APHR PRACTICE TEST #2 STUDY 2024, Exams of Advanced Education

Download APHR PRACTICE TEST #2 STUDY 2024 and more Exams Advanced Education in PDF only on Docsity! APHR PRACTICE TEST #2 STUDY 1. Who provides employee feedback during a 360-degree feedback appraisal? a) peers b) managers c) direct reports d) all of the above - The correct answer is D. 360-degree feedback includes evaluations from all levels of workers who interact with the employee who is being reviewed. 2. Which of the following employers would be required to notify employees of a mass layoff 60 days in advance according to the Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act (WARN)? a) an employer with 90 full-time workers on staff b) an employer required to layoff employees following the abrupt cancellation of a large contract c) an employer required to layoff employees following a natural disaster d) an employer with 80 full-time and 30 part-time employees working more than 4,000 hours a week - The correct answer is D. The Act applies to employers with 100 or more full-time employees, or 100 or more full- and part-time employees who work a combined 4,000 or more hours per week. Employers are only excused from the requirement in exceptional circumstances. 3. Which of the following describes what happens during a job analysis? a) Job tasks and requirements are reviewed. b) Benchmarking is conducted to establish external equity. c) Broadbanding is done to ensure internal equity. d) Red circle employee salaries are frozen. - The correct answer is A. A job analysis includes two components: job description and job specification. 4. What steps can a leader take to guide a team through substantive conflict while avoiding personal strife in the workplace? Select all choices that apply. a) ask team members to focus on opinions b) model being open to other people's ideas c) encourage teams to seek a "victory" point of view d) request that team members remain objective - B and D. To guide a team through substantive conflict, leaders can encourage team members to be open and respectful to other people's ideas, remain objective, focus on facts (not opinions and personalities), and work towards a common goal (not seek a "victory" point of view). 5. Which employees should have similar compa-ratios? a) employees with similar skills b) employees with similar responsibilities c) employees with similar levels of seniority d) all of the above - The correct answer is D. Employees in similar positions (which should include considerations of seniority, training, performance, etc.) should have similar compa-ratios. 6. Which of the following individuals is in violation of the Fair Labor Standards Act? a) an 18-year-old working at a hazardous worksite b) a minor employed by a parent c) a 15-year-old working during school hours d) a 13-year-old working on a parent's farm - The correct answer is C. The FLSA establishes criteria for child labor. According to these criteria, a 15-year-old would be permitted to work a limited number of hours at a nonhazardous job, but not during school hours. 7. Which of the following is not covered by the FLSA? a) minimum wage b) child labor c) record-keeping d) procedures for discharging employees - The correct answer is D. Procedures for discharging employees are not covered by the FLSA. 8. Which type of analysis considers how both internal and external factors serve as benefits and obstacles for an organization? a) time series analysis b) SWOT analysis c) cost-benefit analysis d) innovation metric - The correct answer is B. A SWOT (strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats) analysis focuses on identifying factors both within and outside of an organization that will impact its performance. 9. Which of the following is true regarding the EEOC and the timeliness of complaints? a) In most cases, complaints must be filed immediately after the alleged incident. b) In most cases, complaints must be filed within 180 days of the alleged incident. c) In most cases, complaints must be filed within 3 years of the alleged incident. d) Complaints may be filed at any time; there's no restriction on how long an employee can wait to file a complaint. - The correct answer is B. Strict time limits apply to claims filed with the EEOC. Most claims must be filed within 180 days from the date of the alleged discrimination. d) minimum wage - The correct answer is B. The case of Griggs v. Duke Power established that discrimination could occur unintentionally but that an employer is responsible for that discrimination nonetheless. 19. Flexible spending funds that are not used are: a) forfeited b) returned to the employee c) rolled over to the next year d) an employee has an option to either have the funds returned or rolled over to the next year - The correct answer is A. If an employee chooses to make deposits into a flexible spending account but does not use those funds by the end of the year, those funds are forfeited. 20. Which type of analysis focuses exclusively on external factors that affect a business, like the political and legal environment? a) PEST analysis b) SWOT analysis c) cost-benefit analysis d) innovation metric - The correct answer is A. The letters that make up the acronym PEST stand for political, economic, social, and technological. These are all factors that could help determine what threats and opportunities an organization faces. 21. A competitive way to shrink the market or leverage resources can be from which of the following? a) contract manufacturer b) merger or acquisition c) outsourcing d) divestiture - The correct answer is B. A merger or acquisition is a competitive way to shrink the market and leverage resources. 22. Which of the following is most characteristic of the disengagement stage of the career life cycle? a) During this stage, employees typically reach the point in an organization where the use of their talents is optimized, and performance may stagnate at this time. b) During this stage, employees typically identify interests and opportunities, although performance may be low. c) During this stage, an employee begins pulling away from work, and performance typically declines. d) During this stage, employees find a meaningful role in an organization, and performance typically increases. - The correct answer is C. During this stage, an employee begins pulling away from work, and performance typically declines. Leaving the organization might become a serious consideration. 23. What is the IRS 20-Factor test used to determine? a) if an employee is entitled to health insurance b) if an employee is entitled to a pension fund c) if an individual is an employee or an independent contractor d) how much an employer should withhold for federal taxes - The correct answer is C. The IRS 20-factor test is used to determine whether someone paid to complete work for an organization is a proper employee or an independent contractor. The weight of each factor in determining whether a worker is an employee or an independent contractor varies from case to case, depending on the services rendered. 24. High salaries with low benefits are most characteristic of which stage of the organizational life cycle? a) startup b) growth c) maturity d) decline - The correct answer is A. Startups are uncertain ventures, so employees who join at that stage of growth should be appropriately compensated for the risk they are assuming. Higher salaries, rather than lavish bonuses and benefits, are typical at this point in the life cycle. 25. Griggs v. Duke Power established the judicial concept of: a) protected classes b) arbitration c) disparate impact d) disparate treatment - The correct answer is C. This case established the concept of disparate impact discrimination. 26. Which of the following is most characteristic of the maintenance stage of the career life cycle? a) During this stage, employees typically reach the point in an organization where the use of their talents is optimized, and performance may stagnate at this time. b) During this stage, employees typically identify interests and opportunities, although performance may be low. c) During this stage, an employee begins pulling away from work, and performance typically declines. d) During this stage, employees find a meaningful role in an organization, and performance typically increases. - The correct answer is A. The maintenance stage is the third traditional career stage, in which a person's talents are optimized. Performance may reach a plateau or begin to stagnate during this phase. 27. Which of the following job announcements would be most appropriate for external recruiting? a) job bidding b) job posting c) succession planning d) posting the position on a community site - The correct answer is D. External recruiting involves making the position and associated job description available to people outside the organization. This is typically done using a combination of media sources, job boards, community sites, and social media platforms. 28. Which of the following is covered by the FLSA? a) record-keeping b) meal periods c) pay raises d) procedures for discharging employees - The correct answer is A. The FLSA requires employers to keep records of wages paid, hours worked, and other relevant data for each nonexempt employee. 29. Which of the following metrics considers how well employees are generating revenue given their compensation and benefits packages? a) cost per hire b) HR value added c) total compensation expense per employee d) human capital ROI - The correct answer is D. Human capital ROI (return on investment) is a common measure of an organization's financial success. It examines how much revenue employees produce in relation to their compensation packages. 30. Age would count as a bona fide occupational qualification in which of the following situations? a) when hiring employees to work with cutting-edge technology b) when hiring employees to work extensively with customers c) when hiring employees to serve alcohol d) when hiring employees to meet frequent and high-pressure deadlines - The correct answer is C. Bona fide occupational qualifications are personal characteristics that legitimately affect a person's ability to perform a job, and employers are allowed to take these qualifications into consideration when making hiring decisions. Because individuals under the age of 21 may not legally serve alcohol, age is a bona fide occupational qualification in this case. 31. Which of the following paid benefits are optional (not legally required)? Select all choices that apply. a) worker's compensation b) tuition reimbursement d) internal equity - The correct answer is D. Internal equity involves ensuring that the pay levels within an organization correspond to the level of responsibility and skills required for the job. 41. The legal requirement that samples collected for drug testing be carefully tracked and documented is referred to as: a) double negative b) false positive c) chain of custody d) validity - The correct answer is C. Employees may sometimes be terminated for failing drug or alcohol tests. To protect the reliability of those tests, employers must keep a log of each person who was responsible for the sample from the time it is collected from the employee until it is tested at the appropriate facility. 42. Which rating method requires managers to group employees into predefined frequencies of performance ratings? a) forced distribution method b) paired comparison method c) simple ranking method d) BARS - The correct answer is A. A forced distribution rating method requires employers to group employees into predefined frequencies of performance ratings. For example, supervisors may rate employees along a bell curve. 43. Which act guaranteed the right of workers to form unions and bargain as a union with their employers? a) Sherman Antitrust Act b) Railway Labor Act c) Clayton Antitrust Act d) Wagner Act - The correct answer is D. The Wagner Act, also known as the National Labor Relations Act, guaranteed the right of workers to form unions and bargain as a union with their employers. It created the National Labor Relations Board to arbitrate deadlocked labor disputes, ensure democratic union elections, and penalize unfair labor practices by employers. 44. An employer may face jail time if an employee dies after which of the following violations is issued? a) de minimis b) willful c) serious d) failure to abate - The correct answer is B. A willful violation occurs when employers intentionally ignore or intentionally violate OSHA standards. The employer will be cited for the violation and required to pay fines ranging between $5,000 and $70,000. If an employee's death results from the violation, an employer may face additional penalties and jail time. 45. High rates of absenteeism may suggest: a) Reward programs are effective. b) Reward programs should be reconsidered. c) Employees are very satisfied with their jobs. d) The cost per hire for new employees is too high. - The correct answer is B. One metric to monitor performance and reward systems is the absentee rate, a measurement of employee absences each month. 46. According to the FMLA requirements, which of the following employees is entitled to time off, with the understanding that they'd be reinstated upon their return? a) a secretary who has worked for 10 years at a company that employs 40 people and needs to care for an elderly parent b) an executive who is among the 5 percent of employees who are most highly compensated at a corporation who wants to spend time with a spouse with a terminal illness c) an employee who has been with a company for 10 months and is adopting a child d) an administrative assistant who has worked an average of 30 hours a week for 1 year and needs to care for a sick parent - The correct answer is D. Because this employee works more than 25 hours each week, the employee is entitled to unpaid family leave. 47. Which was the first major legislation passed to outlaw the formation or the attempt to create monopolies? This legislation also made it illegal to conspire to monopolize. a) Sherman Antitrust Act b) Railway Labor Act c) Clayton Antitrust Act d) Wagner Act - The correct answer is A. The Sherman Act was the first major legislation passed to outlaw any "monopolization, attempted monopolization, or conspiracy or combination to monopolize." After the Sherman Act was passed in 1890, two additional antitrust laws were passed in 1914: the Federal Trade Commission Act and the Clayton Act. 48. Which of the following interview questions would most likely be appropriate and would not violate equal employment opportunity regulations? a) What is your marital status? b) How many children do you have? c) Are there any health issues that run in your family? d) Are you willing to relocate if necessary? - The correct answer is D. This is an appropriate interview question so long as it is related to the job that the applicant is interviewing for and it is asked of all applicants for that position. 49. When a manager hires a candidate based on the employer's recommendation and overlooks potential issues in the candidate's resume, this is an example of: a) central tendency error b) contrast error c) halo effect d) leniency error - The correct answer is C. Halo effect occurs when a manager judges an applicant on only one trait or attribute and allows that judgment to influence their judgment of other unrelated traits. 50. Rules prohibiting discrimination against older employees are laid out in: a) Vietnam Era Veterans' Readjustment Assistance Act b) Age Discrimination in Employment Act c) Portal-to-Portal Act d) Equal Pay Act - The correct answer is B. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) of 1967 prohibits employers from discriminating against employees or job candidates on the basis of age. 51. What is an HRIS? a) a technological system used to store and organize information b) a metric used to measure HR efficiency c) a review board that evaluates employee complaints d) a legal concept that holds an employer responsible for due diligence when conducting background checks - The correct answer is A. Human resource information systems (HRIS) are one especially powerful way to improve efficiency. HRIS use technology to streamline many of the otherwise time-consuming responsibilities of human resource departments, including timekeeping, payroll, work schedules, recurring, workforce planning, benefit eligibility, recruitment, and much more. 52. Which of the following forecasting techniques involves experts independently developing and refining forecasts? a) ratio analysis b) trend analysis c) nominal group technique d) Delphi technique - The correct answer is D. The Delphi technique is a way to forecast future job needs that combines the input and expertise of many professionals who never physically meet but come to a consensus over time through questionnaires and anonymously-provided responses. 53. Which of the following requires that employment exams test skills that are relevant to the job that is being applied for? c) the right to request a workplace inspection d) the right to information and training about workplace hazards - The correct answer is B. Employers may ask that an employee accompanies an OSHA investigator during an on-site investigation, but this is not something an employee has a right to do according to OSHA standards. 63. The aim of progressive employee discipline is: a) to provide justification for terminations b) as a documentation exercise c) as a form of punishment d) to change behavior and get the best results possible - The correct answer is D. Progressive discipline involves steps that become progressively more severe and are designed to change an employee's inappropriate behavior and get the best possible results. 64. According to the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act, when employees take a leave of absence to serve in the military, employers must do all of the following EXCEPT: a) continue to pay the employee during the period of leave b) continue to extend benefits to the employee during the time of leave c) ensure the employee still has their job when they return from leave d) make reasonable accommodations for veterans who become disabled during service - The correct answer is A. While the Act protects an employee's right to their job during service, employers are not required to pay employees who are on leave for service. 65. What is the least serious violation type recognized by OSHA? a) de minimis b) willful c) serious d) failure to abate - The correct answer is A. A de minimis violation occurs when a standard is violated, but that violation does not currently affect the health or safety of employees. 66. An employee makes salary deferrals to their 401(k) plan. They earn $80,000 a year and decide to contribute $300 from their salary each month to their 401(k) plan. What is the employee's taxable income? a) $3,600 b) $76,400 c) $80,000 d) $83,600 - The correct answer is B. Salary deferrals are employee-initiated contributions made in lieu of salary. These contributions lower an employee's taxable income. In this case, the employee's annual income is lowered by $3600 in total annual deferrals, bringing taxable income to $76,400. 67. This executive order exempted federal contractors who are religious or community organizations from the requirements of EO 11246. a) EO 13279 b) EO 11333 c) EO 11375 d) EO 11478 - The correct answer is A. EO 13279, issued by President George W. Bush in 2002, exempted federal contractors who are religious or community organizations from the requirements of EO 11246. 68. Most employees who are paid by the hour are considered blank________ according to the Fair Labor Standards Act. a) exempt b) nonexempt c) excluded d) protected - The correct answer is B. Most (though not all) workers who are paid by the hour are nonexempt employees. 69. Which approach to job design works best for jobs that involve specialized, routine tasks? a) mechanistic b) biological c) motivational d) relational - The correct answer is A. The mechanistic approach to job design is most applicable to jobs that involve routine assembly tasks, like those found in a manufacturing firm. 70. Which interview technique presumes that how an employee has responded in the past is a strong indicator of how the employee will behave in the future? a) patterned interview b) behavioral interview c) team interview d) chronological interview - The correct answer is B. During behavioral interviews, candidates are asked to explain how they responded to problems or events in the past. The assumption is that these past behaviors will predict how employees would respond to similar situations in the future. 71. Which of the following is prohibited by the Pregnancy Discrimination Act? a) discrimination against pregnant women when making hiring decisions b) discrimination against women when it comes to fringe benefits c) discrimination against pregnant women when seniority rights are concerned d) all of the above - The correct answer is D. The Pregnancy Discrimination Act prohibits discrimination against pregnant women in different areas of employment, such as hiring, firing, seniority rights, job security, and receipt of fringe benefits. 72. Which of the following best describes a mission statement? a) This is a written document that reviews various moral dilemmas an employee may face and provides guidelines for how to deal with those situations. b) This is a document that is primarily aimed at an organization's employees and should differentiate the company from its competitors. c) This document is a concise assertion of who the company is, who they serve, and where they are going. d) This document is issued by company executives and identifies the principles that are at the foundation of how the organization does business. - The correct answer is B. Mission statements should also differentiate an organization from its competitors. 73. Which act made it the case that injunctions could be used to end strikes only in instances where there is a threat of damage to property? a) Sherman Antitrust Act b) Railway Labor Act c) Clayton Antitrust Act d) Wagner Act - The correct answer is C. The Clayton Antitrust Act of 1914 clarified and strengthened many provisions of the Sherman Antitrust Act, but it specifically exempted labor unions from the law's provisions. It allows the use of injunctions to stop strikes only when there was a threat of damage to property. 74. When an employee is accused of misconduct, which of the following actions should take place first: a) The employee should be terminated immediately. b) The employee's peers should be informed. c) A polygraph test should be administered. d) The complainant should be interviewed. - The correct answer is D. An employee misconduct investigation should begin with a precise definition of what conduct or behavior is being investigated and what evidence is needed to prove the alleged misconduct. This will typically require that the person alleging the misconduct be interviewed. 75. A pay-for-performance plan is best used to promote: a) pay equity b) collaboration between managers and employees c) longevity a) determining how effective the training program is prior to delivery b) capturing the opinions of experts c) determining how successful future participants expect the program to be d) pilot programs are not useful and waste valuable resources that should be reserved for complete training programs - The correct answer is A. One of the most important types of formative evaluation is the pilot test, also known as a pilot program, in order to see how it works and how effectively it teaches needed skills. 85. According to FMLA, employers can request that employees provide notice of leave blank________. a) one week prior to the leave if it can be reasonably anticipated b) 30 days prior to the leave if it can be reasonably anticipated c) 60 days prior to the leave if it can be reasonably anticipated d) An employee is never required to provide notice before taking family leave. - The correct answer is B. Employers may require that all paid leave be used before unpaid leave begins and can request 30 days' notice when that is practical. 86. Which of the following career development techniques would most likely focus on an employee's emotional or psychological well-being? a) coaching b) counseling c) mentoring d) assessing - The correct answer is B. Counseling is a way that managers may participate in career development by providing an employee with advice or emotional support involving job-related or personal issues. 87. Which of the following provides a complete measure of how much each employee costs an organization? a) cost per hire b) HR value added c) total compensation expense per employee d) human capital ROI - The correct answer is C. The Total Compensation Expense Per Employee is a more complete measure of the financial cost of each worker. It is compensation cost plus benefits cost divided by the total number of full-time employees. 88. An analysis that compares the availability of members of protected groups in the workforce with the job group is called: a) broadbanding b) benchmarking c) a utilization analysis d) a job analysis - The correct answer is C. A utilization analysis compares an organization's workforce to the available labor supply in terms of gender, race, and ethnic composition. 89. Which of the following is a strategic role played by human resource management? a) managing employee records and administering employee benefits b) aligning HR priorities when organizations are in the process of restructuring c) conducting performance appraisals at the beginning of the year - The correct answer is B. Operational tasks tend to focus more on the day-to-day management of employees. Strategic tasks, on the other hand, tend to have more to do with the organization's future and assisting in meeting long-term goals. 90. Which of the following interview questions is best described as hypothetical? a) Imagine you were overseeing the work of an employee who is struggling to meet his deadlines. How would you go about addressing that issue? b) Could you describe a case in the past where you've had to present difficult information to a general audience? c) How long did you work at your previous job? d) Why did you leave your previous position? - The correct answer is A. Hypothetical interview questions involve asking applicants how they would respond to imagined situations in the future. 91. A job exam tests skills that are relevant to the job for which the candidate is applying. Which requirement does this meet? a) construct validity b) content validity c) predictive validity d) reliability validity - The correct answer is B. Content validity requires that a job exam tests skills that are relevant to the job for which the candidate is applying. 92. What does the D in QDRO stand for? a) Domestic b) Disability c) Disaster d) Disorder - The correct answer is A. QDRO stands for Qualified Domestic Relations Order. 93. Which of the following best defines a vision statement? a) This is a written document that reviews various moral dilemmas an employee may face and provides guidelines for how to deal with those situations. b) This is a document that is primarily aimed at an organization's employees and should differentiate the company from its competitors. c) This document is a concise assertion of who the company is, who they serve, and where they are going. d) This document is issued by company executives and identifies the principles that are at the foundation of how the organization does business. - The correct answer is C. A vision statement should be an inspiring piece that provides everyone involved in the organization—from employees to shareholders to customers—insight into the organization's future. 94. Which of the following describes a case of quid pro quo harassment? a) A supervisor's direct report repeatedly makes sexual advances toward her. b) An employee works in an office where his colleagues frequently make crude, sexual jokes that make him uncomfortable. c) An employee's supervisor suggests that she may have a bright future at the company if she spends some private time with him over the holidays. d) An employee working the front desk at a business frequently receives unwelcome and sexually explicit phone calls. - The correct answer is C. Quid pro quo harassment a situation in which a person in authority, usually a supervisor, demands sexual favors of a subordinate as a condition of getting or keeping a job benefit. C is the clearest example of quid pro quo harassment, although the other situations may constitute hostile work environment harassment. 95. Which of the following best describes what an HR manager does when succession planning? a) categorize employees into groups based on their futures at the organization b) plan for the promotion of employees with no interest in supervisory positions c) plan for the promotion of employees with supervisory potential d) recruit applicants to fill positions externally - The correct answer is C. A succession plan identifies promising employees who have the potential to occupy managerial or executive roles in an organization. 96. Which executive order added the identity classifier "sex" to the list of protected groups, thereby making it illegal to discriminate against employees on the basis of sex? a) EO 11375 b) EO 11246 c) EO 11333 d) EO 11478 - The correct answer is A. EO 11375, issued by President Johnson in 1967, added "sex" to the list of protected classes covered by EO 11246. 97. During the ADDIE process, when are formative evaluations conducted? a) just before the design process about a solution to a problem. Consensus is reached after a series of discussions and presentations, which are guided by a facilitator. 107. What is the last step in conducting a training needs analysis? a) budgetary estimations b) carrying out the training c) identifying the competency gap to be addressed d) identifying solutions - The correct answer is C. All the other answer choices refer to aspects of training programs that are not part of a training needs analysis. 108. Summary plans are required for: a) all health plans b) group health plans c) flexible benefits d) defined-benefit plans - The correct answer is B. The Employee Retirement Income Security Act requires that summary plan descriptions be provided for group health plans. 109. Which of the following is not a legally mandated benefit? a) social security b) paid time off c) workers' compensation d) unemployment compensation - The correct answer is B. Many employers opt to offer employees the benefit of being compensated for some time that they do not spend working. However, this is not a legally mandated benefit. 110. Which of the following interview questions is best described as behavioral? a) Imagine you were overseeing the work of an employee who is struggling to meet his deadlines. How would you go about addressing that issue? b) Could you describe a case in the past where you've had to present difficult information to a general audience? c) How long did you work at your previous job? d) Why did you leave your previous position? - The correct answer is B. During behavioral interviews, candidates are asked to explain how they responded to problems or events in the past. 111. In which of the following circumstances would outsourcing be most likely to be a good decision? a) when the outsourced task is one of the functions the organization believes differentiates it from its competitors b) when the outsourced task is not among the organization's core competencies c) when it would be more costly to have the task performed by employees d) when the outsourced task could be accomplished with better quality by employees at the organization - The correct answer is B. Outsourcing describes the increasingly common practice of paying an outside company to perform some specialized business function that is not within the main company's core competencies. 112. Qualitative research involves analyzing blank________ data. a) non-numerical b) numerical c) tangible d) all of the above - The correct answer is A. Qualitative research involves analyzing non-numerical data. 113. Which approach to job design focuses attention on a worker's comfort, whether it be with the equipment they use or the work environment's noise level? a) mechanistic b) biological c) motivational d) perceptual-motor - The correct answer is B. The pros of the biological approach include the attention paid to a worker's comfort, whether it be with the equipment they use, the work environment's noise level and temperature, and the amount of a workweek that is spent on the job. 114. Which of the following acts requires that employees be given 60 days' notice before mass layoffs? a) NLRA b) FLSA c) WARN d) ADEA - The correct answer is C. The Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification (WARN) Act, enacted in 1988, requires larger employers to give their workers advance notice in the event of mass layoffs or plant closings. 115. An organization with a high cost-per-hire rate should: a) hire more employees b) look to decrease the costs of recruitment and training c) invest in more training for new employees d) terminate employees - The correct answer is B. The cost-per-hire metric can be used to see whether HR needs to cut onboarding expenses. 116. Documents posted on government websites are: a) public domain b) subject to copyright protections c) may be copied but only for educational purposes d) may be copied only if that is indicated on the webpage - The correct answer is A. U.S. government works (like website documents) are considered public domain. They are created by a federal government employee as part of their job. 117. The amount paid to an insurance company for coverage is called: a) a deductible b) a down payment c) a premium d) a flexible spending account - The correct answer is C. A premium is the amount paid to an insurance company for an insurance policy or healthcare coverage. 118. What would an employer use an OSHA Form 300 for? a) to provide more information about work-related illnesses and injuries, including what injured employees were doing before each incident b) to report particular incidents of work-related illnesses or injuries c) to review all work-related injuries and illnesses that take place at a worksite over the course of a year d) to detail the employer's response to a particular work-related illness or injury - The correct answer is B. OSHA Form 300, also known as the log of work-related injuries and illnesses, is used to report work-related injuries and illnesses. On this form, an employer records information about the type of injury or illness, how the injury or illness was caused, identifying information about the individual who was injured or became ill, and where and when the injury or illness took place. This form must be completed within a week of the employer's coming to be aware of the incident. 119. What is the goal of an organizational audit? a) to reduce the cost per hire of employees b) to determine how to train new hires during the orientation process c) to review the company's assets, policies, and practices d) to establish if anything negligent occurred during the recruitment and selection of a recent hire - The correct answer is C. An organizational audit is a comprehensive review of the company's assets, policies, and practices that focuses on six areas: company mindset, competence, performance or consequence, governance, capacity for change, and leadership. 120. ________ is a restricted computer network that allows only authorized people to access the site. a) Intranet b) Cloud computing c) Enterprise resource planning