Ergonomics and Public Health Nursing Roles and Functions, Exams of Nursing

Download Ergonomics and Public Health Nursing Roles and Functions and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! Community Health Nursing Exam (145 Questions and Answers All Correct) 2024 VERSION 1. Which is the primary goal of community health nursing? A. To support and supplement the efforts of the medical profession in the promotion of health and prevention of B. To enhance the capacity of individuals, families and communities to cope with their health needs C. To increase the productivity of the people by providing them with services that will increase their level of health D. To contribute to national development through promotion of family welfare, focusing particularly on mothers and children - Correct answer Answer: (B) To enhance the capacity of individuals, families and communities to cope with their health needs. FB: To contribute to national development through promotion of family welfare, focusing particularly on mothers and children. 2. CHN is a community-based practice. Which best explains this statement? A. The service is provided in the natural environment of people B. The nurse has to conduct community diagnosis to determine nursing needs and problems C. The service are based on the available resources within the community D. Priority setting is based on the magnitude of the health problems identified - Correct answer Answer: (B) The nurse has to conduct community diagnosis to determine nursing needs and problems. Community-based practice means providing care to people in their own natural environments: the home, school and workplace, for example. 3. Population- focused nursing practice requires which of the following processes? A. Community organizing B. Nursing, process C. Community diagnosis D. Epidemiologic process - Correct answer 3. Answer: (C) Community diagnosis FB:Population-focused nursing care means providing care based on the greater need of the majority of the population. The greater need is identified through community diagnosis. 4. RA 1054 is also known as the Occupational Health Act. Aside from the number of employees, what other factor must be considered in determining the occupational health privileges to which the workers will be entitled? A. Type of occupation,: agriculture, commercial, industrial B. Location of the workplace in relation to health facilities C. Classification of the business enterprise based on net profit D. Sex and age composition of employees - Correct answer B. Location of the workplace in relation to health facilities FB: Based on R.A. 1054, an occupational nurse must be employed when there are 30 to 100 employees and the workplace is more than 1 km. away from the nearest health center. 5. A business firm must employ an occupational health nurse when it has at least how many employees. A. 21 B. Services are provided free of charge to people within the catchment area C. The public health nurse functions as part of a team providing a public health nursing service D. Public health nursing focuses on preventive, not curative services - Correct answer D. Public health nursing focuses on preventive, not curative services The catchment area in PHN consists of a residential community, many of whom are well individuals who have greater need for preventive rather than curative services. 12. According to Margaret Shetland, the philosophy of public health nursing is based on which of the following? A. Health and longevity as birthrights B. The mandate of the state to protect the birthrights of its citizens C. Public health nursing as a specialized field of nursing D. The worth and dignity of man - Correct answer D. The worth and dignity of man 13. Which of the following is the mission of the Department of Health? A. Health for all Filipinos B. Ensure the accessibility and quality of health C. Improve the general health status of the population D. Health in the hands of the Filipino people by the year 2020 - Correct answer B. Ensure the accessibility and quality of health care 14. Region IV Hospital is classified as what level of facility? A. Primary B. Secondary C. Intermediate D. Tertiary - Correct answer D. Tertiary Regional hospitals are tertiary facilities because they serve as training hospitals for the region. 15. What is true of primary facilities? A. They are usually government-run B. Their services are provided on an out-patient basis C. They are training facilities for health professionals D. A community hospital is an example of this level of health facilities - Correct answer B. Their services are provided on an out-patient basis Primary facilities government and non-government facilities that provide basic out-patient services. 16. Which is an example of the school nurse's health care provider function? A. Requesting for BCG from the RHU for school entrance immunization B. Conducting random classroom inspection during measles epidemic C. Taking remedial action on an accident hazard in the school playground D. Observing places in the school where pupils spend their free times - Correct answer B. Conducting random classroom inspection during measles epidemic Random classroom inspection is assessment of pupils/students and teachers for signs of a health problem prevalent in the community. 17. When the nurse determines whether resources were maximized in implementing Ligtas Tigdas, she is evaluating: A. Effectiveness B. Efficiency C. Adequacy D. Appropriateness - Correct answer B. Efficiency Efficiency is determining whether the goals were attained at the least possible cost. 18. You are a new B.S.N. graduate. You want to become a Public Health Nurse. Where will you apply? A. Department of Health B. Provincial Health Office C. Regional Health Office D. Rural Health Unit - Correct answer D. Rural Health Unit R.A. 7160 devolved basic health services to local government units (LGU's). The public health nurse is an employee of the LGU. 19. RA 7160 mandates devolution of basic services from the national government to local government units. Which of the following is the major goal of devolution? A. To strengthen local government units B. To allow greater autonomy to local government units. C. To empower the people and promote their self-reliance D. To make basic services more accessible to the people - Correct answer C. To empower the people and promote their self-reliance People empowerment is the basic motivation behind devolution of basic services to LGU's. 20. Who is the Chairman of the Municipal Health Board? Act 3573, the Law on Reporting of Communicable Diseases, enacted in 1929, mandated the reporting of diseases listed in the law to the nearest health station. 27. According to Freeman and Heinrich, community health nursing is a developmental service. Which of the following best illustrates this statement? A. The community health nurse continuously develops himself personally and professionally B. Health education and community organizing are necessary in providing community health services C. Community health nursing in intended primarily for health promotion and prevention and treatment of disease. D. The goal of community health nursing is to provide nursing services to people in their own place of .residence - Correct answer B. Health education and community organizing are necessary in providing community health services The community health nurse develops the health capability of people through health education and community organizing activities. 28. Which disease was declared through Presidential Proclamation No. 4 as a target for, eradication in the Philippines? A. Pioliomyelitis B. Measles C. Rabies D. Neonatal Tetanus - Correct answer B. Measles Presidential Proclamation No. 4 is on the Ligtas Tigdas Program. 29. The public health nurse is responsible for presenting the municipal health statistics using graphs and tables. To compare the frequency of the leading causes of mortality in the municipality, which graph will you prepare? A. Line B. Bar C. Pie D. Scatter diagram - Correct answer B. Bar A bar graph is used to present comparison of values, a line graph for trends over time or age, a pie graph for population composition or distribution, and a scatter diagram for correlation of two variables. 30. Which step in community organizing involves training of potential leaders in the community? A. Integration B. Community organization C. Community study D. Core group formation - Correct answer D. Core group formation In core group formation, the nurse is able to transfer the technology of community organizing to the potential or informal community leaders through a training program. 31. In which step are plans formulated for solving community problems? A. Mobilization B. Community organization C. Follow-up/extension D. Core group formation - Correct answer B. Community organization Community organization is the step when community assemblies take place. During the community assembly, the people may opt to formalize the community organization and make plans for community action to resolve a community health problem. 32. The public health nurse takes an active role in community participation. What is the primary goal of community organizing? A. To educate the people regarding community health problems B. To mobilize the people to resolve community health problems C. To maximize the community's resources in dealing with health problems - Correct answer C. To maximize the community's resources in dealing with health problems Community organizing is a developmental service, with the goal of developing the people's self-reliance in dealing with community health problems. A, B and C are objectives of contributory objectives to this goal. 33. An indicator of success in community organizing is when people are able to: A. Participate in community activities for the solution of a community problem B. Implement activities for the solution of the community problem C. Plan activities for the solution of the community problem D. Identify the health problem as a common concern - Correct answer A. Participate in community activities for the solution of a community problem Participation in community activities in resolving a community problem may be in any of the processes mentioned in the other choices. 34. Tertiary prevention is needed in which stage of the natural history of disease? A. Pre-pathogenesis B. Pathogenesis C. Predromal D. Terminal - Correct answer D. Terminal Tertiary prevention involves rehabilitation, prevention of permanent disability and disability limitation appropriate for convalescents, the disabled, complicated cases and the terminally ill (those in the terminal stage of a disease) 35. Isolation of a child with measles belongs to what level of prevention? A. Primary The home visit plan should be flexible and practical, depending on factors, such as the family's needs and the resources available to the nurse and the family. 42. The PHN bag is an important tool in providing nursing care during a home visit. The most important principle in bag technique states that it; A. Should save time and effort B. Should minimize if not totally prevent the spread of infection C. Should not overshadow concern for the patient and his family D. May be done in variety of ways depending on the home situation, etc. - Correct answer B. Should minimize if not totally prevent the spread of infection Bag technique is performed before and after handling a client in the home to prevent transmission of infection to and from the client. 43. To maintain the cleanliness of the bag and its contents, which of the following must the nurse do? A. Wash his/her hands before and after providing nursing care to the family members B. In the care of family member's, as much as possible, use only articles taken from the bag C. Put on an apron to protect her uniform and fold it with the right side out before putting it back into the bag. D. At the end of the visit, fold the lining on which the bag was placed, ensuring that the contaminated side is on the outside. - Correct answer A. Wash his/her hands before and after providing nursing care to the family members Choice B goes against the idea of utilizing the family's resources, which is encouraged in CHN. Choices C and D goes against the principle of asepsis of confining the contaminated surface of objects. 44. The public health conducts a study on the factors contributing to the high morality rate due to heart diseases in the municipality where she works. Which branch of epidemiology does the nurse practice in this situation? A. Descriptive B. Analytical C. Therapeutic D. Evaluation - Correct answer B. Analytical Analytical epidemiology is the study of factors or determinants affecting the patterns of occurrence and distribution of disease in a community. 45. Which of the following is a function of epidemiology? A. Identifying the disease condition based on manifestations presented by a client B. Determining factors that contributed to the occurrence of pneumonia in a 3 year old C. Determining the efficacy of the antibiotic used in the treatment of the 3 year old client with pneumonia D. Evaluating the effectiveness of the implementation of the Integrated Management of Childhood Illness - Correct answer D. Evaluating the effectiveness of the implementation of the Integrated Management of Childhood Illness Epidemiology is used in the assessment of a community or evaluation of interventions in community health practice. 46. Which of the following is an epidemiologic function of the nurse during an epidemic? A Conducting assessment of suspected cases to detect the communicable diseases B. Monitoring the condition of the cases affected by the communicable disease C. Participating in the investigation to determine the source of epidemic D. Teaching the community on preventive measures against the disease - Correct answer C. Participating in the investigation to determine the source of epidemic Epidemiology is the study of patterns of occurrence and distribution of disease in the community, as well as the factors that affect disease patterns. The purpose of an epidemiologic investigation is to identify the source of an epidemic, i.e., what brought about the epidemic. 47. The primary purpose of conducting an epidemiologic investigation is to; A. Delineate the etiology of the epidemic B. Encourage cooperation and support of the community C. Identify groups who are at risk of contracting the disease D. Identify geographical location of cases of the disease in the community - Correct answer A. Delineate the etiology of the epidemic Delineating the etiology of an epidemic is identifying its source. 48. Which is a characteristic of person-to-person propagated epidemic? A. There are more cases of the disease than expected B. The disease must necessarily be transmitted through a vector C. The spread of the disease can be attributed to a common vehicle D. There is gradual build up of cases before we epidemic becomes easily noticeable - Correct answer A. There is a gradual build up of cases before the epidemic becomes easily noticeable. A gradual or insidious onset of the epidemic is usually observable in person-to-person propagated epidemics. A. Effectiveness B. Efficacy C. Specificity D. Sensitivity - Correct answer D. Sensitivity Sensitivity is the capacity of a diagnostic examination to detect cases of the disease. If a test is 100% sensitive, all the cases tested will have a positive result, i.e., there will be no false negative results. 55. Use of appropriate technology requires knowledge of indigenous technology. Which medical herb is given for fever, headache and cough? A. Sambong B. Tsaang gubat C. Akapulko D. Lagundi - Correct answer D. Lagundi Sambong is used as a diuretic. Tsaang gubat is used to relieve diarrhea. Akapulko is used for its antifungal property. 56. What law created the Philippine institute of Traditional and Alternative Health Care? A. RA 8483 B. RA4823 C. RA 2483 D. RA 3482 - Correct answer A. RA 8483 "AN ACT CREATING THE PHILIPPINE INSTITUTE OF TRADITIONAL AND ALTERNATIVE HEALTH CARE (PITAHC) TO ACCELERATE THE DEVELOPMENT OF TRADITIONAL AND ALTERNATIVE HEALTH CARE IN THE PHILIPPINES, PROVIDING FOR A TRADITIONAL AND ALTERNATIVE HEALTH CARE DEVELOPMENT FUND AND FOR OTHER PURPOSES" signed to a law on December 9, 1997. 57. In traditional Chinese medicine, the yielding, negative and feminine force is termed: A. Yin B. Yang C. Qi D. Chai - Correct answer A. Yin Yang is the male dominating, positive and masculine force. 58. What is the legal basis of Primary Health Care approach in the Philippines? A. Alma Ata Declaration of PHC B. Letter of Instruction No 949 C. Presidential Decree No. 147 D. Presidential Decree 996 - Correct answer B. Letter of Instruction No 949 Letter of Instruction 949 was issued by then President Ferdinand Marcos, directing the formerly called Ministry of Health, now the Department of Health, to utilize Primary Health Care approach in planning and implementing health programs. 59. Which of the following demonstrates inter-sectoral linkages? A. Two-way referral system B. Team approach C. Endorsement done by a midwife to another midwife D. Cooperation between PHN and public school teacher - Correct answer D. Cooperation between PHN and public school teacher Intersectoral linkages refer to working relationships between the health sector and other sectors involved in community development. 60. The municipality assigned to you has a population of about 20/000. Estimate the number of 1-4 year old children who be given Retinol capsule 200.000 every 6 months. A. 1,500 B. 1,800 C. 2,000 D. 2,300 - Correct answer D. 2,300 Based on the Philippine population composition, to estimate the number of 1-4 year old children, multiply total population by 11.5%. 61. Estimate the number of pregnant women who will be given tetanus toxoid during an immunization outreach activity in a barangay with a population of about 1,500. A. 265 B. 300 C. 375 D. 400 - Correct answer A. 265 To estimate the number of pregnant women, multiply the total population by 3.5%. 62. To describe the sex composition of the population, which demographic tool may be used? A. Sex ratio B. Sex proportion C. Population pyramid D. Any of these maybe used - Correct answer D. Any of these maybe used Sex ratio and sex proportion are used to determine the sex composition of a population. A population pyramid is used to present the composition of a population by age and sex. 63. Which of the following is a natality rate? A. Crude birth rate B. Neonatal mortality rate C. Infant mortality rate D. General fertility rate - Correct answer A. Crude birth rate Natality means birth. A natality rate is a birth rate. 64. You are computing the crude rate of your municipality, with a total population o about 18,000 for last year. There were 94 deaths. Among those who died, 20 died because of diseases of the heart and 32 were aged 50 years or older. What is the crude death rate? A. 4.1/1000 B. 5.2/1000 target population for PEM. What method of delta gathering is best for this purpose? A. Census B. Survey C. Record Review D. Review of civil registry - Correct answer B. Survey A survey, also called sample survey, is data gathering about a sample of the population. 71. In the conduct of a census, the method of population assignment based on the actual physical location of the people is termed; A. De jure B. De locus C. De facto D. De novo - Correct answer C. De facto The other method of population assignment, de jure, is based on the usual place of residence of the people. 72. The Field Health Services and information System (FHSIS) is the recording and reporting system in public health) care in the Philippines. The monthly field health service activity report is a form used in which of the components of the FHSIS? A. Tally report B. Output report C. Target/client list D. Individual health record - Correct answer A. Tally report A tally report is prepared monthly or quarterly by the RHU personnel and transmitted to the Provincial Health Office. 73. To monitor clients registered in long-term regimens, such as the Multi- Drug Therapy, which component will be most useful? A. Tally report B. Output report C. Target/client list D. Individual health record - Correct answer C. Target/client list The MDT Client List is a record of clients enrolled in MDT and other relevant data, such as dates when clients collected their monthly supply of drugs. 74. Civil registries are important sources of data. Which law requires registration of births within 30 days from the occurrence of the birth? A. PD 651 B. Act 3573 C. RA 3753 D. RA 3375 - Correct answer A. PD 651 P.D. 651 amended R.A. 3753, requiring the registry of births within 30 days from their occurrence. 75. Which of the following professionals can sign the birth certificate? A. Public health nurse B. Rural health midwife C. Municipal health officer D. Any of these health professionals - Correct answer D. Any of these health professionals R.A. 3753 states that any birth attendant may sign the certificate of live birth. 76. Which criterion in priority setting of health problems is used only in community health care? A. Modifiability of the problem B. Nature of the problem presented C. Magnitude of the health problem D. Preventive potential of the health problem - Correct answer C. Magnitude of the health problem Magnitude of the problem refers to the percentage of the population affected by a health problem. The other choices are criteria considered in both family and community health care. 77. The Sentrong Sigla Movement has been launched to improve health service delivery. Which of the following is/are true of this movement? A. This is a project spearheaded by local government units B. It is a basis for increasing funding from local government units C. It encourages health centers to focus on disease prevention and control D. Its main strategy is certification of health centers able to comply with standards - Correct answer D. Its main strategy is certification of health centers able to comply with standards Sentrong Sigla Movement is a joint project of the DOH and local government units. Its main strategy is certification of health centers that are able to comply with standards set by the DOH. 78. Which of the following women should be considered as special targets for family planning? A. Those who have two children or more B. Those with medical conditions such as anemia C. Those younger than 20 years and older than 35 years D. Those who just had a delivery within the past 15 months - Correct answer D. Those who just had a delivery within the past 15 months The ideal birth spacing is at least two years. 15 months plus 9 months of pregnancy = 2 years. 79. Freedom of choice in one of the policies of the Family Planning Program of the Philippines. Which of the following illustrates this principle? D. Explain to her that putting the baby to breast will lessen blood loss after delivery - Correct answer D. Explain to her that putting the baby to breast will lessen blood loss after delivery Suckling of the nipple stimulates the release of oxytocin by the posterior pituitary gland, which causes uterine contraction. Lactation begins 1 to 3 days after delivery. Nipple stretching exercises are done when the nipples are flat or inverted. Frequent washing dries up the nipples, making them prone to the formation of fissures. 85. A primigravida is instructed to offer her breast to the baby for the first time within 30 minutes after delivery. What is the purpose of offering the breast this early? A. To initiate the occurrence of milk letdown B. To stimulate milk production by the mammary acini C. To make sure that the baby is able to get the colustrum D. To allow the woman to practice breastfeeding in the presence of the health worker - Correct answer B. To stimulate milk production by the mammary acini Suckling of the nipple stimulates prolactin reflex (the release of prolactin by the anterior pituitary gland), which initiates lactation. 86. In a mother's class, you discuss proper breastfeeding technique. Which of these is a sign that the baby has "lactated on" the breast property? A. The baby takes shallow, rapid sucks B. The mother does not feel nipple pain C. The baby's mouth is only partly open D. Only the mother's nipple is inside the baby's mouth - Correct answer B. The mother does not feel nipple pain When the baby has properly latched on to the breast, he takes deep, slow sucks; his mouth is wide open; and much of the areola is inside his mouth. And, you're right! The mother does not feel nipple pain. 87. You explain to a breastfeeding mother that breastmilk is sufficient for all of the baby's nutrient needs only up to: A. 3 months B. 6 months C. 1 year D. 2 years - Correct answer B. 6 months After 6 months, the baby's nutrient needs, especially the baby's iron requirement, can no longer be provided by mother's milk alone. 88. What is given to a woman within a month after the delivery of a baby? A. Malunggay capsule B. Ferrous sutfate l00mg O.D. C. Retinol 200.000 IU 1 capsule D. Potassium Iodate 200 mg, 1 capsule - Correct answer C. Retinol 200.000 IU 1 capsule A capsule of Retinol 200,000 IU is given within 1 month after delivery. Potassium iodate is given during pregnancy; malunggay capsule is not routinely administered after delivery; and ferrous sulfate is taken for two months after delivery. 89. Which biological used in EPI is stored in the freezer? A. DPT B. Tetanus toxoid C. Measles vaccine D. Hepatitis B vaccine - Correct answer C. Measles vaccine Among the biologicals used in the Expanded Program on Immunization, measles vaccine and OPV are highly sensitive to heat, requiring storage in the freezer. 90. Unused BCG should be discarded how many hours after reconstitution? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. At the end of the day - Correct answer B. 4 While the unused portion of other biologicals in EPI may be given until the end of the day, only BCG is discarded 4 hours after reconstitution. This is why BCG immunization is scheduled only in the morning. 91. In immunity school entrants with BCG, you not obliged to secure parental consent. This is because of which legal document? A. PD 996 B. RA 7864 C. Presidential Proclamation No. 6 D. Presidential Proclamation No. 46 - Correct answer A. PD 996 Presidential Decree 996, enacted in 1976, made immunization in the EPI compulsory for children under 8 years of age. Hepatitis B vaccination was made compulsory for the same age group by R.A. 7846. 92. Which immunization produces a permanent scar? A. DPT B. BCG C. Measles vaccination D. Hepatitis B vaccination - Correct answer B. BCG BCG causes the formation of a superficial abscess, which begins 2 weeks after immunization. The abscess heals without treatment, with the formation of a permanent scar. 93. A 4 week old baby was brought to the health center for his first immunization. Which can be given to him? A. DPT1 B. OPV1 Severe pneumonia requires urgent referral to a hospital. Answers A, C and D are done for a client classified as having pneumonia. 100. A 5-month old infant was brought by his mother to the health center because of diarrhea occurring 4 to 5 times a day. His skin goes back slowly after a skin pinch and his eyes are sunken. Using the IMCI guidelines, you will classify this infant in which category? A. No signs of dehydration B. Some dehydration C. Severe dehydration D. The data is insufficient - Correct answer B. Some dehydration Using the assessment guidelines of IMCI, a child (2 months to 5 years old) with diarrhea is classified as having SOME DEHYDRATION if he shows 2 or more of the following signs: restless or irritable, sunken eyes, the skin goes back slow after a skin pinch. 101. Based on the assessment, you classified a 3-month old infant with the chief complaint of diarrhea in the category of SOME DEHYDRATION. Based on the IMCI management guidelines, which of the following will you do? A. Bring the infant to the nearest facility where IV fluids can be given B. Supervise the mother in giving 200 to 400 ml of Oresol in 4 hours C. Give the infant's mother instructions on home management D. Keep the infant in your health center for close observation - Correct answer B. Supervise the mother in giving 200 to 400 ml of Oresol in 4 hours In the IMCI management guidelines, SOME DEHYDRATION is treated with the administration of Oresol within a period of 4 hours. The amount of Oresol is best computed on the basis of the child's weight (75 ml/kg body weight). If the weight is unknown, the amount of Oresol is based on the child's age. 102. A mother is using Oresol' in the management of diarrhea of her 3-year old child. She asked you what to do if her child vomits. You will tell her to: A. Bring the child to the nearest hospital for further assessment B. Bring the child to the health center for IV therapy C. Bring the child to the health center for assessment by the physician D. Let the child rest for 10 minutes then continue giving Oresol more slowly - Correct answer D. Let the child rest for 10 minutes then continue giving Oresol more slowly If the child vomits persistently, that is, he vomits everything that he takes in, he has to be referred urgently to a hospital. Otherwise, vomiting is managed by letting the child rest for 10 minutes and then continuing with Oresol administration. Teach the mother to give Oresol more slowly. 103. A 1 1/2 year old child was classified as having 3rd degree of protein energy malnutrition, kwashjorkor. Which of the following signs will be most apparent in this child? A. Voracious appetite B. Wasting C. Apathy D. Edema - Correct answer D. Edema Edema, a major sign of kwashiorkor, is caused by decreased colloidal osmotic pressure of the blood brought about by hypoalbuminemia. Decreased blood albumin level is due a protein-deficient diet. 104. Assessment of a 2-year old child revealed "baggy pants". Using the IMCI guidelines, how will you manage this child? A. Refer the child urgently to a hospital for confinement B. Coordinate with the social worker to enroll the child in a feeding program C. Make a teaching plan for the mother, focusing on the menu planning for her child D. Assess and treat the child for health problems like infections and intestinal parasitism - Correct answer A. Refer the child urgently to a hospital for confinement "Baggy pants" is a sign of severe marasmus. The best management is urgent referral to a hospital. 105. During the physical examination of a young child, what is the earliest sign of xerophthalmia that may observe? A. Keratomalacia B. Corneal opacity C. Night blindness D. Conjunctival xerosis - Correct answer D. Conjunctival xerosis The earliest sign of Vitamin A deficiency (xerophthalmia) is night blindness. However, this is a functional change, which is not observable during physical examination. The earliest visible lesion is conjunctival xerosis or dullness of the conjunctiva due to inadequate tear production. 106. To prevent xerophthalmia, young children are given Retinol capsule every 6 months. What is the dose given to preschoolers? A. 10, 000 IU B. 20, 000 IU C. 100, 000 IU D. 200, 000 IU - Correct answer D. 200, 000 IU Preschoolers are given Retinol 200,000 IU every 6 months. 100,000 IU is given once to infants aged 6 to 12 months. The dose for pregnant women is 10,000 IU. 107. The major sign of iron deficiency anemia is pallor. What part is best examined for pallor? A. Palms B. Nailbeds D. Ask if the fever is present everyday - Correct answer B. Ask where the family resides Because malaria is endemic, the first question to determine malaria risk is where the client's family resides. If the area of residence is not a known endemic area, ask if the child had traveled within the past 6 months, where he/she was brought and whether he/she stayed overnight in that area. 113. The following are strategies implemented by the DOH to prevent mosquito-borne diseases. Which of these is most effective in the control of Dengue fever? A. Stream seeding with larva-eating fish B. Destroying breeding places of mosquitoes C. Chemoprophylaxis of non-immune persons going to endemic areas D. Teaching people in endemic areas to use chemically treated mosquito nets - Correct answer B. Destroying breeding places of mosquitoes Aedes aegypti, the vector of Dengue fever, breeds in stagnant, clear water. Its feeding time is usually during the daytime. It has a cyclical pattern of occurrence, unlike malaria which is endemic in certain parts of the country. 114. Secondary prevention for malaria includes? A. Planting of neem or eucalyptus trees B. Residual spraying of insecticides at night C. Determining whether a place is endemic or not D. Growing larva-eating fish in mosquito breeding places - Correct answer C. Determining whether a place is endemic or not This is diagnostic and therefore secondary level prevention. The other choices are for primary prevention. 115. Scotch tape swab is done to check for which intestinal parasite? A. Ascaris B. Pinworm C. Hookworm D. Schistosoma - Correct answer B. Pinworm Pinworm ova are deposited around the anal orifice. 116. Which of the following signs indicates the need for sputum examination for AFB? A. Hematemesis B. Fever for 1 week C. Cough for 3 weeks D. Chest pain for 1 week - Correct answer C. Cough for 3 weeks A client is considered a PTB suspect when he has cough for 2 weeks or more, plus one or more of the following signs: fever for 1 month or more; chest pain lasting for 2 weeks or more not attributed to other conditions; progressive, unexplained weight loss; night sweats; and hemoptysis. 117. Which clients are considered targets for DOTS category? A. Sputum negative cavitary cases B. Clients returning after default C. Relapses and failures of previous PTB treatment regimens D. Clients diagnosed for the first time through a positive sputum exam - Correct answer D. Clients diagnosed for the first time through a positive sputum exam Category I is for new clients diagnosed by sputum examination and clients diagnosed to have a serious form of extrapulmonary tuberculosis, such as TB osteomyelitis. 118. To improve compliance to treatment, what innovation is being implemented in DOTS? A. Having the health worker follow up the client at home B. Having the health worker or a responsible family member monitor drug intake C. Having the patient come to the health center every month to get his medications D. Having a target list to check on whether the patient has collected his monthly supply of drugs - Correct answer B. Having the health worker or a responsible family member monitor drug intake Directly Observed Treatment Short Course is so-called because a treatment partner, preferably a health worker accessible to the client, monitors the client's compliance to the treatment. 119. Diagnosis of leprosy is highly dependent on recognition of symptoms. Which of the following is an early sign of leprosy? A. Macular lesions B. Inability to close eyelids C. Thickened painful nerves D. Sinking of the nose bridge - Correct answer C. Thickened painful nerves The lesion of leprosy is not macular. It is characterized by a change in skin color (either reddish or whitish) and loss of sensation, sweating and hair growth over the lesion. Inability to close the eyelids (lagophthalmos) and sinking of the nosebridge are late symptoms. 120. Which of the following clients should be classified as a case of mutibacillary leprosy? A. 3 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear B. 3 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear C. 5 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear 127. In IMCI, severe conditions generally require urgent referral to a hospital. Which of the following severe conditions Does not always require urgent referral to hospital? A. Mastoiditis B. Severe dehydration C. Severe pneumonia D. Severe febrile disease. - Correct answer B. Severe dehydration The order of priority in the management of severe dehydration is as follows: intravenous fluid therapy, referral to a facility where IV fluids can be initiated within 30 minutes, Oresol/nasogastric tube, Oresol/orem. When the foregoing measures are not possible or effective, tehn urgent referral to the hospital is done. 128. A client was diagnosed as having Dengue Fever. You will say that there is slow capillary refill when the color of the nailbed that you pressed does not return within how many seconds? A. 3 B. 5 C. 8 D. 10 - Correct answer A. 3 Adequate blood supply to the area allows the return of the color of the nailbed within 3 seconds. 129. A 3-year old child was brought by his mother to the health center because of fever of 4-day duration. The child had a positive tourniquet test result. In the absence of other signs, which of the most appropriate measure that the PHN may carry out to prevent Dengue shock syndrome? A. Insert an NGT and give fluids per NGT B. Instruct the mother to give the child Oresol C. Start the patient on IV Stat D. Refer the client to the physician for appropriate management - Correct answer B. Instruct the mother to give the child Oresol. Since the child does not manifest any other danger sign, maintenance of fluid balance and replacement of fluid loss may be done by giving the client Oresol 130. The pathognomonic sign of measles is Koplik's spot. You may see Koplik's spot by inspecting the: A. Nasal Mucosa B. Buccal mucosa C. Skin on the abdomen D. Skin on the antecubital surface - Correct answer B. Buccal mucosa Koplik's spot may be seen on the mucosa of the mouth or the throat. 131. Among the following diseases, which is airborne? A. Viral conjunctivitis B. Acute poliomyelitis C. Diphtheria D. Measles - Correct answer D. Measles Viral conjunctivitis is transmitted by direct or indirect contact with discharges from infected eyes. Acute poliomyelitis is spread through the fecal-oral route and contact with throat secretions, whereas diphtheria is through direct and indirect contact with respiratory secretions. 132. Among children aged 2 months to 3 years, the most prevalent form of meningitis is caused by which microorganism? A. Hemophilus Influenzae B. Morbillivirus C. Streptococcus PneumoniaeD . Neisseria meningitides - Correct answer A. Hemophilus Influenzae Hemophilus meningitis is unusual over the age of 5 years. In developing countries, the peak incidence is in children less than 6 months of age. Morbillivirus is the etiology of measles. Streptococcus pneumoniae and Neisseria meningitidis may cause meningitis, but age distribution is not specific in young children. 133. Human beings are the major reservoir of malaria. Which of the following strategies in malaria control is based on this fact? A. Stream seeding B. Stream clearingC. Destruction of breeding placesD. Zooprophylaxis - Correct answer D. Zooprophylaxis Zooprophylaxis is done by putting animals like cattle or dogs close to windows or doorways just before nightfall. The Anopheles mosquito takes his blood meal from the animal and goes back to its breeding place, thereby preventing infection of humans. 134. The use of larvivorous fish in malaria control is the basis for which strategy of malaria control? A. Stream seeding B. Stream clearing C. Destruction of breeding places D. Zooprophylaxis . - Correct answer A. Stream seeding Stream seeding is done by putting tilapia fry in streams or other bodies of water identified as breeding places of the Anopheles mosquito. 135. Mosquito-borne diseases are prevented mostly with the use of mosquito control measures. Which of the following is NOT appropriate for malaria control? A. Use of chemically treated mosquito nets B. Seeding of breeding places with larva-eating fish C. Destruction of breeding places of the mosquito vector D. Use of mosquito-repelling soaps, such as those with basil or citronella - Correct answer C. Destruction of breeding places of the mosquito vector C. Avoiding sexual contact with commercial sex workers D. Making sure that one's sexual partner does not have signs of AIDS - Correct answer A. Being faithful to a single sexual partner Sexual fidelity rules out the possibility of getting the disease by sexual contact with another infected person. Transmission occurs mostly through sexual intercourse and exposure to blood or tissues. 142. The most frequent causes of death among clients with AIDS are opportunistic diseases. Which of the following opportunistic infections is characterized by tonsilllopharyngitis? A. Respiratory candidiasis B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Cytomegalovirus disease D. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia - Correct answer B. Infectious mononucleosis Cytomegalovirus disease is an acute viral disease characterized by fever, sore throat and lymphadenopathy 143. To determine the possible sources of sexually transmitted infections, which is the BEST method that may be undertaken by the public health nurse? A. Contact tracing B. Community survey C. Mass screening tests D. Interview suspects - Correct answer A. Contact tracing Contact tracing is the most practical and reliable method of finding possible sources of person-to-person transmitted infections, such as sexually transmitted diseases. 144. Antiretroviral agents, such as AZT are used in the management of AIDS. Which of the following is not an action expected of these drugs? A. They prolong the life of the client with AIDS B. They reduce the risk of opportunistic infections C. They shorten the period of communicability of the disease D. They are able to bring about a cure of the disease condition - Correct answer D. They are able to bring about a cure of the disease condition There is no known treatment for AIDS. Antiretroviral agents reduce the risk of opportunistic infections and prolong life, but does not cure the underlying immunodeficiency 145. A barangay had an outbreak of German measles. To prevent congenital rubella, what is the BEST advice that you can give to women in the first trimester of pregnancy in the barangay? a. Advice them on the sign of German Measles b. Avoid crowded places, such as markets and moviehouses c. Consult at the health center where rubella vaccine may be given d. Consult a physician who may give them rubella immunoglobulin - Correct answer d. Consult a physician who may give them rubella immunoglobulin Rubella vaccine is made up of attenuated German measles viruses. This is contraindicated in pregnancy. Immune globulin, a specific prophylactic against German measles, may be given to pregnant women.