CFRN Practice Test Questions And Answers Graded A+, Exams of Nursing

Download CFRN Practice Test Questions And Answers Graded A+ and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! CFRN Practice Test Which of the following is the MOST commonly injured organ in the abdominal cavity? A. Pancreas B. Spleen C. Liver D. Kidneys - ANS B. Spleen Liver injuries will cause pain in the right upper quadrant along with right shoulder pain as blood accumulates around the diaphragm. The pain in the right shoulder is called: A. Gourd's sign B. Kehr's sign C. Vagal's sign D. Hobb's sign - ANS B. Kehr's sign The phrenic nerve that arises from cervical vertebrae 3, 4, and 5 controls the _______. A. Liver B. Diaphragm C. Stomach D. Pancreas - ANS B. Diaphragm The _______ is the largest solid organ in the human body. A. Brain B. Pancreas C. Spleen D. Liver - ANS D. Liver A root cause of esophageal varices is/are: A. Mallory-Weiss syndrome B. Reactive gastritis C. Cirrhosis D. Peptic ulcers - ANS C. Cirrhosis The most common cause of lower GI bleeding is: A. Ulcerative colitis B. Diverticulosis C. Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) D. Angiodysplasia - ANS B. Diverticulosis The appearance of dark, tarry blood in the stool is known as: A. Hematemesis B. Melena C. Hematochezia D. Crohn's disease - ANS B. Melena The most common cause of pancreatitis is: Due to the relatively large tongue of a child in proportion to his or her mouth, successful intubation requires: proper blade size, proper positioning, and proper: A. Suctioning B. Sedation C. Sweeping of the tongue D. Cricoid pressure - ANS C. Sweeping of the tongue Physical assessment of a child's cardiovascular system begins with: A. Observing the child's general appearance and level of consciousness B. Checking the child's central pulse rate C. Feeling the child's skin temperature D. Placing the child on a cardiac monitor - ANS A. Observing the child's general appearance and level of consciousness An increase in _______ is the chief compensatory mechanism in children to increase end-organ perfusion and to maintain blood pressure. A. Heart rate B. Stroke volume C. Contractility D. Peripheral vasoconstriction - ANS A. Heart rate Epiglottitis is a medical emergency in the pediatric population. Remember the four Ds, which stand for: A. Dysphagia, dysphonia, drooling, and distress B. Diaphoresis, diplopia, diarrhea, and distress C. Dilated (pupils), drooling, distress, and diaphoresis D. Drooling, dysphagia, distant lung sounds, and distress - ANS A. Dysphagia, dysphonia, drooling, and distress Options to relieve a foreign body airway obstruction in a pediatric includes: A. Abdominal thrusts only B. One attempt at nasotracheal intubation C. Carotid massage D. Chest thrusts, Heimlich maneuver, and laryngoscopy with Magill forceps - ANS D. Chest thrusts, Heimlich maneuver, and laryngoscopy with Magill forceps A child in shock will fail quickly when the child's compensatory systems: A. Are in overdrive B. Fail C. Thrive D. Are functioning normally - ANS B. Fail In a child in shock, the heart rate is the: A. Only compensatory mechanism B. Last compensatory mechanism C. Primary compensatory mechanism D. None of the above - ANS C. Primary compensatory mechanism Trauma is the pediatric patient is the most common cause of ___________________ shock. A. Anaphylactic B. Hypovolemic C. Neurogenic D. Cardiogenic - ANS B. Hypovolemic Causes of cardiogenic shock in the pediatric patient include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Hyperammonemia B. Drug toxicity C. Myocarditis D. Arrhythmias - ANS A. Hyperammonemia The primary treatments for distributive / neurogenic shock include: A. Lasix and nitroglycerin B. Volume replacement and epinephrine C. Dobutamine and metoprolol D. Albuterol - ANS B. Volume replacement and epinephrine An example of a cardiac defect that does not cause cyanosis in the pediatric patient is: A. Transposition of the Great Arteries B. Tetralogy of Fallot C. Pulmonary Stenosis D. All of the above - ANS C. Pulmonary Stenosis When assessing your patient's airway prior to intubation, you use the Mallampati classification. Your physical assessment reveals that the posterior pharynx is partially exposed. Based on your knowledge of this classification, you know that this is a Mallampati grade class of: A. I. B. II. C. III. D. IV. - ANS B. II. During intubation, the operator may use the BURP technique. This acronym stands for: A. Bag the patient, use pressure, reverse, placement B. Bilateral, upwards, replace, position C. Backward, upward, rightward, pressure D. Beneath, under, rearward, posterior - ANS C. Backward, upward, rightward, pressure You have just orally intubated your patient. When listening to breath sounds, you note that there are air sounds over the epigastrium. It is difficult to determine the presence of lung sounds. There is no significant chest rise or fall with revelations. The most appropriate action at this point is to: A. Deflate the cuff and pull back the tube 2 to 3 cm. B. Deflate the cuff and advance the tube 1 to 2 cm. C. Continue to ventilate for another minute and then reassess. D. Deflate the cuff, remove the tube, and repeat the steps for oral intubation. - ANS D. Deflate the cuff, remove the tube, and repeat the steps for oral After several failed intubation attempts, your patient still requires an advanced airway. There is a significant chance your patient has an airway obstruction as well. You are considering doing a surgical cricothyrotomy. Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding this procedure? A. It would be contraindicated in a 10-year-old patient. B. It requires more than just a scalpel and an endotracheal tube. C. It is not necessary to visualize anatomic landmarks. D. It is indicated if intubation is not feasible. - ANS D. It is indicated if intubation is not Rapid sequence intubation (RSI) is a critical skill used by the RN. Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding RSI? A. The indications are markedly different than those for endotracheal intubation. B. Use of the Sellick maneuver helps to reduce the risk of aspiration. C. It is indicated if you are unable to ventilate the patient adequately. D. RSI makes no assumptions about the timing of the patient's last meal. - ANS B. Use of the Sellick maneuver helps to reduce the risk of aspiration. When selecting a sedative/induction agent to use during RSI, sodium thiopental and methohexital are ultra-short-acting barbiturates. Their short duration of action makes them attractive to use; however, they do have potential complications and may not always be the ideal agent to use. Which of the following statements best reflects the concern about using these particular agents? A. They are expensive. B. They must be stored in a controlled environment. C. They may cause a significant interaction with other ALS drugs. D. They have a propensity to precipitate myocardial depression and hypotension. - ANS D. They have a propensity to precipitate myocardial depression and hypotension Which of the following is an example of a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent? A. Vecuronium (Norcuron) B. Rocuronium (Zemuron) C. Succinylcholine (Anectine) D. Atracurium (Tricium) - ANS C. Succinylcholine (Anectine) Normal heart sounds are designated as: A. S1, S2, and S3 B. S1 and S2 C. S3 and S4 D. S1, S2, S3, and S4 - ANS B. S1 and S2 The pulmonary vein moves: A. Oxygen-deficient blood from the heart to the lungs B. Oxygen-deficient blood from the lungs to the heart C. Oxygen-rich blood from the heart to the lungs D. Oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the heart - ANS D. Oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the heart Distension of the external jugular veins is indicative of: A. Right-sided heart failure B. Left-sided heart failure C. Hypotension D. Myocardial infarction - ANS A. Right-sided heart failure Chemoreceptors respond to changes in which of the following indicators in blood? D. A carbon dioxide deficit - ANS C. Cellular function Glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and the electron transport chain are the three essential components of which of the following processes? A. Oxidative respiration B. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) breakdown C. Semi-permeable membrane respiration D. Cellular respiration - ANS D. Cellular respiration The primary energy-carrying molecule in the body is: A. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) B. Adenosine diphoshate (ADP) C. Creatinine kinase (CK) D. Pyruvic acid (PA) - ANS A. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) The three components of cellular respiration can work together in either a (an): A. Acid or alkali environment B. Aerobic or an anaerobic environment C. Lactic or lactulose environment D. Open or closed environment - ANS B. Aerobic or an anaerobic environment _______ is maintained when the supply of oxygen is sufficient to meet the cellular demands of the body. A. pH balance B. Homeostasis C. Hemostasis D. Lactic acid - ANS B. Homeostasis A rightward shift in the oxy-hemoglobin dissociation curve causes _______ for oxygen by hemoglobin. A. Decreased affinity B. Increased affinity C. Unchanged affinity D. Decreased unloading ability - ANS A. Decreased affinity A leftward shift in the oxy-hemoglobin dissociation curve causes _______ for oxygen by hemoglobin. A. Decreased affinity B. Increased unloading ability C. Increased affinity D. Unchanged affinity - ANS C. Increased affinity Initially, compensatory shock mechanisms help keep clinical signs normal, but serum lactate rises due to: A. Aerobic metabolism B. Hypermetabolic output C. Hyperdynamic balance D. Anaerobic metabolism - ANS D. Anaerobic metabolism A patient in compensatory shock will increase his or her respiratory rate to bring about which of the following changes? A. A decrease in pH and an increase in minute volume B. Increased oxygen intake to blow off excess carbon dioxide C. A decrease in minute volume and an increase in pH D. Dilation of the capillary bed and diffusion gradient - ANS B. Increased oxygen intake to blow off excess carbon dioxide Your patient's lab states the current lactate level is 5.3mmol/L. This value suggests: A. Nothing B. Aerobic metabolism is occurring C. Anaerobic metabolism is occurring and is a biomarker for morbidity and mortality D. Metabolic acidosis - ANS C. Anaerobic metabolism is occurring and is a biomarker for morbidity and mortality Which of the following information about burns is FALSE? A. There are approximately 1 million burn injuries every year in the United States. B. Two percent of burn center admissions do not survive. C. Serious burns occur most often in males. D. The first 24 hours of burn care are crucial. - ANS B. Two percent of burn B. Two percent of burn center admissions do not survive A systemic inflammatory response is initiated in burns greater than: A. 5% B. 10% C. 15% A. Myoglobinuria B. Methylglobinuria C. Rhabdomyoglobin D. Rhabdomyolsis - ANS D. Rhabdomyolsis An inanimate object that can transmit infectious organisms from one individual to another is known as a(n): A. Vector B. Fomite C. Atrogenic D. Contaminant - ANS B. Fomite The humoral, or antibody-mediated, response primarily occurs when the: A. Immune cells encounter a specific antigen for the first time B. Antigen responds to the antibody C. Immune cells encounter an antibody for the first time D. Antigen is properly opsonized by the antibody - ANS A. Immune cells encounter a specific antigen for the first time _______ is a serious allergic reaction that has a rapid onset of symptoms and, if unrecognized, can lead to respiratory arrest. A. Hypersensitivity B. A localized reaction C. Anaphylaxis D. A toxicity reaction - ANS C. Anaphylaxis _______ occurs when one or more of the components of the immune system is damaged or non- functioning. A. Infection B. Immunocompromise C. Immunodeficiency D. Hypersensitivity - ANS C. Immunodeficiency The prevention of colonization by pathogenic bacteria is attributed to: A. Broad-spectrum antibiotics B. Antifungal soaps and creams C. Adequate hand washing D. The presence of normal flora - ANS D. The presence of normal flora Microorganisms capable of causing disease are called: A. Pathogens B. Fomites C. Vectors D. Hosts - ANS A. Pathogens Properties of microbes that influence their virulence include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Invasion of host tissues B. Evasion of host defenses C. Toxicity D. Fomitic class of invader - ANS D. Fomitic class of invader All of the following are typical portals of entry EXCEPT the: A. Skin B. Hair follicles C. Conjunctiva of the eye D. Mucous membranes of the genitourinary tract - ANS A. Skin What are the two types of toxins produced by bacteria? A. Endogenous and exogenous B. Mild and fulminating C. Exotoxins and endotoxins D. Pyrogenic and exogenic - ANS C. Exotoxins and endotoxins Which of the following lactate (lactic acid) levels would be indicative of a septic shock? A. 4 mg/dl B. 9 mg/dl C. >18 mg/dl D. 2 mg/dl - ANS C. >18 mg/dl Which of the following is NOT a risk factor that predisposes people to environmental emergencies? A. Being in a poor state of health B. Being a thrill seeker A. Impaired thermogenesis B. Excessive thermolysis C. Excessive environmental cold stress D. Hyperdynamic cardiac states - ANS D. Hyperdynamic cardiac states Passive external rewarming can be accomplished through the use of all EXCEPT: A. Removal of wet clothing B. Use of blankets C. Use of heat packs D. Infusion of cold saline - ANS D. Infusion of cold saline The MOST common critical care transport crew configuration is: A. Nurse and paramedic B. Two Nurses C. Nurse and physician D. Paramedic and EMT - ANS Patients with acute myocardial infarction, cerebrovascular accident, severe traumatic brain injury, and abdominal aneurysm are all examples of patients who: A. Will not tolerate the altitude changes associated with air medical transport B. Will require a respiratory therapist during transport C. Are good candidates for rotor-wing transportation D. Are too critical to transport - ANS C. Are good candidates for rotor-wing transportation _______ requires the use of specialized equipment and specialized training for paramedics and nurses. A. Advanced life support B. Fixed-wing air medical evacuation C. Specialty care transport, as defined by CMS D. Interfacility transport - ANS C. Specialty care transport, as defined by CMS The percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere at 250,000' (76 km) is: A. 16% B. 18% C. 21% D. 25% - ANS C. 21% A patient's pneumothorax increasing in size as altitude increases is an example of _______ Law. A. Charles' B. Boyle's C. Dalton's D. Fick's - ANS B. Boyle's The primary gas law dealing with diffusion of gasses across the alveolar membrane is: A. Graham's Law B. Boyle's Law C. Dalton's Law D. Fick's Law - ANS D. Fick's Law Reduced atmospheric pressure causing a reduced alveolar PO2 is an example of _______ hypoxia. A. Hypoxic B. Histotoxic C. Stagnant D. Hypemic - ANS A. Hypoxic 8. You are preparing a trauma patient with a closed head injury and blunt chest trauma for a 2-hour, fixed-wing transport. The patient is intubated, paralyzed, and sedated. Vital signs are: blood pressure, 110/76 mm Hg; respirations, 16 breaths/minute by ventilator; heart rate, 118 beats/minute and showing sinus tachycardia on the monitor; and an SaO2 of 96% with 0.5 FIO2. The CT scan shows a moderate subarachnoid bleed and chest x-ray reveals a 25% pneumothorax on the right. You are currently at 500' (152 m) above sea level, and the aircraft will reach a cabin pressure of 8,000' (2.4 km) en route to the tertiary care facility. Which of the following is your best option during this flight? A. Increase FIO2 to 1.0 to counteract the effects of Dalton's Law. B. Make sure that the cabin stays cool while at altitude to counteract the effects of Gay-Lussac's Law. C. Increase positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) to e - ANS D. Place a chest tube prior to departure to counteract the effects of Boyle's Law. A "sterile cockpit" refers to a: A. Method of decontaminating the aircraft. B. Communication technique during critical phases of flight. C. Pilot's absolute control over radio communications. D. Completely locked and separate cockpit. - ANS B. Communication technique during critical phases of flight. A. Glaucoma B. Genetic predisposition C. Environmental exposures D. Infectious exposures - ANS A. Glaucoma A patient presenting with a viral infection would typically demonstrate a / an ______________________ number of lymphocytes. A. Unchanged B. Varied C. Increased D. Decreased - ANS D. Decreased A patient presenting with a bacterial infection would typically demonstrate a / an ______________________ number of lymphocytes. A. Unchanged B. Decreased C. Increased D. Varied - ANS C. Increased The three primary categories of common anemias include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Increased RBC destruction B. Increased RBC production C. Decreased RBC production D. Acute / chronic blood loss - ANS B. Increased RBC production The MOST important part of responding to a scene involving man-made disasters is: A. Speed of response B. Crew and Patient Safety C. Treatment delivery D. Crew integration to the scene - ANS B. Crew and Patient Safety Universal organizational structure for scene responses is known as: A. NIMS/ICS B. Incident management C. Resource management D. People skills - ANS A. NIMS/ICS What is the best resource available to responders at the awareness level to determine any hazardous materials present at scene? A. Regional response book B. Protocol book C. Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) D. Scene Response Guidebook - ANS C. Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) Which of the following organizations deals with Industrial accidents? A. FEMA B. TJC C. CAMTS D. OSHA - ANS D. OSHA When responding to a hazardous materials scene, medical personnel are to treat the patient only after which process has been completed? A. Scene Brief B. Checking in with Incident Commander C. Patient Decontamination D. Hazard has been tested - ANS C. Patient Decontamination The best definition of a Mass Casualty Incident (MCI) is: A. Any scene involving two or more patients B. More than five vehicles in an accident C. Two or more injured patients that need rapid transport to the hospital D. Any incident in which local resources are stressed - ANS D. Any incident in which local resources are stressed Why do we practice Triage on the scene of an MCI? A. To count the number of patients B. To prioritize care C. As a reminder of who we have assessed or not assessed D. Triage is no longer used - ANS B. To prioritize care According to the START Triage criteria, which color represents the expectant or DEAD patients? A. Red B. Yellow C. Green A. Electrocardiogram (ECG) B. Arterial pressure C. Pacemaker D. Internally programmed rate - ANS A. Electrocardiogram (ECG) _______ is maintained when the supply of oxygen is sufficient to meet the cellular demands of the body. A. pH balance B. Homeostasis C. Hemostasis D. Lactic acid - ANS B. Homeostasis Intra-aortic balloon pump tubing ______________ for transport. A. Can be coiled up B. Should always be taped together C. Should never be taped together D. A. & B. - ANS C. Should never be taped together If significant movement of the intra-aortic balloon pump occurs during transport, consider ______________ IABP therapy after consultation with medical control. A. Continuing B. Increasing C. Discontinuing D. Removing - ANS C. Discontinuing The most common type of pacing that the CCTP will initially use if emergency pacing is needed is called ___________________. A. A permanent pacemaker B. A biventricular pacemaker C. Transcutaneous pacing D. Epicardial pacing - ANS C. Transcutaneous pacing You are caring for a patient who is being mechanically ventilated. The current ventilator settings are as follows: tidal volume of 600 mL, respiratory rate of 12 breaths/min, FIO2 of 40%. While considering normal respiratory parameters, you recall that the minute ventilation is measured by the: A. Respiratory rate x the SaO2 B. Tidal volume x the AA gradient C. PaO2 x the respiratory rate D. Respiratory rate x the tidal volume - ANS D. Respiratory rate x the tidal volume Which of the following is considered the respiratory component of the ABG values? A. PaO2 B. PaCO2 C. HCO3 D. pH - ANS B. PaCO2 You are preparing to transport a critical patient who is being mechanically ventilated. As part of your patient assessment, you note that the most recent arterial blood gas (ABG) results were: pH, 7.44; PaO2, 78 mm Hg; PaCO2, 43 mm Hg; and SaO2, 98 mm Hg. Which of the following is an indicator of the effectiveness of ventilation? A. pH B. PaO2 C. PaCO2 D. SaO2 - ANS C. PaCO2 You must assess the respiratory status of a critical patient who is being mechanically ventilated. One of the tools available to you is a pulse oximeter. Based on your understanding of how the pulse oximeter works and the limitations of conventional pulse oximetry, which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Pulse oximetry is useful in the patient who has experienced carbon monoxide poisoning. B. Pulse oximetry can be used in a patient suffering from hypotension. C. Pulse oximetry may be unreliable in the hypothermic patient because the sensor requires a minimum body temperature of 95°F (35°C). D. Pulse oximetry readings may be affected in the patient with peripheral vascular disease due to reduced blood flow to the extremities. - ANS D. Pulse oximetry readings may be affected in the patient with peripheral vascular disease due to reduced blood flow to the extremities. During transport of a mechanically ventilated patient the ventilator goes off with a high pressure alarm. To trouble shoot the high pressure alarm, you recall the DOPE mnemonic. What does the P in DOPE stand for ? A. Pressure B. Pneumothorax C. Puncture D. Pulmonary obstruction - ANS B. Pneumothorax When utilizing the SIMV mode of ventilation, what adjunct features should be utilized in conjunction with SIMV ? The body's response to physical or emotional stress is referred to as the: A. Exogenous catecholamine release B. Endogenous catecholamine release C. Fight-or-flight response D. Fright-or-spite response - ANS C. Fight-or-flight response What are the main hormones secreted by the pancreas that are responsible for the regulation of blood glucose levels? A. Glucagon and glycogen B. Glucagon and insulin C. Insulin and glycogen D. Glucose and insulin - ANS B. Glucagon and insulin Normally, blood glucose levels should be: A. Between 150 mg/ dL and 200 mg/dL B. Greater than 100 mg/dL C. Between 40 mg/dL and 85 mg/dL D. Between 70 mg/dL and 110 mg/dL - ANS D. Between 70 mg/dL and 110 mg/dL What are the two hallmark signs associated with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)? A. Vomiting and diarrhea B. Thirst and hypotension C. Nausea and confusion D. Rapid respirations and fruity breath - ANS D. Rapid respirations and fruity breath Patients with HHNS primarily present with all of the following, EXCEPT? A. Severe dehydration B. Tachycardia and hypotension due to dehydration C. Polyphagia, polydipsia, and polyuria D. Elevated sodium and carbon dioxide levels - ANS D. Elevated sodium and carbon dioxide levels All of the following may cause central diabetes insipidus EXCEPT: A. Traumatic head injury B. Neurosurgery C. Genetic abnormalities D. Hypovolemic shock - ANS D. Hypovolemic shock Which of the following signs and symptoms is NOT associated with pheochromocytoma? A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Congestive heart failure C. Cerebrovascular accident D. Gastrointestinal bleeding - ANS D. Gastrointestinal bleeding Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of hypothyroidism? A. Weight gain B. Lethargy C. An increase in body temperature D. Muscle aches and weakness - ANS C. An increase in body temperature Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of Spinal Immobilization? A. Airway Compromise B. Risk of Aspiration C. Pressure Ulcers D. Pain Reduction - ANS D. Pain Reduction Which of these is NOT considered a positive finding on the NEXUS Criteria? A. Intoxication B. Distracting Injury C. GCS of 15 D. Focal Neurological Deficit - ANS C. GCS of 15 All of these are possible causes of Seizures EXCEPT: A. Fever B. MI C. Glucose Imbalance D. Head Injury - ANS B. MI Which of the following questions is NOT an example of a questions you would want to ask first, in regards to a seizure patient? A. Motor function B. Sensory function C. Neither A nor B D. Both A and B - ANS D. Both A and B Cranial nerves IX and X are both indicators of: A. Carotid reflexes B. Swallowing and gag reflexes C. Elevation of the tongue D. Involuntary visceral muscle activity of the heart - ANS B. Swallowing and gag reflexes Impact that occurs on one side of the head and causes injury internally to the opposite side of the brain as it moves inside the cranium is called a: A. Diffuse axonal injury B. Concussion C. Contrecoup injury D. Secondary brain injury - ANS C. Contrecoup injury The pathophysiology of traumatic brain injury (TBI) emphasizes the importance of which two types of injury? A. Direct and indirect B. Hypoxia and ischemia C. P derangement and loss of consciousness D. Swelling and vasospasm - ANS A. Direct and indirect All of the following are possible causes of secondary brain injury EXCEPT: A. Hypoxia B. Hypercarbia C. Hyponatremia D. Hematoma - ANS D. Hematoma Current guidelines identify the ideal cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) to be: A. 15 to 25 mm Hg B. 30 to 40mm Hg C. 45 to 60 mm Hg D. 50 to 70 mm Hg - ANS D. 50 to 70 mm Hg An epidural hematoma is often the result of a blow to the temporal region of the skull that involves the: A. Bridging veins of the skull B. Middle meningeal artery C. Anterior fossae artery D. Vertebral artery - ANS B. Middle meningeal artery The Monroe-Kellie doctrine describes the contents of the cranial vault as: A. Brain, neurons and blood B. Brain, blood and cerebrospinal fluid C. Cerebrospinal fluid, air and blood D. Brain, blood and air - ANS B. Brain, blood and cerebrospinal fluid As ICP rises to the level of arterial pressure, the cascade of events know as Cushing's triad begins. Cushing's triad is BEST described as: A. Widened pulse pressure, bradycardia, and abnormal respiratory pattern B. MAP greater that 120 mm Hg, tachycardia, and abnormal respiratory pattern C. Tachypnea, widened pulse pressure, and tachycardia D. Apnea, bradycardia, and systolic blood pressure greater than 180 mm Hg - ANS A. Widened pulse pressure, bradycardia, and abnormal respiratory pattern Bilateral closed femur fractures could result in a blood loss of: A. 500 ml B. 1,000 ml C. 1,500 ml D. 2,000 ml - ANS D. 2,000 ml The following statements about compartment syndrome are correct EXCEPT for: A. Can be caused by burns, external compression and crushing injury B. Pain from compartment syndrome can be described as easily relieved by medication C. Can affect any extremity and the buttocks D. Can develop over a period of hours - ANS B. Pain from compartment syndrome can be described as easily relieved by medication The vertebrae are stabilized by both: The differential diagnosis is best described as: A. The most likely diagnosis for a patient's condition. B. The least likely diagnosis for a patient's condition. C. A list of possible diagnostic considerations for a patient's possible condition. D. Including the projected diagnosis. - ANS C. A list of possible diagnostic considerations for a patient's possible condition. Which of the following is associated with assessment prior to scene transport? A. Copies of radiologic films B. Copies of lab tests C. Care provided before the CCTP arrival D. Patient history - ANS C. Care provided before the CCTP arrival Which of the following are part of the cardiovascular assessment? A. Skin color, edema, central venous pressure (CVP) monitoring, and reactivity of pupils B. Nail beds, edema, ECG tracing, and deep tendon reflexes C. ECG tracing, hepatojugular reflex, nail beds, and peripheral pulses D. Edema, ECG tracing, CVP monitoring, and presence of thyromegaly - ANS C. ECG tracing, hepatojugular reflex, nail beds, and peripheral pulses Which of the following is TRUE regarding work of breathing? A. Palpation of the accessory muscles can identify increased work of breathing. B. Intercostal retractions and nasal flaring may indicate increased work of breathing. C. Due to higher energy levels, children can tolerate an increased work of breathing better than adults. D. The fatigue associated with increased work of breathing results in a decreased metabolism. - ANS B. Intercostal retractions and nasal flaring may indicate increased work of breathing. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) measures the patient's: A. Clarity of speech, clear thought process, and vibratory sense. B. Best eye opening, best gait, and best speech. C. Gait, balance, and proprioception. D. Best verbal effort, best motor response, and best eye opening. - ANS D. Best verbal effort, best motor response, and best eye opening. Decerebrate posturing is characterized by which of the following? A. Hyperextension of the neck and stiff, extended extremities B. Hyperflexion of the neck and flexed extremities C. Hyperextension of the neck and clenched extremities D. Hyperflexion of the neck and extension of the upper extremities - ANS A. Hyperextension of the neck and stiff, extended extremities You are caring for a patient who has sustained a significant head injury. During a routine neurologic assessment, you pay close attention to the patient's GCS. During the examination, you note that the previous GCS score was 13 and now it is 9. Based on this finding, you might suspect which of the following? A. This is a normal response. B. You have calculated the GCS incorrectly. C. The intracranial pressure is increasing. D. Hypertension is increasing. - ANS C. The intracranial pressure is increasing Which of the following is most consistent with a pathology of upper gastrointestinal bleeding? A. Dark, melanotic stool B. Dark stool with bright red blood C. Passage of blood clots per rectum D. Hematochezia - ANS A. Dark, melanotic stool A standard and key assessment of the critical care musculoskeletal system is: A. Checking for neurovascular status of each extremity B. Measuring compartment pressures C. Checking for hepato-jugular reflux D. Auscultation of a popliteal bruit - ANS A. Checking for neurovascular status of each extremity Which of the following is associated with assessment prior to an inter-facility transport? A. Frequently, there is little information available. B. Requires knowledge of anticipated transport time to differentiate "need to know" from "helpful to know" information. C. Report is received from Emergency Medical Services (EMS). D. There is no need for a thorough equipment check. - ANS B. Requires knowledge of anticipated transport time to differentiate "need to know" from "helpful to know" information. You have a 25-year-old male patient who was involved in a motorcycle crash. He has absent lungs sounds on the right. What other sign would you expect to find if you were considering a tension pneumothorax? C. Albuterol D. Epinephrine - ANS D. Epinephrine The quickSOFA (qSOFA) score is a diagnostic tool used to help diagnosis Sepsis in your patient's. Which of these would NOT qualify as warning signs of a Sepsis patient: A. Altered Mental Status B. Respiratory Rate 28 C. Heart Rate 104 D. Systolic BP 86 - ANS C. Heart Rate 104 Common treatment modalities for all sepsis patients would include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Normal saline or Lactated Ringers infusion for volume expansion B. Vasopressor medication C. Antibiotics D. ET Intubation - ANS D. ET Intubation In a critically ill pregnant patient, the key to a viable fetus is: A. Early delivery if gestation is over 20 weeks B. Maintaining adequate perfusion of the mother C. Getting a neonatal consult as soon as possible D. Having the labor and delivery team on standby - ANS B. Maintaining adequate perfusion of the mother The umbilical cord contains: A. One vein and one artery B. Two veins and one artery C. One vein and two arteries D. Two veins and two arteries - ANS C. One vein and two arteries During an abdominal exam of a known pregnant patient, the CCTP palpates the top of the uterus just above the symphisis pubis. Based on this finding, the pregnancy is at least _______ weeks' gestation. A. 8 B. 12 C. 20 D. 24 - ANS B. 12 Compared with the pregnant mother, the oxygen content of the fetus is: A. Lower B. Higher C. The same D. Indeterminate - ANS A. Lower Increased ventilation during pregnancy causes changes in the pCO2 level, resulting in a state of: A. Respiratory alkalosis B. Respiratory acidosis C. Metabolic acidosis D. Metabolic alkalosis - ANS A. Respiratory alkalosis On assessment, your pregnant patient has vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, back pain, and a lack of fetal heart tones. You suspect: A. Abruptio placenta B. Placenta previa C. Threatened abortion D. Ectopic pregnancy - ANS A. Abruptio placenta The only true treatment for eclampsia is: A. IV magnesium B. IV valium C. IV oxytocin D. Delivery of the neonate - ANS D. Delivery of the neonate Signs and symptoms of PIH include: A. BP greater than 140/90 mm Hg and proteinuria B. BP greater than 160/100 mm Hg and hematuria C. BP greater than 170/105 mm Hg and increased deep tendon reflexes D. BP greater than 180/100 mm Hg and visual changes - ANS A. BP greater than 140/90 mm Hg and proteinuria While auscultating the fetal heart, the heart rate is noted to be 155 beats/min. This rate is: A. Bradycardic B. Normal C. Tachycardic D. Abnormal - ANS B. Normal