APM FINAL EXAM 2024 WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED ANSWERS BY EXPER, Exams of Nursing

Download APM FINAL EXAM 2024 WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED ANSWERS BY EXPER and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 1 | P a g e APM FINAL EXAM 2024 WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED ANSWERS BY EXPERTS |FREQUENTLY TESTED QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS |ALREADY GRADED A+ |NEWEST |GUARANTEED PASS |LATEST UPDATE Which of the following is not a stage in an issue resolution process? a. Share the issue with stakeholders. b. Track the issue to closure. c. Escalate to the sponsor. d. Apply change control. A Which of the following are challenges for a project manager developing and leading a project team? 1) Issues and incompatibility amongst team members 2) Getting the right skills and attributes amongst team members 3) Co-location of team members in the same geographic area 4) Lack of accountability of team members a. 1, 2 & 3 b. 1, 2 & 4 c. 1, 3 & 4 d. 2, 3 & 4 C Which of the following is an activity in a typical change control process? a. Recommendation. b. Justification. c. Planning. d. Continuous improvement A The purpose of quality assurance is to: a. provide confidence the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards. b. determine a set of procedures and standards for project management. 2 | P a g e c. inspect, measure and test deliverables and processes. d. define the scope and specifics of a project's deliverables A A project manager might use a PESTLE analysis in order to: a. mitigate all possible risks to the project. b. identify and mitigate factors that may affect the project. c. control technological change during the project. d. consider team social roles in early stages of the project B Which of the following are phases in an iterative project life cycle? 1) Concept 2) Feasibility 3) Deployment 4) Development a. 3 and 4 only b. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1 and 2 only d. 2, 3 and 4 D Which of the following is the responsibility of a project manager? a. Ensuring a project is aligned to the organisation's strategy. b. Focusing on project benefits and aligning priorities. c. Achieving the project's success criteria. d. Improving process, tools and techniques used in a project C To develop and establish a proper communication plan within a project, the project manager needs to consider which type of analysis? a. Budget. b. Stakeholder. c. Resource. d. Schedule B Which of the following is a responsibility of the project sponsor? a. Creating a project cost breakdown structure. b. Authoring the project management plan. c. Creating a project work breakdown structure. d. Owning the project business case. D Portfolio management includes prioritising: a. projects and/or programmes that contribute directly to the organisation's strategic objectives. b. projects with exceptionally high returns on investment. 5 | P a g e Which of the following is an activity in a typical configuration management process? a. Evaluation. b. Identification. c. Registration. d. Justification. B Stakeholder analysis supports effective stakeholder engagement by: a. identifying stakeholders with high levels of power and interest. b. ensuring stakeholder acceptance of project deliverables. c. justifying the preferred project option to stakeholders. d. providing information to all stakeholders. A Which of the following is a project? a. Introducing a new information technology system. b. Operating a national rail network. c. Organising ongoing catering in the armed forces. d. Managing day-to-day security for senior politicians A One purpose of a typical project business case is to: a. carry out earned value analysis. b. allocate resources to the project. c. analyse cost-benefit of the project. d. plan project work packages C One disadvantage of physical communication is: a. its significant environmental impact when compared to other forms of communication. b. that no audit trail is available for review at a later date by project team members. c. it is reliant on technology being available to all relevant members of the project. d. that your body language may not reflect what you're saying when passing on information A One of the benefits of developing communication plans in projects is that this ensures: a. the power and influence of stakeholders is understood. b. that all communication is delivered face to face. c. your message is understood. d. clear reporting lines for the project. C A project life cycle which combines approaches from the linear and iterative life cycles is known as _________ project life cycle. 6 | P a g e a. a hybrid. b. an extended. c. a reduced. d. a combined. A The purpose of project management is to: a. organise management plans. b. keep all stakeholders happy. c. control change initiatives. d. effect beneficial change. D Which of the following statements refers to how scope is managed in a linear project but not an iterative project? a. Teams can act on new knowledge to change the scope. b. Teams can re-prioritise requirements within the scope. c. The scope of work is the starting point for the implementation of change control. d. Scope definition is assumed to be fixed for the whole project D One difference between an issue and a risk is an issue: a. must be recorded but a risk does not. b. is an uncertain event but a risk is not. c. is a certain event but a risk is not. d. always affects scope but a risk does not C Communication includes: 1) exchanging information 2) managing stakeholders 3) confirming there is a shared understanding 4) building relationships within your team a. 2 and 3 only b. 1 and 4 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 2 and 4 only C A project manager requires a team member to focus on the team's objectives and draw out other team members. Which of the Belbin's team roles is most appropriate? a. Shaper. b. Monitor evaluator. 7 | P a g e c. Specialist. d. Co-ordinator D An extended project life cycle can be defined as: a. an approach that adds operational and termination phases to a linear life cycle. b. an approach that adds adoption and benefits realisation phases to a linear life cycle. c. a framework for conducting a cost-benefit analysis once a project has closed. d. a framework for ensuring the re-deployment of assets post project. B One aspect of quality planning is to: a. plan the audit of a project to provide assurance to the project board. b. provide confidence that a project will achieve its objectives in the required time frame. c. specify the acceptance criteria used to validate the outputs are fit for purpose. d. confirm routes for reporting to ensure effective communication C Which of the following is not a key element of project scope management? a. Define outputs. b. Identify outputs. c. Share outputs. d. Control outputs C Which of the following is a difference between deployment baselines in linear life cycles and iterative life cycles? a. Linear project life cycles set the deployment baseline for the whole project. b. In an iterative project life cycle the scope and quality are fixed in the deployment baseline. c. Only deployment baselines in iterative life cycles have an integrated baseline review. d. Only deployment baselines in linear life cycles have an integrated baseline review A Which of the following defines the term 'risk'? a. The potential of a situation or event to impact on the achievement of specific objectives. b. A problem that is now or is about to breach delegated tolerances for work on a project or programme. c. Scope creep within an uncontrolled project. d. The use of estimation to determine costs, resources and activities. A Suppliers are stakeholders of a project management plan because they: a. contribute to the project's procurement strategy. b. help satisfy the project's resource requirements. 10 | P a g e c. the project follows appropriate governance. d. project outputs meet acceptance criteria. D The purpose of a decision gate is to decide whether: a. the response to a risk is valid. b. a project is viable in line with the business case. c. the project delivered against the success criteria. d. lessons were effectively learned during the project. B Establishing success criteria is important at the start of the project, as they: a. indicate how the stakeholder needs will be met. b. ensure adequate resource allocation. c. indicate what is important in supplier selection. d. ensure comprehensive risk analysis. A One purpose of risk management is to: a. adapt the plan to resolve problems. b. minimise threats and maximise opportunities. c. continually improve the project teams' efficiency. d. manage variations in a controlled way A Which of the following is an activity in a typical risk management process? a. Verification. b. Request. c. Closure. d. Justification C When an item goes through change control, which of the following must happen as part of a robust configuration management process? a. Costs associated with the change are evaluated and documented. b. Risks associated with the change are monitored to avoid delays to the project. c. The item is approved or declined in line with stakeholder expectations. d. Documents are updated to include any approved changes. D The purpose of a risk register is to provide a: a. structured process for risk identification. b. record of the ownership of risk and issue management actions. 11 | P a g e c. means of assessing the likelihood and impact of all of the risks. d. record of risks, their impact and the actions taken to manage them. D Which of the following is a part of change control? a. Requests for change are realised. b. Requests for change are mitigated. c. Requests for change are evaluated. d. Requests for change are resolved. C The primary purpose of a milestone in a project is to show: a. significant events. b. resource constraints. c. task dependencies. d. critical path highlights. A Which of the following can be adjusted during a time box? 1) Scope 2) Resource 3) Time 4) Quality a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 4 only c. 3 and 4 only d. 2 and 4 only B A communication management plan identifies the relevant information that should be communicated to: a. the project team. b. the project stakeholders. c. the project board. d. the project sponsor B Which one of the following statements is true? a. Independent reviews and quality audits form part of quality assurance to ensure the project manager delivers on time and to budget. b. Quality assurance provides confidence to stakeholders that requirements for quality will be exceeded. c. Quality control verifies that the project deliverables conform to specification, are fit for purpose and meet stakeholder expectations. d. Quality planning enables the project manager to manage the trade-off between customer expectations and budget. C 12 | P a g e Project risk management is best described as: a. managing responses to threats. b. identifying and acknowledging threats and opportunities. c. planning responses to threats. d. minimising threats and maximising opportunities. D Which one of the following best describes a project issue? a. A major problem that requires formal escalation. b. A problem that the project manager has to deal with on a day-to-day basis. c. An uncertain event that may or may not occur. d. An opportunity that occurs through change control. A Scheduling can best be defined as the process used to determine: a. overall project duration. b. project cost estimating. c. the project management plan. d. sub-contractor's responsibilities A Which one of the following statements is true? a. An increase in project scope is likely to increase project cost. b. A decrease in the project time is likely to increase project quality. c. An increase in the project quality requirements is likely to decrease project cost. d. A decrease in the project cost is likely to decrease project time. A Which one of the following statements best defines the purpose of a Product Breakdown Structure (PBS)? a. To define the hierarchy of deliverables that are required to be produced on the project. b. To define how the products are produced by identifying derivations and dependencies. c. To establish the extent of work required prior to project commissioning and the handover. d. To identify the health and safety strategies and procedures to be used on the project. A Which one of the following is least likely to be a success criteria? a. A target for the project to receive zero change requests. b. The date by which the project is to be completed. c. Delivery of products that meet required specifications. d. The awarding of bonuses to senior management. D 15 | P a g e Which one of the following does project change control primarily seek to ensure? a. All variance to the project scope is evaluated. b. No reduction in the perceived quality of the project outcome. c. Management costs of the project do not increase. d. Any decrease in the scoped deliverable of the project is rejected. A Which one of the following is captured in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)? a. The life cycle phases. b. The logical order of tasks. c. The scope of the project. d. Project costs. C Project reporting can best be defined as: a. informing stakeholders about the project. b. storing and archiving of project information. c. gathering stakeholder feedback. d. collecting project information. A Which one of the following statements best defines an estimate? a. An approximation of project time and cost targets, refined throughout the project life cycle. b. A prediction of a future condition or event based on information or knowledge available now. c. The value of useful work done at any given point in a project to give a measure of progress. d. A situation that affects or influences the outcome of the project expressed in time or cost term A The justification for the investment to be made in a project is documented in the: a. Cost Breakdown Structure. b. procurement strategy. c. business case. d. Project Management Plan. C Which one of the following is a responsibility of the project steering group/board? a. To identify potential problems for the project team to solve. b. To provide strategic direction and guidance to the sponsor. c. To manage the project team in all daily activities. d. To receive and consider daily reports from team members. 16 | P a g e B One of the reasons a project life cycle is split into phases is to: a. facilitate formal go/no-go decision making during the project. b. balance the costs of work in each phase of project development. c. mirror the major deployments of resources throughout the project. d. chunk work into time periods of similar durations. A Which of the following best describes a project environment? a. The type of organisation concerned with implementation. b. The structured method used to control the project. c. The context within which a project is undertaken. d. An understanding of the risks involved in the project. C Which one of the following statements best describes a project? a. A project is a set of tools and techniques often used when delivering organisational change. b. A project is the sum of activities needed to remove uncertainty from a unique piece of work. c. A unique transient endeavour undertaken to achieve a desired outcome. d. A project is a method of planning work. C The document that identifies what information needs to be shared, to whom, why, when and how is called the: a. communication management plan. b. stakeholder mapping grid. c. document distribution schedule. d. responsibility assignment matrix. A An important aim of a post-project review is to: a. validate overall progress to date against the budget and schedule. b. capture learning and document it for future usage. c. ensure acceptance of all permanent documentation, signed by the sponsor. d. establish that project benefits have been identified. B The process that evaluates overall project performance to provide confidence is called: a. quality assurance. b. quality planning. c. quality control. d. quality audit. A 17 | P a g e Which one of the following statements about the project risk register is false? a. It facilitates the review and monitoring of risks. b. It facilitates the risk appetite. c. It facilitates the recording of risk responses. d. It facilitates the recording of risks. B Which one of the following statements best defines procurement? a. A technique to establish the best approach for obtaining the resources for the project. b. A group of interrelated resources and activities that transform inputs into outputs. c. The description of the purpose, form and components to support delivery of a product. d. The process by which products and services required for the project are acquired. D Once a change has been requested what is the next step in the change control process? a. Evaluate the change. b. Advise the sponsor. c. Update the change log. d. Update the project plan. A A Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) can be used to: a. define the terms of reference of the project manager. b. define the limits of the project sponsor's responsibilities. c. allocate risk management response activities to project personnel. d. allocate work packages to those responsible for project work. D An Organisational Breakdown Structure (OBS) is used to identify: a. the reporting structure and current availability of all individuals in the project. b. technical ability and line of communication for all individuals in the project. c. lines of communication and responsibility for all the individual managers in the project. d. the reporting structure and lines of communication for all individuals in the projects. D Which one of the following best describes project success criteria? a. Actively seeking some senior management support. b. Measures by which the success of the project is judged. c. Achievement of milestones. d. A motivated project team. B Comparative estimating uses: a. current data from similar projects. 20 | P a g e Configuration management is best described as: a. control in the implementation of changes to project schedules. b. an organisation to review proposed changes to the project deliverables. c. quality control of project deliverables and documentation. d. creation, maintenance and controlled change of the project deliverables. D A Cost Breakdown Structure (CBS) shows costs assigned to: a. individual work packages using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS). b. individual resources using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS). c. individual resources using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM). d. individual deliverables using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) A The accuracy of an estimate should: a. decrease as a project progresses through its life cycle. b. increase as a project progresses through its life cycle. c. stay constant throughout the project life cycle. d. vary independently of where the project is in its life cycle B Which one of the following best defines a benefit? a. A positive result of stakeholder management. b. The successful management of a project. c. An improvement resulting from project deliverables. d. The successful delivery of project reports and updates. C Which one of the following is true for the Project Management Plan (PMP)? a. The Project Management Plan is developed by the project manager and team and owned by the sponsor. b. A draft of the Project Management Plan is developed by the sponsor at the same time as the business case. c. The Project Management Plan is developed by the sponsor and owned by the project manager. d. The Project Management Plan is developed by the project manager and team and owned by the project manager D Who are project team members primarily accountable to? a. External stakeholders. b. The end users. c. The finance director. d. The project manager 21 | P a g e D The phases of a project life cycle are: a. starting, planning, control and closing. b. concept, definition, development, handover and closure. c. initiation, definition, planning, monitoring and operations. d. concept, definition, implementation and operations. B A portfolio can best be defined as: a. a group of projects and programmes carried out within an organisation. b. a group of programmes carried out under the sponsorship of an organisation. c. a group of projects carried out under the sponsorship of an organisation. d. a range of products and services offered by an organisation. A Which one of the following best describes project management? a. Using APM's Body of Knowledge 6th edition as a guide to all projects. b. Employing a project manager who has undertaken similar projects. c. Utilising team members who can work on a project full time. d. Application of processes and methods throughout the project life cycle. D Which structure shows the reporting relationships and communications channels for a project? a. Work Breakdown Structure. b. Organisational Breakdown Structure. c. Product Breakdown Structure. d. Responsibility assignment structure. B Key performance indicators (KPIs) are used for measuring how a project is progressing towards success and are monitored by project managers: a. at the post-project review. b. not more frequently than monthly. c. throughout the project. d. only when assessing project risk. C Which one of the following best characterises a project? a. An ongoing activity to maintain the company plant. b. A transient endeavour carried out to meet specific objectives. c. Continuous improvement of the company procedures. d. Manufacturing components for a new technology. B 22 | P a g e What is meant by the term programme management? a. The management of a group of projects or activities that have a common business aim. b. The line management of a team of programme managers. c. The management of a functional area used by a number of different projects. d. The management of the programme of activities identified in the project plan A A responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) allows the project manager to cross reference: a. the work breakdown structure (WBS) with the organisational breakdown structure (OBS) to match resources to the tasks. b. the organisational breakdown structure (OBS) with the cost breakdown structure (CBS) to assign a cost to each resource. c. the product breakdown structure (PBS) with the work breakdown structure (WBS) to assign activities to the products. d. the organisational breakdown structure (OBS) with the product breakdown structure (PBS) to assign resources to deliverables. A Which one of the following is a valid description of the phases of a complete project lifecycle? a. Start-up, feasibility, planning, execution and roll-out. b. Concept, screening, implementation, handover and closeout. c. Concept, definition, implementation, handover and closeout. d. Start-up, definition, development and production closedown. C The main purpose of configuration management is to: a. minimise the impact of changes on the scope of the project. b. ensure that the final product meets the strategic needs of the business. c. provide control of the deliverables and avoid mistakes or misunderstandings. d. maximise the impact of agreed enhancements on the project deliverables. C The accuracy of an estimate should: a. decrease as a project progresses through its lifecycle. b. increase as a project progresses through its lifecycle. c. stay constant throughout the project. d. vary independently of where the project is in its lifecycle B What would be the effect if the resources required for a project's critical path activities were insufficient? a. It would reduce the project duration. b. It would extend the project duration. 25 | P a g e c. 0 d. 4 A The primary purpose of a product breakdown structure (PBS) is to: a. define all the products that the project will produce. b. define precisely what resources will be used on the project. c. detail all the products in order of priority. d. map out the key project elements identified in the business plan A What is a visual representation of a project's planned activity against a calendar called? a. A Gantt chart. b. A critical path network. c. A product flow diagram. d. A Pareto chart. A Controlling or influencing project success factors will: a. increase the likelihood of a successful project. b. ensure senior management support. c. measure progress towards a successful conclusion. d. ensure project completion. A Which one of the following is NOT a project change? a. An approved omission from the agreed project scope. b. The potential for agreed resources to be removed from the project. c. A requirement for extra expenditure to cover increased supplier costs. d. The removal of work packages from the agreed project scope. B Which one of the following best describes project sponsorship? a. Project sponsorship is the customer's role responsible for identifying the business need. b. Project sponsorship is an active, senior management role responsible for identifying the business need, problem or opportunity. c. Project sponsorship is an active, senior management role managing the customer's needs subject to an agreed cost. d. Project sponsorship is the project manager's role responsible for delivering the business need and addressing any problems or opportunities. B Project success criteria are best defined as: a. the qualitative or quantitative measures by which the success of the project is judged. 26 | P a g e b. the factors that, when present in the project are most conducive to a successful outcome. c. the measures that establish if project activities are ahead or behind schedule. d. the activities or elements of the project which are considered to be critical to success A Which one of the following best describes stakeholders? a. Anyone who has heard about the project. b. Anyone who has an opinion about how the project should be managed. c. People wanting to be members of the project team. d. People who are affected by the project in some way. D The project management plan is best described as a reference document that confirms: a. the project completion date as agreed between the project sponsor, other stakeholders and the project manager. b. the agreement between the project sponsor, other stakeholders and the project manager. c. the key project milestones as agreed between the project sponsor, other stakeholders and the project manager. d. the project start date as agreed between the project sponsor, other stakeholders and the project manager B The value of a risk log lies in its ability to provide: a. a record of all risks, their impact and the actions taken to manage them. b. a record of the ownership of risk and issue management actions. c. a means of assessing the likelihood and impact of risks. d. a structured process for risk management. A Which one of the following statements best defines a portfolio? a. A group of related projects, which may include business-as-usual activities, that delivers change. b. A timetable of how project activities and project milestones are planned over a period of time. c. A group of projects that represent the delivery of all, or a discrete part of a new capability. d. A grouping of an organisation's projects, programmes and related business-as-usual activities. D Which one of the following statements about the project management plan (PMP) is FALSE? a. The PMP acts as a contract between the Project Manager, the project team and the sponsor. b. The PMP defines the baselines for the project upon which changes are considered. c. The PMP, once defined, will remain unchanged throughout the project. d. The PMP is used as a reference document for managing the project. C 27 | P a g e How is project risk management best defined? a. A series of actions taken by a project team member or stakeholder to proactively avoid project threats. b. A structured process to optimise project success by minimising threats and maximising opportunities. c. A technique to decompose the project into component parts or discrete groups for programming purposes. d. A framework that allows requirements to be defined and reviewed so that the best project approach is determined. B The project management plan: a. justifies undertaking the project. b. describes the success criteria for the project. c. focuses primarily on time related issues. d. describes the success factor for the project. B The project management plan is: a. owned by the Project Manager and the project team. b. owned by the sponsor. c. owned by the Project Manager. d. owned by the Project Manager and the project stakeholders. C Which structure shows the reporting relationships and communications channels for a project? a. Work breakdown structure. b. Organisational breakdown structure. c. Product breakdown structure. d. Responsibility assignment structure B Scheduling can best be defined as the process used to determine: a. overall project duration. b. project cost. c. the project management plan. d. sub-contractor's responsibilities A Which one of the following statements best describes resource scheduling? a. A process which identifies activities that will need project resources. b. A process to assign roles to project resources. c. A process that identifies when resources are needed. d. A process to estimate the project resources. 30 | P a g e c. To ensure that work assigned to them by the Project Manager is performed. d. To identify and resolve project issues affecting the work delegated to them C The role of a leader includes: a. effectively managing risks. b. selecting the project team. c. coaching and mentoring project staff. d. producing accurate project reports. C The primary purpose of a gate review is to decide: a. whether the project manager and team are performing well. b. if the project is on schedule and within budget. c. if stakeholders are satisfied. d. whether to continue with the project. D The primary purpose of the post-project review is to: a. find out who was responsible for problems on the project and why. b. find out whether the business benefits were achieved and why. c. find out who performed well on the project in order to support future resource allocations. d. identify lessons learned to enable continuous improvement. D The project manager's prime responsibility is to: a. deliver the benefits. b. define the requirements. c. sign off the business case. d. implement the project plan D Which one of the following best describes the purpose of a project's business case? a. A statement of what the project will deliver in terms of products/deliverables and satisfaction. b. The reasons why the project sponsor wants their project to proceed. c. A statement on how the project fits into the long-term aims of the project sponsor. d. Provides justification for undertaking the project, in terms of evaluating the benefits, cost and risks D What is the term given to the senior management team that set the strategic direction for a project? a. Project management office. b. Change control board. c. Project steering group. d. Programme director. 31 | P a g e C Which one of the following statements best describes communication? a. The giving, receiving, processing and interpretation of information. b. The explanation, understanding, managing and sorting of information. c. The giving, explaining, understanding and interpretation of information. d. The managing, receiving, processing and sorting of information. A A project communication plan identifies the relevant information that should be communicated to: a. the project team. b. the project stakeholders. c. the project board. d. the project sponsor B The project team comprises: a. all those responsible to the project manager who are working towards the project objectives. b. the members of staff who are allocated full time to the project. c. the members of staff who report to the project manager and who carry out work on the project. d. all project stakeholders. A Good teamwork helps to deliver a successful project because: a. team members have similar skill sets. b. project work can be distributed equally around the team. c. all team members have the same access to project information. d. people work collaboratively towards a common goal. D Which one of the following is NOT a function of leadership? a. Reinforcing positive relationships. b. Inspiring the individual. c. Maintaining constant tight control. d. Promoting the project vision. C PESTLE analysis covers the following areas: A Political, Economic, Sociological, Technical, Legal, Environmental. B Personnel, Economic, Safety, Technical, Legal, Ecological. C Political, Ecological, Strategy, Technical, Life cycle, Environmental. D Personnel, Ecological, Sociological, Training, Life cycle, Ecological. A 32 | P a g e Which of the following best describes a project's context? A The environment in which the business operates. B The geographic location in which the project is undertaken. C The external and internal business environments including stakeholder's interests and influences. D Industry and business sector practices. C When managing the internal context, the project manager should especially be aware of: A organisational strategy, policies and frameworks. B competitive positioning. C new legislation. D business continuity. A To be fully effective, the project manager: A. must take into consideration the internal and external environments. B need only deal with the internal environment since the sponsor will deal with the external environment. C should manage the external stakeholders and external environment. D must liaise with regulating bodies to ensure requirements include the latest legislation. A Which type of projects needs to consider environmental constraints? A Construction projects only. B Construction and petrochemical projects only. C All but IT projects. D All projects. D What is the best way that PESTLE analysis supports the development of a business case? A It provides a powerful way in which the most favourable financial returns are shown from the project options being considered. B It considers a number of options avoiding over reliance on a single idea, when there may be other more favourable options available. C It identifies which tools and techniques are necessary in order to arrive at the best group of projects to be considered as valid options. D It shows which assets, capabilities, processes and functions are required to be included in the business case. B When using a PESTLE analysis, a potential change in national government would be an example of a: A political factor. B economic factor. 35 | P a g e Which of the following role is primarily responsible for defining goals and creating vision for the operability of the project's outputs? A Project sponsor B Product owner. C User. D Business case owner. B What is an example of a project management office activity that would be most likely undertaken to support a project? A Developing the project management plan. B Developing the business case. C Carrying out a health check. D Carrying out day-to-day resource management. C When effectively implemented, what is one of the key roles of governance? A Provide confidence that the business case is the best option for the current circumstances and that there will be no changes as the project is being delivered. B Provide confidence that the plans that have been developed will guarantee that the project will be delivered on time and to budget. C Provide confidence to all stakeholders that projects are being well managed and the most appropriate financial and technical controls are being exerted. D Provide confidence to all project team members that their jobs are secure at least from the period of the project start to the handover. C Governance could best be defined as: A the framework of authority and accountability that defines and controls the outputs, outcomes and benefits from projects, programmes and portfolios. B the framework that structures a review of the project, programme or portfolio and aids a decision to be made about whether to continue with the next phase or stage of progress. C the framework that is used for selection, prioritisation and control of an organisation's projects and programmes in line with its strategic objectives and capacity to deliver D the framework used by the organisation and approved by the project board at project initiation that allows the definition of the terms of reference for the project. A Who is best placed in the project to manage sponsor and user expectations? A The senior management team. B The project manager. C The project management office. D The project team. 36 | P a g e B Where in the project life cycle would the project manager typically be appointed? A At the start of the concept phase. B At the start of the definition phase. C At the start of the development phase. D At the end of the handover stage. B Which of the following best describes a project's business case? A The definition of why the project is required and the desired benefits. B A statement of what the project will deliver in terms of products/ deliverables C The reason why the project wants the project to proceed. D A statement as to how the project fits into the long-term aims of the project sponsor A What information would be expected as content for a business case? A A detailed schedule of the project. B An outline of the project management team. C An outline of the estimated costs of implementing the project. D A detailed breakdown of the scope of the project. C Which of the following statements about the business case is true? A The business case should always be referred to throughout the project B The business case once written will never change. C The business case becomes the project manager's responsibility, once the project is in the implementation phase. D The business case contains key information on how the project will be performed. A The responsibility for development and production of the business case is primarily with: A the project manager B jointly shared between the project manager and project sponsor. C the project sponsor. D the project steering group/committee. C Which of the following would not be considered as part of the business case? A Safety plan for the project. B Implementation options. C Stakeholder identification. D Business benefits. A 37 | P a g e What is the importance of having a business case? A It allows the sponsor to use the document as a baseline to calculate project slippage. B It provides an overview of the project team performance at each stage of delivery. C It shows how the project manager is performing in delivering the project D It allows the sponsor to decide on project continuously when used at gate review D Which one of the following does not describe the prime purpose of the business case? A To define the strategic direction for the project. B To describe the operational impact of project delivery. C To show how the project tasks will be scheduled to achieve success criteria. D To document the benefits of the various options that have been considered. C Which of the following is most true of the business case? A It provides details of the overarching approach to be taken to move the current to a future desirable state using a coordinated and structured approach. B It evaluates the benefit, cost and risk of alternative project options and provides a rationale for the preferred solution. C It demonstrates the relationship between the costs of undertaking a project, initial and recurrent, and the benefits likely to arise from the changed situation, initially and recurrently. D It describes each major element in the work breakdown structure (WBS) describing the work content, resources required, the time frame of the work element and a cost estimate. B How does having a business case help an organisation? A It provides a documented account of the decisions that have been made and by whom in the planning of the project's finances, ensuring the project's compliance with recognized governance standards B It provides an overview of how the project will deliver the scheduled progress over the period agreed between the project manager, sponsor and other key stakeholders associated with the project. C It provides a means by which the sponsor can monitor the project manager's performance in relation to the plans documented in the business case and highlight points at which a change of project manager may be necessary. D It provides a recognized framework by which project spending proposals can be recorded, reviewed and audited to learn lessons about how efficiently the organisation is deploying funds to achieve its targeted returns. D What aspects of benefits realisation would be considered as most important to note in the business case? A Who is going to be responsible for carrying out each of the projects activities. B How the benefits will be realised, measured and the stakeholders involved C What type of contract is going to be used to procure delivery of the project. D Which benefits should be realised first and then the subsequent order 40 | P a g e What are the likely results of building agile working into a or programme? A Reduced schedule time. B increased cost. C Increased efficiency and flexibility. D Reduced risk C Which phase of the project life cycle will utilize the new project and enable the acceptance and use of the benefits? A Adoption. B Transition. C Deployment. D Implementation. A What is the main reason for having an extended life cycle? A Allow the project to have extra time to ensure that that there is enough capacity to realise benefits. B Allow upfront planning for any supplemental activities and incorporate additional considerations for benefits realisation. C Allow time for stakeholders to decide how they will use the output to best effect that will realise benefits. D Allow extra funding to be applied to the project to ensure that sufficient resources exist to maximise benefits realisation. B A project management plan could best be described as: A an activity on a network diagram. B a Gantt chart. C a plan for the programme. D an overall plan for the project. D You have been asked to assist in the development of a project management plan for the project. As a minimum, what should this plan include? A A summary of the project acceptance criteria. B CVs of all the team members. C Details Of previous similar projects. D Resourcing details for quality reviews. A During the consideration of when and how the development of the project management plan should take place, the objectives of carrying out such an exercise can often appear to be uncertain. As a recommendation, the project management plan should be: A assembled when all information is available. 41 | P a g e B developed iteratively throughout the early stages of the project. C completed in detail before the project is authorised. D free from detailed schedule information. B To effectively manage the project the range of documentation may appear to be extensive; however, the document that captures the why, what, where, when, how, how much and who for the project is called: A the project schedule. B the project definition and delivery report. C the project feasibility report. D the project management plan. D Which one of the following statements about the project management plan (PMP) is considered to be the most important condition of compliance to ensure an effective plan is produced? A The project team should not contribute to the writing of the PMP. B The PMP should be agreed and signed off by both the sponsor and the project manager as a minimum. C The sponsor should maintain ownership of the PM P. D The PMP is necessary for effective stakeholder management. B Which of the following would be considered as the main purpose of a project management plan? A To provide a documented account of the outcomes of the planning process. B To enable agreement between the project sponsor and project manager with regard to project budget, resource requirements and timescale. C To provide a record of how the project was planned, for archiving in the organisation's lessons learned. D To identify and record the projects intended financial spend over the period of project delivery. B What is the agreed reference point that is communicated to stakeholders prior to any work being started? A Verified work breakdown structure. B Deployment baseline. C Configuration record. D Business case. B Why is it important to produce a project management plan? A It shows the benefits expected at the close of the project and the specific stakeholders who are involved. B It provides justification for undertaking the project and provides a rationale for the preferred solution. C It sets and clarifies the expectations of all stakeholders who are involved in the project delivery. 42 | P a g e D It identifies and establishes the most appropriate means of procuring the component parts or services for the project being delivered. C When in the project life cycle should the deployment baseline be formed? A Deployment phase. B Concept phase. C Definition phase. D Transition phase. C What information would you not expect to see in a project management plan? A Quality management plan. B Financial feasibility analysis. C Risk management plan. D Details of scope. B How is the deployment baseline used throughout the project? A Progress monitoring and implementation of change control. B Benefits realisation. C Identify options for deployment. D Prepare users for delivery of the output into operation. A Success criteria can be defined as: A measures of success that can be used throughout the project to ensure that it is progressing towards a successful conclusion. B management practices that will increase the likelihood of success of a project. C the satisfaction needs for the deployment of the project. D the value of benefits that are realised when the project delivers its output into business-as-usual. C A project stakeholder could best be described as: A a member of the sponsoring organisation's board of directors. B a key player who is seeking to maximize control over the project C a person or group who has an interest in or is impacted by the project. D a project team member who has the skills necessary to deliver the project C Stakeholder analysis considers three aspects for each stakeholder. which are: A their interest in the project. whether or not they Can influence the project and whether their attitude to the project is for or against. B their level Of technical knowledge. whether or not they are able to act as sponsor and if they are 45 | P a g e To ensure communication is most likely to be effective in the project, the project manager should: A ensure that everyone is copied On all emails. B insist on a lower level of paper documents. C train project staff in the most up-to-date communication techniques D develop a communication plan. D Successful project communications will most likely occur when: A the project sponsor takes responsibility for planning all stakeholder communication from the outset. B email is the primary method used in order to get information to stakeholders in a speedy and efficient manner. C a standard project communication format for reports is used to provide feedback to stakeholders. D the different communication needs of each stakeholder group are fully understood. D What is likely to be a benefit to a project of having a communication plan? A The project is more likely to finish on time. B There will be greater adherence to the organisation's governance and standards. C The project will be less susceptible to uncontrolled change. D There will be more focus on what benefits the project will be delivering. B What action can lead to more consistent communication in the project? A Only transmitting information that stakeholders have requested, ensuring that any excess information is kept to a minimum. B Communication is carried out en-masse ensuring that all stakeholders get all information. C Communication is planned in advance and all messages delivered use the approved framework. D Communicating information on a one-way basis reducing the need for stakeholders to waste their time providing feedback C One way that communication could be improved in the project is to: A ensure that free flowing feedback channels are planned into the communication structure. B ensure that communication is carried out as much as possible, transmitting as much information as possible. C target only those stakeholders who seem to show a valid interest in the project. D avoid planning communication too much so that messages are not seen as rigid and overly complex. A What is a factor that is important when communicating as part of stakeholder engagement? A Planned communication will help to establish the level of interest and power a stakeholder is likely to possess. B Planned communication will increase the number of stakeholders who are likely to have an interest in the project. 46 | P a g e C Planned communication will reduce the power of stakeholders who are likely to have an interest in the project. D Planned communication is likely to reduce the number Of valid stakeholders who have an interest in the project. A What could be considered a significant barrier to communication? A Use of body language. B Having formal meetings. C Attitudes, emotions and prejudices. D Use of informal communication channels C If planning a meeting where there were likely to be stakeholders with widely different levels of knowledge and experience attending, what practical proactive measure could the project manager take to reduce the impact of communication barriers? A Ensure that the meeting room was reserved for a longer period than normal. B Have a number of meetings where some would be technical and some non-technical. C Aim for a common level of discussion avoiding too technical discussions. D Ensure that a glossary of technical terms was made available in advance D What might be considered a disadvantage of virtual communication? A Digital communication links never seem to work as required. B Communication being misunderstood. C There is no method for providing feedback. D This method of communication tends to be time consuming. B Which factor is likely to have the biggest influence over the success of communication? A The size of the communication plan. B The method of communication chosen. C The age range of those communicating. D The type of project being delivered. B What is the main aim of the communication plan? A To increase the chances of achieving effective engagement. B To comply with the structure of the project management plan. C To identify the skills necessary to deliver a project. D To increase the likelihood of benefits realisation. A 47 | P a g e While providing support to the project and attending a risk management workshop, the following statements were noted. Which one of these could be considered as a risk to a project? A We have never done a project of this kind before. B We might not have sufficient people with the right experience to undertake the project. C We always find that design verification takes longer than planned. D We have never worked in that country before. B On examining a particular risk in the project there is some uncertainty among the project team of how important this risk is to the project. How would you advise the team on how the significance of the risk is to be determined? A By assessing its probability of occurrence. B By assessing its impact on project objectives, C By assessing both its probability of occurrence and its impact on project objectives. D By assessing its effect on the business case. C What is the main benefit of using a risk register in the project? A It records risks. their impact and the responses being adopted. B It records risk ownership and how issues are being managed. C It assesses the impact and probability of risks taking place. D It directs the team in how the management of risk in the project should be conducted. A A member of your team has described being involved in a risk event. Which one of the following would best describe such an event? A An action or set of actions to reduce the probability or impact of a threat, or to increase the probability or impact of an opportunity. B The plan of the response to risks. C An uncertain event or set of circumstances that if realised would have an effect on project objectives. D A risk identification workshop. C Which one Of the following statements about project risk is true? A Risk is always beneficial to the project. B Risk is neither beneficial or detrimental to the project C Risk can be beneficial or detrimental to the project. D Risk is always detrimental to the project. C A typical risk management process would follow the steps: A identification. analysis, response. closure. B assessment, analysis. closure. response. 50 | P a g e C The issue is rejected and the owner is informed. D The issue needs to be progressed through change control. D A typical issue management process could follow the steps: A identification, escalation. action, resolution. B assessment, escalation, closure, resolution. C assessment, planning, action, response. D identification, planning, response, resolution. A How should issues be prioritised? A The time order in which the issues occurred. B The impact on success criteria and benefits. C The relative seniority of the issue owner. D The relationship with a relevant risk. B How is 'quality' best defined? A The process of evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards. B The fitness for purpose or the degree of conformance of the outputs of a process or the process itself to requirements. C A discipline for ensuring the outputs, benefits and the processes by which they are delivered meet stakeholder requirements and are fit for purpose. D The satisfaction of stakeholder needs measured by the success criteria as identified and agreed at the start of the project. B While carrying out quality management for the project, you have been assigned the task of determining the quality standards that are applicable and how they should apply. Which part of quality management would best describe this activity? A Quality planning. B Quality assurance. C Total quality. D Quality control. A To be considered effective. how should quality management be used in the project? A To ensure compliance. B To ensure quality standards are met. C To ensure the required process needs of stakeholders are met. D To ensure both the project outputs and the processes meet the required needs of stakeholders. 51 | P a g e D During project deployment, which process will provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards? A Quality assurance for the project. B Strategic Business Planning for Quality (SBPQ). C Total quality planning. D Total quality management (TQM). A What is the most likely result of providing effective quality management in the project? A The project outputs will have been delivered. B Conformance of the outputs and processes to requirements will result in a product that is fit for purpose. C The project management plan will have been followed D Customer expectations will have been exceeded with both outputs and processes B You have been asked to review the project's quality management plan and in particular the elements of the plan most relevant to quality control. Which one of the following will be your primary focus for consideration? A The development of a strategy for the management of quality in the project. B Supplying the client with evidence of control to ISO 9000:2000. C A review of whether underlying processes and way of working are leading towards product deliverables of the right quality. D The agreed methods of inspection, measurement and testing to verify that the project outputs meet acceptance criteria defined during quality planning. D What would be the most direct symptom of poor quality in the project? A The project not using compliant management processes. B The customer refusing to take delivery of the finished product. C The failure of a quality assurance audit. D The project finishing over budget. B The characteristics of a product that determine whether it meets certain requirements is known as the: A product criteria. B acceptance criteria. C quality criteria. D success criteria. B 52 | P a g e The question: 'Is the project actually following the processes and procedures as set out in the quality plan?' would be answered by? A Quality alignment. B Quality control. C Quality assurance. D Quality improvement. C Which of the following provides the project manager with a formal overview of project quality? A Design reviews B Project definition reports. C Quality audits. D Historical experience. C When should test plans for quality control be agreed? A During quality planning. B When the live product is available for test. C At the end of the project. D Prior to handover of the output A Inspection, measurement and testing to verify that the project outputs meet acceptance criteria. is an example of quality: A reporting. B control. C assurance. D planning. B A review most closely linked to the phases Of the project life cycle could be described as a: A gate review. B learning review. C handover review. D audit review. A One benefit of a gate review process is: A it allows learning from one phase of the project to be passed on to the next phase. B it stops projects that no longer meet the organisation's needs. C it allows procurement to be planned into the project life cycle. D it allows the project team to plan delivery of the next phase B 55 | P a g e What is the main objective of a RAM? A To provide a clear and concise summary of tasks or deliverables and the specific responsibilities defined. B To provide an outline of the reporting structure to assist in day-to-day management of the project. C To provide an outline of the scope of the project and the specific deliverables that have been agreed for the project. D To provide an outline of the specific costs of the project and which key deliverables they are allocated to. A How is it determined whether a deliverable conforms to its requirements and configuration information? A A configuration management plan is produced B A configuration identification reference is allocated to the deliverable. C A configuration verification audit is performed. D A status accounting report is produced. C A key output of a well-controlled configuration management process is: A documented traceability between versions of each configuration item. B that the project is most likely to meet its success criteria. C documented evidence of all project changes: proposed. authorised, rejected or deferred. D an agreed point after which no further changes to scope will be considered. A Configuration management could best be described as: A the process through which all requests to change the approved baseline of a project is captured. evaluated and then approved. rejected or deferred. B the system that ensures that all changes to configuration items are controlled and the interrelationships between items are identified. C the technical and administrative activities concerned with the creation, maintenance, controlled change and quality control of the scope of work. D a report of the current status and history of all changes to the configuration, together with a complete record of what has happened to the configuration to date. C Which of the following would be considered part of a configuration management process? A Initiating, identifying, assessing, planning, responding. B Planning, identification, controlling, status accounting, auditing. C Scheduling, baselining, controlling, responding, closing. D Planning. auditing. monitoring, controlling, closing. B 56 | P a g e Configuration management would be used to: A ensure the required materials are in stock when needed. B help the impact Of a change request to be fully assessed. C help configuration within IT projects. D ensure that a work breakdown structure can be completed. B Who is primarily responsible for configuration management in the project? A Project manager, B Risk manager. C Quality manager. D The project team. A The prime purpose of configuration management is to: A ensure the traceability and integrity of the delivered product or products B minimise the impact of changes on the scope of the project C ensure that the final product meets the needs of the business as defined by key stakeholders. D maximise the impact of agreed enhancements to the project deliverables A What is the key benefit of having configuration management in the project? A It allows a thorough assessment of the factors that are most likely to affect the change. B It is a means to justify to the customer variances from the original objectives. C It ensures that the delivered product most closely meets the needs of the customer. D It manages the impact of change to the project scope. D What is the main reason for an initial high-level review of a change request? A To consider if the change is feasible to evaluate at this stage. B To establish who might be the best stakeholders to be involved in the change. C To ensure that the change request is considered as soon as possible. D To implement the necessary actions to ensure the change has a smooth implementation. A What action is essential after a change has been approved? A The highlights of the change are communicated directly to the sponsor. B The actual impact of the change is assessed. C The next change requested should be reviewed as quickly as possible. D The related plans must be updated to reflect the change. D A formally constituted group of stakeholders responsible for approving or rejecting changes to the project baselines, is referred to as the: 57 | P a g e A change management committee, B change authority, C change control board. D change implementation group. C Which of the following would be considered most important when carrying out a detailed evaluation of a change? A Impact of change on baseline, risks and business case. B The number of extra people required to deliver the change. C How the change will be reported when it is implemented into the project. D The configuration requirements Of the change when implemented into the project, A When no other changes are being considered to the project, this is usually termed as a: A scope verification. B change freeze. C consolidated baseline. D configuration control. B What aspect of the project will have greatest influence on the estimating method being used? A The point in the life cycle where the estimate is being carried out. B The overall budgeted value of the project being estimated. C Whether the project is likely to proceed or not. D The amount of acceptable estimating tolerance that exists. A What is the prime advantage of using a parametric estimating method? A Accuracy, B Ability to deal With detailed information. C Independence from historic data. D Speed. A Which of the following statements about estimating is true? A Post project reviews are a prime source of estimating data. B An estimated cost for a project must be 10 per cent to be any use C If you cannot estimate task durations to within 20 per cent there is no point in developing a schedule. D The project manager should always add 10 cent to peoples duration estimates to allow for natural optimism A