose of a vitamin that would not easily cause vitamin toxicity. What type of vitamin would be the best to prescribe? Explain your answer. A. Water soluble vitamin B. Fat soluble vitamin C. All of the above A. Water soluble vitamin. Fat soluble vitamins are stored within the body’s fat stores making it harder for the body to rid itself of them. 2. Explain which digestive system functions are carried out by the large intestine. Absorption: In the large intestine water and electrolytes are reabsorbed and vitamins are absorbed. Defecation: Feces travel to the rectum where it is excreted via the anus. Note: Essay answers must clearly be in your own words. Answer the following essay question: 1. Name and explain the four main functions performed by the digestive system. The digestive system has four main roles that it performs: ingestion, digestion, absorption, and defecation. Ingestion is when food enters the mouth. Digestion or food breakdown occurs when food is moved, mixed, and exposed to enzymes along the gastrointestinal tract. Digestion can be divided into two parts: mechanical and chemical digestion. Mechanical digestion occurs when food is broken down into smaller pieces. This occurs when the teeth chew food, when the stomach mixes food, and as food is moved along the gastrointestinal tract. Chemical digestion is the breakdown of food by enzymes. Absorption is the process of moving digested food into the blood stream. Defecation is the excretion of indigestible food from the anus. Answer the following three questions: A: Filiform papillae B: Circumvallate papillae C: Fungiform papillae Describe B: Papillae are raised bumps on the tongue. The three types of papillae help to grip food on the tongue: circumvallate, fungiform and filiform. Circumvallate papillae contain taste buds. Answer the following three questions: 1. Which of the following statements is true concerning glycolysis? A. Pyruvic acid are broken down into glucose. B. Two ATP molecules are formed in first breakdown of glucose. C. Glucose is broken down into three pyruvate molecules. D. Glucose is broken down into two sucrose molecules. B. Two ATP molecules are formed (True) 2. Which of the following statements is true concerning the second stage of glucose breakdown? A. This is also known as proton motive force. B. Fermentation takes place here with oxygen present. C. Two additional ATP are formed along with other electron carriers. D. Glucose molecules are formed. C. Two additional ATP are formed along with other electron carriers. (True) 3. Which of the following statements is false concerning the Electron Transport System? A. Anaerobic respiration is more efficient than aerobic respiration. B. Approximately a total of 34 ATP are formed. C. Protons are pumped out of the inner mitochondrial membrane. D. The proton motive force forms ATP molecules. A. Anaerobic respiration is more efficient than aerobic respiration (false) Label the diagram below, including left A: Left Central Incisor C: Left Canine (cuspid) E: Right Molar F: Maxilla (Hard Palate) Describe tooth type A: Chisel-shaped for biting food F. A. and C. are false 4. The cranium is formed by bones; the facial skeleton contains bones. A. 22; 14 B. 3; 6 C. 8; 14 D. 14; 8 C. 8; 14 5. What bone is highlighted in blue in the figure below? (superior/internal view) Ethmoid bone 1. Label the following bones of the skeleton from the figure below: 1: Frontal bone (or frontal sinuses) 3: Maxilla 5: Vomer 7: Maxilla 8: Mandible Answer the following three questions: 1. Label the following vertebrae as: A= Cervical B= Thoracic C= Lumbar A (Cervical) 2. Label the following vertebrae as: A= Cervical B= Thoracic C= Lumbar B (Thoracic) 3. What is the name of the foramina in the figure below? 1: Foramen ovale 2: Carotid canal 3: 1 . L a b e l t 2. Which of the following statements is FALSE about the humerus? A. The trochlea articulates with the ulna. B. The head of the humerus articulates with the ulna. C. The capitulum articulates with the radius. D. The medial epicondyle is the prominent bone landmark of the medial side of the elbow (in anatomical position). E. A. and B. are false B. The head of the humerus articulates with the ulna. (The head of the humerus articulates with the scapula) 3. What two bones meet at the glenohumeral joint? In your own words, why is this joint prone to dislocation? Humerus and scapula The structure of the shoulder permits movement of the arm in almost any direction but provides little stability. The glenohumeral joint is prone to dislocation because it is held in place primarily by muscular and ligament attachment with very little bony stability. 2. Label the bones in the figure below: A: Cuboid C: Intermediate cuneiform D: Medial Cuneiform F: Navicular G: Calcaneus address your patient’s pain. Herniated disc is when the disc between the vertebrae slips and presses on the spinal cord or nerves. This causes the pain. This condition can be treated in a few ways. One form is physical therapy in strengthening the muscles in the area. Surgery is an option, resulting in removing the disc yet having to fuse together the vertebrae. 1. Matching: Match the joint with the correct joint classification (A-F). *NOTE: Some joints may fall into more than one category. Mark all that apply. A= Fibrous B= Cartilaginous C= Synovial D= Hinge E= Ball-and-Socket F=Saddle 1. Elbow joint C, D (Synovial, Hinge) 2. Thumb joint C, F (Synovial, Saddle) 3. Hip joint C, E (Synovial, Ball and socket) 4. Vertebral joint B (Cartilaginous) 5. Cranial joints A (Fibrous) Answer the following three questions: 1. Name the ligament highlighted in 2. Name the ligament highlighted in blue in the figure below: MCL (Medial collateral/tibial ligament) 3. Name the ligament highlighted in blue in the figure below: Acromioclavicular ligament Label the following five muscles: B: Temporalis C: Orbicularis oculi E: Zygomaticus major G: Buccinator J: Depressor labii inferioris Fill in the following muscle chart (10 blank spaces): Muscle Flexor digitorum superficialis Pronator Teres Vastus Medialis Peroneus Brevis 1. Flexion of the wrist and digits 2-5 2. Median nerve 3. Mid-lateral surface of radius 4. Pronation 5. Median nerve 6. Origin Insertion Action Innervation ------- ---------- 1. 2. ------- 3. 4. 5. 6. ---------- 7. -------------- Intertrochanteric line of femur 7. Knee extension 8. Lateral, distal fibula 9. Lateral side of 5th metatarsal 10. Superficial peroneal nerve Answer the following five questions: 1. Your patient sustained an injury to their facial nerve (CN VII). Which actions would be impaired? A. Eye closure B. Raising eyebrows C. Jaw closure D. Neck flexion E. A&B F. C&D E.A&B (Orbicularis oculi & frontalis) 2. Your patient is having difficulty when asked to bring his chin to his chest. He is also having difficulty turning his face from side to side. What muscle is most likely impaired? A. Thyrohyoid B. Semispinalis capitis C. Splenius Capitis D. Sternocleidomastoid E. Scalenes D. Sternocleidomastoid (Bilateral neck flexion, unilateral turns face) 1. Which muscle has origins on both the clavicle and scapula? (specify letter on diagram with the name of the muscle for full credit) A (Deltoid) 2. Which muscle is innervated by the thoracodorsal nerve? (specify letter on diagram with the name of the muscle for full credit) H or I (Lats) 3. What is the name of muscle D? (specify letter on diagram with the name of the muscle for full credit) Infraspinatus 4. What is the innervation of muscle D? (specify letter on diagram with the name of the muscle for full credit) Suprascapular nerve 5. What is the insertion of muscle E? (specify letter on diagram with the name of the muscle for full credit) Intertubercular groove of humerus (Teres major) Use the figure to label the following six muscles: (Viewed posteriorly) A: Extensor carpi radialis longus C: Extensor digitorum D: Extensor Carpi Ulnaris F: Abductor pollicis longus H: Extensor indicis I: Extensor pollicis brevis Use the figure to label the following six muscles: D: Peroneus (fibularis) longus C: Pituitary gland 1. Explain the concept of positive feedback. Give an example of a hormone that works through positive feedback. 1- Positive feedback is the action of a hormone increasing the production of that hormone. (This is the opposite of negative feedback). 2- One example is the action of oxytocin causing the uterus to contract during labor. Oxytocin enhances the effect of the uterus contractions, causing more oxytocin to be released. The positive feedback loop is stopped once the baby is born and the uterus no longer needs to contract, stopping the production of oxytocin. Answer the following five questions: 1. This type of hormone is derived from proteins: A. Peptide hormones B. Catecholamines C. Steroid hormones D. Tyrosine A. Peptide hormones Positive feedback system increases the amount of the hormone that is regulated. An example of a hormone that works through positive feedback is oxytocin. This hormone is involved with childbirth by causing the uterus to contract. As the uterus is contracting, this causes more oxytocin to be released. The feedback is stopped once the baby is born and the uterus does not need to contract. This stops the release of oxytocin. A. MSH –melanocyte stimulating hormone B. melatonin C. cortisol D. GH -Growth hormone B. melatonin 1. List the hormone best describes each of the four statements below: A. I lower the level of calcium in the blood by depositing calcium into bone. Calcitonin B. I am the secreted by the pituitary and stimulate the gonads. FSH or LH (Gonadotropic hormones) C. I am secreted by the pituitary to stimulate the adrenal cortex. ACTH D. I secreted by the alpha cells of the pancreas. Glucagon Answer the following question. Matching each of the following conditions with the one best explanation (1-5): 1. Congenital hypothyroidism C. Low thyroxin production since birth 2. Pituitary giant A. Overproduction of GH as a child 3. Acromegaly H. Overproduction of GH as an adult 4. Tetany F. Results if PTH is not produced in response to low blood calcium 5. Anemia E. Lack of erythropoietin to act on the bone marrow A. Overproduction of GH as a child B. Underproduction of GH as a child C. Low thyroxin production since birth D. High thyroxin production since birth E. Lack of erythropoietin to act on the bone marrow F. Results if PTH is not produced in response to low blood calcium G. Results if calcitonin is not produced in response to low blood calcium H. Overproduction of GH as an adult Answer the following five questions. 1. In addition to the endocrine system, the pancreas is also part of which system? A. Excretory B. Nervous C. Circulatory D. Digestive D. Digestive 2. Which part of the adrenal glands is vital to life? A. Cortex B. Medulla C. The entire gland D. None of adrenal gland is vital to life A. Cortex 3. Which of the following is false regarding aldosterone? A. It is a regulated by the concentration of sodium. B. It causes the kidneys to excrete potassium and retain sodium. C. It causes the kidneys to retain potassium and excrete sodium. D. It is a mineralocorticoid. E. It increases blood pressure C. It causes the kidneys to retain potassium and excrete sodium. 4. If you were calcium deficient, which condition would occur in your body if there was no hormonal compensation? A. Anemia B. Tetany C. Acromegaly D. Jet lag Answer the following two questions. 1. Identify the region and the layer of skin that is highlighted in blue. (Also indicated by the arrow, B. Tetany 5. Which of the following is true regarding estrogen? A. Production is highest in childhood. B. It causes growth of the uterus and vagina. C. It decreases fat storage. D. It causes females to have a narrower pelvis (compared to males). B. It causes growth of the uterus and vagina. MODULE 7 1. Match the cell (#1-4) with its single best description (A-F), using each letter only once. 1. Fibroblasts B. Produces collagen 2. Keratinocytes E. Produces a protein to protect the skin 3. Which of the following is false regarding the epidermis: A. It is avascular. B. As cells divide they are pushed towards the basement membrane. C. The cells of the stratum basale cells have a high rate of cell division. D. Epidermal ridges form a person’s fingerprints. B. As cells divide they are pushed towards the basement membrane. (False, as cells divide they are pushed towards the external surface of the stratum corneum) Answer the following three questions: 1. A person touches a hot cup of coffee. What type of sensory organ detects this information? Thermoreceptor 2. Merkel cells are embedded in what layer of the skin? Epidermis 3. In your own words, how can the skin be used to determine if a person is dehydrated? A person who is dehydrated has decreased water content in the dermal layer of their skin. A person can be tested for dehydration by pinching the skin on the back of the hand. One indicator of dehydration is when the skin does not recoil back to its normal shape but instead stays “ridged”. Dehydration can be tested in a person by pinching the skin on the back of the hand. If the skin does not recoil back to normal and stays pinched, that is one indication of dehydration. ns: of the structure below? (Highlighted in blue, also indicated by the arrow) ich connects to each hair follicle. It contracts when the body is cold or experiences emotional responses. 2. What is the name and function of the structure below? (Highlighted in blue, also indicated by the arrow) Sebaceous gland (oil gland) produces oil (sebum) to protect the skin and hair from drying. Answer the following five questions: 1. All of the following are functions of skin except: A. Absorb UV rays B. Produce vitamin C C. Thermoregulation D. Protection for underlying tissues B. Produce vitamin C 2. The thickest region of the dermis is the: A. Reticular B. Papillary C. Basement membrane D. Subcutaneous E. None of the above are layers of the dermis A. Reticular 4. The nail is a portion of the nail not visible. A. cuticle B. body C. root D. lunula C. root Answer the following five questions: 1. Why would a person receive a skin graft? (1) Skin grafting decreases recovery time and prevents infection OR (2) If skin has been damaged severely and/or covers a large surface area Skin graft may be required if the skin has been severely damaged or if a burn covers a large area. Skin grafting is a treatment that can be used with burn victims to help in damaged skin recovery. Its when healthy skin is grafted on top of damaged skin. 2. What substance from the blood accumulates to form a clot? A. White blood cells B. Red blood cells C. Macrophages D. Platelets D. Platelets 3. Mast cells secrete what chemical? A. Collagen B. Histamine C. Platelets D. Heparin B. Histamine 4. Macrophages A. secrete histamine. B. remove fibroblasts. C. engulf bacteria. D. replace old tissue matrix. C. engulf bacteria. 5. A scar . A. is called clotting. B. maintains full function of the original tissue. C. is an overgrowth of fibrous connective tissue. D. supports the tissue matrix until the old cells are developed. C. is an overgrowth of fibrous connective tissue.