CompTIA PK0-005 Exam Questions (2024) - Achieve PK0-005 Exam Success with Ease, Exams of Vocational education

Download CompTIA PK0-005 Exam Questions (2024) - Achieve PK0-005 Exam Success with Ease and more Exams Vocational education in PDF only on Docsity! COMPTIA PROJECT+ Exam PK0-005 Questions V11.02 CompTIA Project+ Topics - CompTIA Project+Certification 1 / 56 Com pT IA P K0- 00 5 Exa m Q ue st io ns (2 02 4) - Ach ie ve P K0- 00 5 Exa m S uc ce ss w ith E as e 1.A PM has identified all the resources involved in a project. The next step is to identify which resources are responsible for which tasks. Which of the following should be used to document this information? A. RFI B. RACI C. WBS D. SOW Answer: B Explanation: The RACI (Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed) matrix is used to document which resources are responsible for which tasks. The RACI matrix is a tool that helps to clarify roles and responsibilities on a project. It assigns a level of responsibility to each resource involved in the project. Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 3.4. The project manager should use a RACI matrix to document which resources are responsible for which tasks. A RACI matrix is a type of responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) that plots the roles and responsibilities of reso rces on a project team. RACI stands for Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed. A RACI matrix can help to clarify who does what on a project, avoid confusion and duplication of work, and improve communication and collaboration among team members. 2.A development team, which is working on a software project demonstrates software functionality 10 project stakeholder a week before the implementation date. Several stakeholders comment that the software does not meet the communicated expectations. Which of the following tools should the project manager use to validate the functionality? A. Project status report B. Requirements Traceability Matrix C. Detect log D. Signed project charter E. Work breakdown structure Answer: A 3.When introducing a new information asset, what is the MOST important responsibility of the asset owner? A. Information disposal B. Information classification C. Information access administration D. Information backup Answer: B 2 / 56 Com pT IA P K0- 00 5 Exa m Q ue st io ns (2 02 4) - Ach ie ve P K0- 00 5 Exa m S uc ce ss w ith E as e Answer: A Explanation: The number of items in the backlog can be determined by looking at the "Commitment" column for each sprint in the provided chart. For Sprint 5, there is a commitment of completing 23 items, which is the highest among all sprints. This indicates that there are at least 23 items in the backlog to be worked on. This is consistent with the concept of agile project management, which allows for changes and additions to the project scope based on customer feedback and changing requirements. Reference = CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 14: Agile Project Management, page 321. CompTIA Project+ Cert Guide: Exam PK0-004, Chapter 9: Agile Project Management, page 287 6.A project team is working on a document to precisely describe the success criteria that should be fulfilled by a product. Which of the following documents is the team preparing? A. Project scope B. Quality plan C. Contract obligations D. Work breakdown structure Answer: A Explanation: The project scope is the document that defines and describes the project objectives, deliverables, requirements, boundaries, assumptions, and constraints. It also includes the success criteria that should be fulfilled by the product or service to meet the stakeholder expectations and the business case. The success criteria are the measurable standards that indicate whether the project has achieved its intended results. The other options are not correct because: A quality plan is the document that defines and describes the quality standards, policies, procedures, tools, and techniques that will be applied to the project to ensure that the deliverables meet the requirements and the success criteria. Contract obligations are the terms and conditions that bind the parties involved in a contractual agreement, such as the project manager, the customer, the sponsor, and the vendor. Contract obligations specify the roles, responsibilities, deliverables, payments, and penalties of each party. A work breakdown structure (WBS) is a graphical representation of the project scope that breaks down the deliverables into smaller and manageable components. A WBS shows the hierarchy and relationship of the project elements, but does not include the success criteria. Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 6: Planning Projects, Part 2 (Scope, Quality, and Risk), pages 175-179; CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2: Project Planning, Objective 2.1: Given a scenario, create a project charter and project management plan. 5 / 56 Com pT IA P K0- 00 5 Exa m Q ue st io ns (2 02 4) - Ach ie ve P K0- 00 5 Exa m S uc ce ss w ith E as e 7.A key stakeholder recommends to a senior developer that a new feature be added. The new feature is not part of the current requirement documentation. Which of the following is MOST likely happening? A. Scope creep B. Collecting requirements C. Decision-making D. Project change Answer: A Explanation: Scope creep is most likely happening when a key stakeholder recommends to a senior developer that a new feature be added that is not part of the current requirement documentation. Scope creep is a term that refers to the uncontrolled expansion or change of a project's scope beyond its original boundaries or objectives. Scope creep can happen due to various reasons, such as changing customer demands, unclear or incomplete requirements, poor communication, lack of change control, or stakeholder interference. Scope creep can have negative impacts on a project, such as delays, cost overruns, quality issues, or reduced customer satisfaction12 8.A financial manager reports that several employees' allocations from the past month appear to be 200% even though they are only assigned to a particular project. Which of the following could MOST likely be the cause of this issue? A. A project manager assigned the wrong resources. B. A project manager did not release the resources C. A project manager did not remove the system access. D. A project manager did not provide the project sign-off. Answer: B Explanation: A project manager did not release the resources. A project manager not releasing the resources could most likely be the cause of this issue where several employees' allocations from the past month appear to be 200% even though they are only assigned to a particular project. Releasing resources is a process of freeing up or reallocating any human or material resources that were used for a project after its completion or closure. Releasing resources can help to update the resource availability and utilization records and avoid any conflicts or errors in resource allocation or reporting. 9.During quality analysis, different team members are identifying multiple constraints. Which of 6 / 56 Com pT IA P K0- 00 5 Exa m Q ue st io ns (2 02 4) - Ach ie ve P K0- 00 5 Exa m S uc ce ss w ith E as e the following tools should the project manager adopt first to help track and prioritize a resolution? A. Issue log B. Defect log C. Risk register D. Change log Answer: A Explanation: An issue log is a tool that records and tracks any issues that arise during the project. It helps the project manager to identify, prioritize, assign, monitor, and resolve the issues in a timely manner. An issue log can also include information such as the issue description, impact, status, owner, and resolution date1. An issue log is different from a defect log, which records and tracks the defects or errors in the project deliverables. A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the potential risks that may affect the project objectives. A change log is a tool that records and tracks the changes that are made to the project scope, schedule, budget, or quality2. 10.A project manager wants to schedule a troubleshooting session for team members who are located in Germany and California. Which of the following is most important for the project manager to consider when setting up the session? A. Cultural differences B. Technological factors C. Time zones D. Language barriers Answer: C Explanation: Time zones are the most important factor to consider when setting up a troubleshooting session for team members who are located in different regions of the world. The project manager should ensure that the session is scheduled at a convenient and reasonable time for all participants, and avoid scheduling conflicts or communication delays. Time zones can also affect the availability and responsiveness of stakeholders, vendors, and customers1. 11.A project manager is assigned an initiative in a highly regulated industry that requires employees to safeguard certain pieces of PII. Which of the following is the best approach for the project manager to keep the information confidential? A. Encryption B. Multifactor authentication C. Quality assurance 7 / 56 Com pT IA P K0- 00 5 Exa m Q ue st io ns (2 02 4) - Ach ie ve P K0- 00 5 Exa m S uc ce ss w ith E as e budget, quality, or stakeholder expectations34. The PM should not rely solely on the previous PM's advice, the project sponsor's report, or the project charter, as these sources may not provide enough detail or accuracy for the current project's scope statement. Reference = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide5, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives6, How to Use Historical Information in Project Management1, How to Use Lessons Learned to Improve Project Management2, How to Define Project Success Criteria3, How to Use Existing Artifacts in Project Management4 16.Which of the following pieces of data are examples of Pll? A. Medical record and test result values B. IP address and email address C. Name and year of birth D. X-ray and blood type Answer: B Explanation: Pll stands for personally identifiable information, which is any data that can be used to identify a specific individual. Examples of Pll include name, address, phone number, email address, social security number, passport number, driver's license number, etc. IP address and email address are both Pll because they can be used to trace the identity and location of a person. Medical record and test result values, name and year of birth, and x-ray and blood type are not Pll by themselves, but they can become Pll if they are combined with other data that can link them to a specific individual. Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 10: Project Security, page 331. CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 4: Project Security, Objective 4.1: Given a scenario, apply security best practices to a project, Sub-objective: Identify and classify Pll. 17.Which of the following criteria would favor using the agile methodology to manage an upcoming project? A. Strong projectized organization B. Medium risk C. Lack of resources D. Multiple undefined tasks Answer: D Explanation: Multiple undefined tasks would favor using the agile methodology to manage an upcoming project. Agile methodology is a project management framework that breaks projects down into several dynamic phases, commonly known as sprints. Agile 10 / 56 Com pT IA P K0- 00 5 Exa m Q ue st io ns (2 02 4) - Ach ie ve P K0- 00 5 Exa m S uc ce ss w ith E as e methodology is an iterative and adaptive approach that allows teams to respond to changing requirements and customer feedback quickly and effectively. Agile methodology is suitable for projects that have multiple undefined tasks, as it enables teams to prioritize and deliver the most valuable features first, and refine and improve them over time based on user input and testing12 18.After determining the appropriate maintenance window, which of the following should occur NEXT in the operational infrastructure change process? A. Implement the change. B. Approve the test plan. C. Notify customers. D. Develop a rollback plan. Answer: D Explanation: The project manager should develop a rollback plan next after determining the appropriate maintenance window in the operational infrastructure change process. A rollback plan is a contingency plan that describes how to revert to the previous state of the system or infrastructure in case of a failure or disruption during the change implementation. A rollback plan can help to minimize the impact and risk of the change and ensure business continuity and stability. 19.Which of the following best describes a manufacturer's obligation to repair or change, without extra costs, any part of a product that is not functioning? A. Service-level agreement B. Functional testing C. Warranty period D. Audit Answer: C Explanation: A warranty period is the time during which a manufacturer or seller agrees to repair or replace a product that is defective or does not meet the specified standards. A warranty period can be expressed in terms of duration (e.g., one year) or usage (e.g., 10,000 miles). A warranty period is a form of consumer protection that obliges the manufacturer or seller to bear the costs of repairing or changing any part of the product that is not functioning properly1. 20.After a migration was completed and a financial system was deployed, users have been unable to issue payment orders. Which of the following should be implemented? A. Rollback plan 11 / 56 Com pT IA P K0- 00 5 Exa m Q ue st io ns (2 02 4) - Ach ie ve P K0- 00 5 Exa m S uc ce ss w ith E as e B. Release plan C. Deployment plan D. Contingency plan Answer: A Explanation: A rollback plan is a part of the project management plan that defines how to revert the system to its previous state or baseline if the change or migration fails or causes unacceptable impacts1. A rollback plan is different from a contingency plan, which is a plan to deal with a specific risk event that may or may not occur2. A release plan and a deployment plan are not relevant to the scenario, as they are used to plan and execute the delivery and installation of the system, not to undo them. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Rollback plan. 21.A project manager does not have the power to reward team members when they accomplish something or penalize them when they fail to perform well. As a result, the project manager is having issues with team members. Which of the following describes this organizational structure? A. Flat B. Projectized C. Weak matrix D. Functional Answer: C Explanation: A weak matrix organizational structure is one where the project manager has low authority and the functional manager has high authority. The project manager is considered to be a coordinator or an escalator, and the team members are primarily loyal to their functional units. This can cause issues with team motivation, communication, and performance1 22.A project manager queries stakeholders to identify the right communication channel to be used during the project life cycle. After reviewing the responses, the project manager reports that 70% of the stakeholders prefer email communication, and the rest prefer face-to-face communication. The project manager should update the stakeholder register with: A. the preferred sponsor's communication channel. B. the preferred project manager's communication channel. C. the preferred reported communication channel. D. email communication as the preferred communication channel. Answer: C Explanation: This answer is based on the best practice of stakeholder management, which is to 12 / 56 Com pT IA P K0- 00 5 Exa m Q ue st io ns (2 02 4) - Ach ie ve P K0- 00 5 Exa m S uc ce ss w ith E as e different configurations so as to encourage an amicable solution. Answer: D Explanation: This answer is based on the best practice of conflict resolution in project management, which is to use a collaborative or problem-solving approach that seeks a win-win outcome for all parties involved12. By facilitating a meeting, the project manager can help the team members communicate effectively, understand each other's perspectives, and find a mutually acceptable solution that meets the project requirements. This way, the project manager can also maintain team morale and cohesion, and avoid imposing a decision that may cause resentment or dissatisfaction among the team members3. Reference = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide4, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives5, How Do You Handle Conflict in Project Management?1, 7 Strategies for Conflict Resolution in Project Management2, The Conflict Resolution Skills Every Project Manager Needs3 27.During the project initiation phase, a project team has been identified. Which of the following is the NEXT step for the project manager? A. Determine budget constraints. B. Validate the business case. C. Update the project charter. D. Create a project schedule Answer: C Explanation: Update the project charter. Updating the project charter would be the next step for the project manager after identifying the project team during the project initiation phase. A project charter is a document that formally authorizes a project and defines its purpose, scope, objectives, deliverables, milestones, roles and responsibilities, assumptions, constraints, risks, budget, and timeline. A project charter can help to align the expectations and interests of all stakeholders involved in a project and provide direction and guidance for planning and executing the project. 28.A risk management team for a software project decided to outsource the development of a specific portion of a system due to a lack of internal resources. Which of the following risk responses does this demonstrate? A. Avoid B. Transfer C. Accept D. Share Answer: B Explanation: 15 / 56 Com pT IA P K0- 00 5 Exa m Q ue st io ns (2 02 4) - Ach ie ve P K0- 00 5 Exa m S uc ce ss w ith E as e Outsourcing the development of a system component due to a lack of internal resources is a risk response strategy known as 'transfer.' This approach shifts the risk to a third party who will now be responsible for managing that portion of the project. It is commonly used when an organization does not have the expertise or capacity to handle specific risks internally. Reference = The answer is based on standard project management practices and the typical use of risk response strategies in the field. For detailed information, please refer to the CompTIA Project+ Study Guide and other official CompTIA resources. 29.A client provides a project plan to the assigned project manager and suggests that the project manager and team just need to execute the plan. Upon further investigation, the document contains: * Purpose * Scope of work * Location of work * Period of performance * Deliverables schedule * Applicable standards * Acceptance criteria * Special requirements * Payment schedule Which of the following documents did the client provide to the project manager? A. RFP B. WBS C. SLA D. SOW Answer: D Explanation: The client provided a statement of work (SOW) to the project manager and suggested that the project manager and team just need to execute the plan. A SOW is a document that defines the scope, deliverables, schedule, and terms and conditions of a project or contract. A SOW typically includes information such as purpose, scope of work, location of work, period of performance, deliverables schedule, applicable standards, acceptance criteria, special requirements, and payment schedule. A SOW can help to establish a common understanding and agreement between the client and the service provider on what needs to be done and how it will be done. 30.Government projects require that personnel submit to background screenings for certain clearance requirements. Which of the following best describes this process? A. Data security 16 / 56 Com pT IA P K0- 00 5 Exa m Q ue st io ns (2 02 4) - Ach ie ve P K0- 00 5 Exa m S uc ce ss w ith E as e B. Operational security C. Physical security D. Digital security Answer: B Explanation: Operational security is the process of identifying, protecting, and controlling sensitive information and activities from unauthorized access or disclosure. Operational security includes background screenings for personnel who need to access classified or restricted information or resources, as well as implementing policies and procedures to prevent leaks, breaches, or espionage. Operational security is essential for government projects that involve national security, defense, intelligence, or law enforcement. Operational security is different from data security, which is the process of safeguarding data from unauthorized access, use, modification, or destruction. Data security includes encryption, authentication, authorization, backup, and recovery of data. Operational security is also different from physical security, which is the process of securing physical assets, such as equipment, data, or personnel, from unauthorized access or damage. Physical security includes locks, alarms, cameras, guards, and fences. Operational security is also different from digital security, which is the process of protecting digital devices, networks, and systems from cyberattacks, malware, or hacking. Digital security includes firewalls, antivirus, VPN, and passwords. Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 9: Security Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 9: Security Management2; What is Operational Security (OPSEC)?3 31.A project manager reports that the implementation of a new system is on track to be completed under budget and ahead of the schedule. A stakeholder then asks the manager to add mobile device functionality. Which of the following should the project manager do in response to the request? A. Decline because it is not included in the project scope. B. Assess the impact of the request and create a change request C. Create new functional and non-functional requirements for mobile devices. D. Revise the baseline of the project plan by adding the new requirements. Answer: B Explanation: Assess the impact of the request and create a change request. The project manager should assess the impact of the request and create a change request in response to the stakeholder asking to add mobile device functionality to a project that is on track to be completed under budget and ahead of schedule. A change request is a document that formally proposes and records a modification or addition to some aspect of a project, such as scope, schedule, cost, quality, or resources. A change 17 / 56 Com pT IA P K0- 00 5 Exa m Q ue st io ns (2 02 4) - Ach ie ve P K0- 00 5 Exa m S uc ce ss w ith E as e 35.Which of the following items must be protected as Pll? (Select TWO). A. Job title B. Home address C. Work phone number D. Time zone E. Date of birth F. Blood type Answer: B,E Explanation: Home address and date of birth must be protected as personally identifiable information (PII). PII is any information that can be used to identify, contact, or locate an individual person, either alone or in combination with other sources. PII can include information such as name, email address, phone number, social security number, passport number, driver's license number, bank account number, credit card number, biometric data, medical records, etc. PII must be protected from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction to prevent identity theft, fraud, or other malicious activities that may harm the individual's privacy or security. 36.An opportunity emerged in the middle of a project life cycle. Which of the following is the BEST action for t e project manager to take? A. Exploit the risk. B. Accept the risk. C. Avoid the risk. D. Transfer the risk. Answer: A Explanation: The project manager should exploit the risk after an opportunity emerged in the middle of a project life cycle. Exploit is a risk response strategy that aims to increase the probability and/or impact of a positive risk or opportunity. Exploit can involve actions such as allocating more resources, changing the scope or schedule, or adding more features or benefits to the project deliverables. Exploit can help to ensure that the opportunity is realized and that the project gains more value or advantage from it3 37.After new capabilities were deployed in a system, issues with preexisting capabilities were reported. Which of the following testing cycles should be used to prevent this issue? A. Performance testing B. User acceptance testing C. Stress testing D. Unit testing 20 / 56 Com pT IA P K0- 00 5 Exa m Q ue st io ns (2 02 4) - Ach ie ve P K0- 00 5 Exa m S uc ce ss w ith E as e Answer: D Explanation: Unit testing is a testing technique that verifies the functionality and quality of individual units or components of software, such as modules, classes, functions, etc. Unit testing can help prevent issues with preexisting capabilities by detecting and fixing errors at an early stage of development, before they affect the integration and system testing. Unit testing can also ensure that new capabilities do not break or interfere with the existing ones, by checking the compatibility and dependencies of the units. Unit testing can be performed by developers using tools and frameworks that automate the process and generate reports. Reference = CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 10: Project Quality Management; CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3: Project Execution, Objective 3.2: Execute quality management activities. 38.A contractor attended a project meeting that was exclusively for company employees. Which of the following actions should the PM take? A. Escalate to vendor management. B. Consult the request for proposal. C. Review the meeting cadence. D. Reinforce the rules of engagement. Answer: D Explanation: The rules of engagement are the guidelines and expectations that define the relationship between the contractor and the company. They may include topics such as communication, confidentiality, access, security, performance, and compliance. The project manager should reinforce the rules of engagement with the contractor to ensure that they understand and respect the boundaries and protocols of the company. This will help to avoid any potential conflicts, misunderstandings, or breaches of contract. Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 7: Project Stakeholder Management, p. 239; Contractor Rules of Engagement - Cox Enterprises, p. 1; Legal Considerations for Engaging Contractors | LegalVision 39.A developer recommends modifying an existing portion of code that is not part of the scope and is causing low performance on the current solution. Which of the following actions should the project manager most likely take? A. Ask a developer to create a change request. B. Do nothing because recommendation is scope creep. C. Ask a developer to implement the recommendation. D. Communicate the change status. 21 / 56 Com pT IA P K0- 00 5 Exa m Q ue st io ns (2 02 4) - Ach ie ve P K0- 00 5 Exa m S uc ce ss w ith E as e Answer: A Explanation: The project manager should ask the developer to create a change request, which is a formal document that describes the proposed change, its benefits, costs, risks, and impacts on the project scope, schedule, budget, and quality. A change request is the first step in the change control process, which involves evaluating, approving, or rejecting changes to the project baselines. The project manager should not do nothing, because ignoring the recommendation could result in poor performance and customer dissatisfaction. The project manager should not ask the developer to implement the recommendation without following the change control process, because that could cause scope creep, which is the uncontrolled expansion of the project scope without proper authorization or adjustment of the project resources and objectives. The project manager should not communicate the change status before the change request is submitted and approved, because that could create confusion and false expectations among the project stakeholders. Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Project Integration Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Project Integration Management2; What is a Change Request and How to Manage It3 40.Because the project team lacks hands-on experience, the project manager has decided to involve a third-party vendor to complete the development of a product. Which of the following documents should the project manager expedite first? A. RFI B. RFP C. RFQ D. RFB Answer: B Explanation: When a project team lacks hands-on experience and decides to involve a third-party vendor for product development, the first document to expedite is a Request for Proposal (RFP). An RFP outlines the project requirements and asks potential vendors to submit proposals detailing how they would meet those requirements and at what cost. This allows the project manager to evaluate the capabilities and offerings of different vendors before making a decision. Reference = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide (PK0-005) 41.A project manager has decided to outsource portions of a project and will conduct a separate procurement. In which of the following phases does this task occur? A. Planning B. Initiating 22 / 56 Com pT IA P K0- 00 5 Exa m Q ue st io ns (2 02 4) - Ach ie ve P K0- 00 5 Exa m S uc ce ss w ith E as e Reference = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide (PK0-005) 44.During the execution phase, a new PM was assigned to a project. The PM received a request to add new functionality to the system that is being developed. While the PM was conducting a preliminary review with the team, the technical lead highlighted that this functionality request was rejected during the planning phase. Which of the following documents is the best source for the PM to use to confirm this assertion? A. Issue log B. Scope statement C. Risk report D. Change log Answer: D Explanation: A change log is a document that records and tracks the changes that are made to the project scope, schedule, budget, or quality. It helps the project manager to monitor and control the project performance and ensure that the changes are aligned with the project objectives and stakeholders' expectations. A change log can also include information such as the change description, impact, status, approval, and date. A change log is the best source for the PM to use to confirm the assertion that the functionality request was rejected during the planning phase, as it would show the details and reasons for the rejection12. 45.Which of the following activities are important parts of the closing phase? (Select two). A. Releasing resources B. Locking risks C. Updating stakeholder register D. Closing contracts E. Completing the work breakdown structure F. Negotiating the next project Answer: A,B Explanation: These are two of the key activities in the closing phase, as they involve finalizing the use of resources and resolving any remaining risks that may affect the project performance or quality. Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide1, Chapter 12: Closing Phase Activities 46.A project manager has been very diligent in maintaining the version control for the documentation of requirements. 25 / 56 Com pT IA P K0- 00 5 Exa m Q ue st io ns (2 02 4) - Ach ie ve P K0- 00 5 Exa m S uc ce ss w ith E as e Which of the following tools is the project manager using? A. Multiauthoring software B. Word processor C. Real-time polling D. Conferencing platforms Answer: A Explanation: The project manager is using multiauthoring software to maintain the version control for the documentation of requirements. Multiauthoring software is a type of software that allows multiple users to create, edit, and collaborate on documents simultaneously. It also provides features such as tracking changes, commenting, reviewing, and merging versions. Multiauthoring software can help to improve the quality, accuracy, and consistency of documents and facilitate communication and feedback among stakeholders. Examples of multiauthoring software include Google Docs, Microsoft Word Online, and Confluence34 47.A project manager prefers to have immediate contact with team members because it allows for faster response times and more interactive discussions. Which of the following communication methods should the project manager use? A. Synchronous B. Informal C. Asynchronous D. Formal Answer: A Explanation: The project manager should use synchronous communication methods if they prefer to have immediate contact with team members. Synchronous communication is a type of communication that occurs in real time and allows for faster response times and more interactive discussions. Examples of synchronous communication methods include phone calls, video conferences, instant messaging, and face-to-face meetings. Synchronous communication can help to build rapport, clarify doubts, and resolve issues quickly among team members. Synchronous communication should be used when the project manager prefers to have immediate contact with team members. Synchronous communication allows for real-time interaction and feedback, enabling faster response times and more interactive discussions. Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 3.1.3 48.Which of the following is a consideration when determining a project's ESG factors? A. Project management methodology 26 / 56 Com pT IA P K0- 00 5 Exa m Q ue st io ns (2 02 4) - Ach ie ve P K0- 00 5 Exa m S uc ce ss w ith E as e B. IT infrastructure security C. Proper accounting practices D. Corporate values compliance Answer: D Explanation: Corporate values compliance is a consideration when determining a project's ESG factors, because it reflects how a project aligns with the ethical standards and social responsibility of the organization. Corporate values compliance can help to enhance the reputation, trust, and loyalty of the organization among its stakeholders, as well as to avoid legal or regulatory issues that may arise from violating the values. Corporate values compliance can also influence the project scope, objectives, deliverables, and stakeholders, as well as the project management methodology, processes, and practices. The other options are not directly related to ESG factors. Project management methodology is the approach or framework that guides how a project is planned, executed, monitored, and controlled. IT infrastructure security is the protection of the hardware, software, network, and data components of a project from unauthorized access, use, modification, or destruction. Proper accounting practices are the rules and standards that govern how financial transactions and statements are recorded, reported, and audited for a project. Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Project Scope Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Project Scope Management2; What Is Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) Investing 49.A project manager, who finished a project some time ago, keeps receiving questions from another project manager who is currently leading a similar project. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this situation? A. The retrospective session feedback was not communicated properly. B. The project resources were released ahead of time. C. The documentation was not archived as per the PMO standards. D. The validation of deliverables is running behind schedule. Answer: C Explanation: Archiving project documentation is an important process to ensure that the project information is stored, retrieved, and updated in a consistent and efficient manner1. It also helps to meet legal requirements, enable long-term analysis, and support new projects and team members1. If the documentation was not archived as per the PMO standards, it would be difficult for the current project manager to find the relevant documents and learn from the previous project. This would cause the current project manager to keep asking questions to the previous project manager, who may not have all the answers or may not be available. Therefore, the most likely cause of this 27 / 56 Com pT IA P K0- 00 5 Exa m Q ue st io ns (2 02 4) - Ach ie ve P K0- 00 5 Exa m S uc ce ss w ith E as e with the business strategy and stakeholder expectations. A gate review can have different outcomes, such as go, kill, hold, recycle, or conditional go, depending on the assessment of the project status and viability123. Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 9: Project Change Management, p. 323; Everything Project Managers Need To Know About Gate Reviews | monday.com Blog; Gate reviews: What to do and why you need them - Rebel's Guide to Project Management; Gates and How to Operate Them - GenSight 54.During the planning phase, a PM reviews the SOW from the contractor, grades the full-time equivalents' resumes, evaluates the titles and salaries, and estimates the number of hours for each milestone by full-time equivalents. The PM is most likely: A. negotiating resources. B. assigning resources. C. assessing the resource pool. D. adding resources to the schedule. Answer: C Explanation: Assessing the resource pool is the process of identifying and evaluating the availability, skills, and costs of the resources needed for the project. The PM reviews the SOW from the contractor to understand the scope and requirements of the project, grades the full-time equivalents' resumes to determine their qualifications and suitability for the project, evaluates the titles and salaries to estimate the budget and allocation of the resources, and estimates the number of hours for each milestone by full-time equivalents to plan the schedule and workload of the project12. 55.Following the approval of a change by the CCB, which of the following should a project manager consider next when deploying a new networking device into an existing production environment? A. Maintenance window B. Risk assessment C. Operational security D. Validation check Answer: A Explanation: A maintenance window is a predefined period of time during which planned changes or updates can be performed on a system or network with minimal impact on the users or business operations1. A project manager should consider the maintenance window next when deploying a new networking device into an existing production 30 / 56 Com pT IA P K0- 00 5 Exa m Q ue st io ns (2 02 4) - Ach ie ve P K0- 00 5 Exa m S uc ce ss w ith E as e environment, as it will help to reduce the risk of downtime, disruption, or errors. A maintenance window should be scheduled in advance, communicated to the stakeholders, and aligned with the change management plan2. 56.When creating a project schedule, a project manager adds activities with zero duration. Which of the following describes these types of activities? A. Critical paths B. Resources C. Milestones D. Work breakdown structures Answer: C Explanation: Milestones are activities with zero duration that are added to a project schedule by a project manager. Milestones are significant events or achievements in a project that mark the completion of a phase, deliverable, or task. Milestones can help to track and measure the progress and performance of a project and communicate it to stakeholders. 57.Which of the following is the best example of a breach of physical security? A. System user IDs being used by multiple individuals B. Printers that do not request user authentication C. Developers having full access to both development and production environments D. Project documentation that is only kept on a removable device Answer: D Explanation: A breach of physical security is an unauthorized access or damage to physical assets, such as equipment, data, or personnel. Project documentation that is only kept on a removable device is the best example of a breach of physical security, because it exposes sensitive information to theft, loss, or corruption. If the removable device is not encrypted or protected, anyone who obtains it can access the project documentation and compromise the project integrity, confidentiality, or availability. Therefore, project documentation should be stored in a secure location, backed up regularly, and protected by access controls and encryption. The other options are not examples of physical security breaches, but rather logical or administrative security breaches. System user IDs being used by multiple individuals is a violation of the principle of least privilege and accountability, which could lead to unauthorized access or misuse of system resources. Printers that do not request user authentication is a lack of proper access control, which could allow unauthorized printing or retrieval of confidential documents. Developers having full access to both development and production environments is a violation of the principle of separation 31 / 56 Com pT IA P K0- 00 5 Exa m Q ue st io ns (2 02 4) - Ach ie ve P K0- 00 5 Exa m S uc ce ss w ith E as e of duties and environments, which could introduce errors, conflicts, or malicious code into the production system. Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 9: Security Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 9: Security Management2; Types of Security Breaches: Physical and Digital3 58.An software engineer is applying new updates to a program in a sandbox environment. Which of the following risk strategies best describes this practice? A. Transfer B. Mitigate C. Avoid D. Accept Answer: B Explanation: Mitigate is a risk strategy that involves taking actions to reduce the probability or impact of a risk. By applying new updates to a program in a sandbox environment, the software engineer is testing the changes before implementing them in the actual system, thus minimizing the chance of errors or failures that could affect the project1. 59.Which of the following requires the MOST availability from the business team? A. SDLC B. Scrum C. PRINCE2 D. Waterfall Answer: B Explanation: Scrum requires the most availability from the business team among the given options. Scrum is a popular agile framework that organizes work into short iterations called sprints, usually lasting one to four weeks. Scrum emphasizes collaboration between teams, customers, and stakeholders and encourages open communication and transparency throughout the project lifecycle. Scrum requires frequent involvement and feedback from the business team through activities such as product backlog refinement, sprint planning, sprint review, sprint retrospective, and daily scrum meetings. 60.Which of the following software programs would be BEST to use lo store information related to business transactions? A. Record management system B. Customer relationship management 32 / 56 Com pT IA P K0- 00 5 Exa m Q ue st io ns (2 02 4) - Ach ie ve P K0- 00 5 Exa m S uc ce ss w ith E as e B. Distribute an agenda. C. Email the minutes from the previous meeting. D. Schedule a convenient time. Answer: B Explanation: The project manager should distribute an agenda before a call to ensure all meeting items are addressed and the correct participants attend. An agenda is a document that outlines the purpose, topics, and objectives of a meeting. It also includes information such as date, time, duration, location, attendees, and roles. Distributing an agenda can help to prepare the participants for the meeting, set clear expectations, and facilitate a productive and focused discussion12 64.Which of the following BEST describes how an organization should coordinate management of multiple related projects? A. Apply the SDLC process. B. Establish a program. C. Consult the CCB. D. Use different frameworks Answer: B Explanation: The BEST way to coordinate management of multiple related projects is to establish a program. A program is a group of related projects that are managed together to achieve specific strategic business objectives. Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 2.2.1 The organization should establish a program to coordinate management of multiple related projects. A program is a group of related projects, subprograms, and program activities that are managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits and control not available from managing them individually. A program can help to align multiple projects with strategic goals, optimize resources and risks, and deliver value to stakeholders. 65.During the testing phase of a project, the legal department rejected a deliverable due to compliance issues. The project manager reviewed the risk register and triggered the mitigation plan for this item. Which of the following documents should the project manager update next? A. Schedule B. Status report C. Issue log D. Task board Answer: C Explanation: An issue log is a document that records and tracks any issues that arise during a 35 / 56 Com pT IA P K0- 00 5 Exa m Q ue st io ns (2 02 4) - Ach ie ve P K0- 00 5 Exa m S uc ce ss w ith E as e project and how they are resolved1. It is different from a risk register, which records and tracks potential risks that may or may not occur during a project2. When a risk becomes an issue, it means that it has occurred and has a negative impact on the project. Therefore, the project manager should update the issue log next to document the compliance issue, its cause, its impact, its priority, its owner, and its resolution status3. Updating the issue log will help the project manager communicate the issue to the stakeholders, monitor the progress of the mitigation plan, and prevent similar issues from happening again4. Reference = CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 11: Executing Projects Part 2, page 331; Project Risk Mitigation Guide + Starter Kit | Smartsheet, Risk Register section; How to Make a Risk Management Plan (Template Included) - ProjectManager, Risk Register section; Issue Log - Project Management Knowledge, Introduction section; Issue Log Template: Free Download | ProjectManager, Introduction and How to Use an Issue Log sections. 66.While working in a collaborative, online brainstorming session, team members send private messages to the facilitator about challenges understanding others when they are speaking due to accents and background noises. Which of the following should the facilitator do to overcome the challenges? A. Instruct the team members to set their speakers to maximum volume and mute their microphones. B. Require everyone to turn on their cameras and use the same background filter. C. Encourage the use of the chat and use plain language when speaking. D. Allow one person to speak at a time after receiving acknowledgment from the facilitator. Answer: C Explanation: Using the chat and plain language can help overcome the communication barriers caused by accents and background noises. Chat allows team members to write down their ideas and questions, which can be easier to understand than spoken words. Plain language reduces the ambiguity and complexity of the messages, making them more clear and concise. These techniques can also enhance the participation and engagement of the team members, as they can express their thoughts and opinions more comfortably and confidently. Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Communication and Change Management, p. 97-98. 67.Given the following network diagram: Which of the following is the critical path? A. A-C-G-K-M B. A-B-D-l-L-M 36 / 56 Com pT IA P K0- 00 5 Exa m Q ue st io ns (2 02 4) - Ach ie ve P K0- 00 5 Exa m S uc ce ss w ith E as e C. A-B-E-J-L-M D. A-B-F-L-M Answer: A Explanation: The critical path is the sequence of tasks that determines the minimum project duration. It is the longest path through the network diagram and has the least amount of slack or float. Based on the provided network diagram, the critical path is A-C-G-K- M, which has the longest total duration when adding up the individual task durations. Reference = The concept of the critical path is covered in the CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide1. For more detailed information on how to calculate and identify the critical path in project management, you can refer to the study guide and other project management resources2. 68.During the execution phase of a project, the project team faced an unexpected website downtime The project manager how a brainstorming s ssion and the team identified causes and effects tor the problem Now the project team needs to analyze and determine whether the particular cause and effect are related by using one of the following charts. Which of the following should the team use? A) B) 37 / 56 Com pT IA P K0- 00 5 Exa m Q ue st io ns (2 02 4) - Ach ie ve P K0- 00 5 Exa m S uc ce ss w ith E as e 69.A visual that displays team progress was created for stand-up meetings. Which of the following BEST describes what is being represented on the visual? A. Decision board B. Whiteboard C. Task board D. Dashboard Answer: C Explanation: A task board is a visual tool that displays team progress for stand-up meetings. A task board usually consists of columns that represent different stages or statuses of tasks, such as to do, in progress, done, or blocked. Each task is represented by a card or sticky note that can be moved across the columns as the task progress s. A task board can help to facilitate communication, collaboration, and transparency among team members and stakeholders. It can also help to track and manage work flow, prioritize tasks, identify bottlenecks, and resolve issues3 70.During a sponsor meeting, a PM is assigned to manage a new external project for an IT consultant. The sponsor wants the PM to establish an agreement regarding the exchange of money between both parties. Which of the following documents would the PM most likely create? A. Business requirement B. Client statement of work C. Formal contract D. Project charter Answer: C Explanation: A formal contract is a legal document that defines the terms and conditions of the agreement between the project parties, such as the scope, schedule, budget, quality, deliverables, roles and responsibilities, payment methods, and dispute resolution mechanisms. A formal contract is essential for external projects, especially when there is an exchange of money involved, to protect the interests and rights of both parties and to ensure mutual understanding and compliance. A formal contract is different from a business requirement, which is a statement of the needs and expectations of the customer or stakeholder for the project outcome. A formal contract is also different from a client statement of work, which is a document that describes the work to be performed, the deliverables to be provided, and the acceptance criteria to be met by the project vendor or contractor. A formal contract is also different from a project charter, which is a document that authorizes the project and provides the high- level information about the project objectives, scope, stakeholders, and project manager. Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: 40 / 56 Com pT IA P K0- 00 5 Exa m Q ue st io ns (2 02 4) - Ach ie ve P K0- 00 5 Exa m S uc ce ss w ith E as e Project Integration Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Project Integration Management2; 11 Essential Documents To Use as a Project Manager3 71.As part of the planning phase, a PM has defined tasks, durations, resources, and costs. Which of the following is the NEXT step in the process? A. Update the work breakdown structure. B. Review the backlog. C. Seek baseline approval. D. Establish the resource pool. Answer: C Explanation: The next step in the process after defining tasks, durations, resources, and costs is to seek baseline approval. A baseline is an approved version of a project plan that serves as a reference point for measuring progress and performance throughout the project lifecycle. A baseline typically includes scope, schedule, cost, quality, and risk parameters. Seeking baseline approval involves presenting the project plan to key stakeholders and obtaining their formal agreement on the project objectives and deliverables. Baseline approval can help to establish clear expectations, avoid scope creep, and facilitate change control during project execution. The NEXT step after defining tasks, durations, resources, and costs during the planning phase is to seek baseline approval. Baseline approval involves finalizing the project plan and gaining approval from stakeholders, establishing the plan as the baseline for the project's performance. Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 3.4.1 72.The high-level technical requirements for a new application state that the application should be suitable to support enterprise-level client-server solutions. Which of the following meets these requirements? A. Data warehouse B. SQL database C. Multitier architecture D. Content management system Answer: C Explanation: Multitier architecture is a type of software architecture that is suitable to support enterprise-level client-server solutions. Multitier architecture divides an application into logical layers or tiers that are distributed among different servers or machines. Each tier performs a specific function or role and communicates with other tiers through well-defined interfaces. Multitier architecture can provide benefits such as 41 / 56 Com pT IA P K0- 00 5 Exa m Q ue st io ns (2 02 4) - Ach ie ve P K0- 00 5 Exa m S uc ce ss w ith E as e scalability, performance, security, maintainability, and reusability for complex and large-scale applications. 73.A project manager needs to update the project sponsor and senior stakeholders about the progress of a project. Which of the following tools will the project manager MOST likely use? A. Dashboard B. Gantt chart C. Work breakdown structure D. Requirements Traceability Matrix Answer: A Explanation: A dashboard is a tool that the project manager will most likely use to update the project sponsor and senior stakeholders about the progress of a project. A dashboard is a graphical tool that displays key performance indicators (KPIs), metrics, and data related to a project using charts, graphs, tables, or other visual elements. A dashboard can help to provide a quick and easy overview of the project status and performance and highlight any issues or risks that need attention. 74.A project manager is organizing and running a project closure meeting. Which of the following best describes the objective of this meeting? A. To move the system to a production environment B. To obtain project sign-off C. To formalize the end of the contract D. To release resources Answer: B Explanation: A project closure meeting is a formal gathering held at the end of a project timeline. Its chief purpose is to evaluate the project's performance, identify and discuss the achieved outcomes, successes, and challenges, and confirm that all predefined tasks and objectives have been completed successfully1. The project closure meeting also involves obtaining project sign-off from all necessary parties, such as the project sponsor, the client, the stakeholders, and the team members. Project sign-off is the official approval that the project has met the agreed-upon criteria and quality standards, and that the project is formally closed2. 75.A project manager sent equipment to a global project team for testing purposes. Only 70% of the project team received the equipment for testing. Which of the following considerations is impacting the rest of the team? 42 / 56 Com pT IA P K0- 00 5 Exa m Q ue st io ns (2 02 4) - Ach ie ve P K0- 00 5 Exa m S uc ce ss w ith E as e Answer: B Explanation: Confronting, also known as problem-solving or collaborating, is a method of conflict resolution that involves addressing the root cause of the conflict and finding a mutually beneficial solution that satisfies both parties. Confronting is the most effective method when the stakes are high and the relationship is important, as it can lead to increased trust, respect, and cooperation. Confronting requires open communication, active listening, empathy, and creativity from both parties. Confronting is the best method to use in this scenario, as it can help the stakeholders overcome their personal animosity, focus on their common goals, and work together to complete their tasks on time12. Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 7: Project Stakeholder Management, p. 246; What is Conflict Resolution, and How Does It Work? 81.Which of the following should occur when implementing an IT infrastructure change that takes risks into consideration? A. Approving the change request B. Developing a rollback plan C. Gathering necessary resources D. Defining requirements Answer: B Explanation: When implementing an IT infrastructure change that takes risks into consideration, the project manager should develop a rollback plan. A rollback plan is a contingency plan that outlines the steps that need to be taken in case the change does not work as expected. It includes a plan to roll back the changes and restore the system to its previous state. Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 3.3. The project manager should develop a rollback plan when implementing an IT infrastructure change that takes risks into consideration. A rollback plan is a contingency plan that describes how to revert back to the previous state of the system in case of a failure or disruption during the change implementation. A rollback plan can help to minimize the impact of the change on the system performance and availability and ensure business continuity and data integrity. 82.A project team needs a tool to store information that is captured throughout the life cycle of a project. The information should be stored in a centralized location that is easily accessible to all stakeholders and will provide search functionality. Which of the following tools should be used? A. Secure folder 45 / 56 Com pT IA P K0- 00 5 Exa m Q ue st io ns (2 02 4) - Ach ie ve P K0- 00 5 Exa m S uc ce ss w ith E as e B. Real-time, multiauthoring editing software C. Digital whiteboard D. Wiki knowledge base Answer: D Explanation: A wiki knowledge base is a tool that allows the project team to store, organize, and share information that is captured throughout the life cycle of a project. A wiki knowledge base is stored in a centralized location that is easily accessible to all stakeholders via a web browser. A wiki knowledge base also provides search functionality that enables the users to find the information they need quickly and easily. A wiki knowledge base can help the project team to document the project requirements, scope, schedule, budget, quality, risks, issues, lessons learned, and best practices. A wiki knowledge base is different from a secure folder, which is a tool that protects the files and folders from unauthorized access or modification. A secure folder may not be easily accessible to all stakeholders, and may not provide search functionality or collaboration features. A wiki knowledge base is also different from a real-time, multiauthoring editing software, which is a tool that allows the project team to create and edit documents simultaneously and synchronously. A real-time, multiauthoring editing software may not be suitable for storing large amounts of information, and may not provide the same level of organization and structure as a wiki knowledge base. A wiki knowledge base is also different from a digital whiteboard, which is a tool that allows the project team to brainstorm, visualize, and communicate ideas. A digital whiteboard is not designed for storing information, and may not provide the same level of search functionality or security as a wiki knowledge base. Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 3: Project Communications Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 3: Project Communications Management2; The 15 best collaboration tools for productive teams3 83.During the project execution phase, Ann, a project manager, received an email from the project sponsor asking for an additional work package to be added to the project scope due to new legislation. INSTRUCTIONS Review the email with the latest updates sent by the project sponsor and respond in the following order: 84. Select the best tool for tracking the server migration progress. 85. Select the new critical path. 46 / 56 Com pT IA P K0- 00 5 Exa m Q ue st io ns (2 02 4) - Ach ie ve P K0- 00 5 Exa m S uc ce ss w ith E as e 86. Select the correct number of engineers required for the server migration phase. If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button. Select the Appropriate Tool: 47 / 56 Com pT IA P K0- 00 5 Exa m Q ue st io ns (2 02 4) - Ach ie ve P K0- 00 5 Exa m S uc ce ss w ith E as e Option B Option C 50 / 56 Com pT IA P K0- 00 5 Exa m Q ue st io ns (2 02 4) - Ach ie ve P K0- 00 5 Exa m S uc ce ss w ith E as e Answer: 51 / 56 Com pT IA P K0- 00 5 Exa m Q ue st io ns (2 02 4) - Ach ie ve P K0- 00 5 Exa m S uc ce ss w ith E as e 87.Several stakeholders have declined the invitation for the kickoff of a major digital transformation protect. Which of the following actions should the project manager take NEXT? A. Escalate directly to the project sp nsor B. Push the kickoff meeting out by one week C. Proceed with the kickoff as planned D. Identity replacements for project stakeholders Answer: A Explanation: The project sponsor is the person who provides the authority, funding, and support for the project. The project sponsor can also help to influence and engage the key stakeholders who are essential for the success of the project. If several stakeholders have declined the invitation for the kickoff meeting, which is an important event to establish the vision, scope, and expectations of the project, the project manager should escalate this issue to the project sponsor and seek their assistance to ensure the participation of the stakeholders1, p. 47 88.Project stakeholders have asked the team to use Scrum to run a software implementation project. Which of the following is most likely to take place during a Scrum ceremony? 52 / 56 Com pT IA P K0- 00 5 Exa m Q ue st io ns (2 02 4) - Ach ie ve P K0- 00 5 Exa m S uc ce ss w ith E as e cannot start until requirements development is finished. This implies that testing is a successor task, and requirements development is a predecessor task. A finish-to-start dependency is the most common type of dependency in project management, and it ensures that tasks are performed in a logical sequence34. Reference = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide5, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives6, Understanding Dependencies in Project Management [2023] * Asana1, Dependencies in Project Management | Smartsheet2, Understanding Task Dependencies in Project Management3, What are Dependencies in Project Management? - KnowledgeHut4 93.A PM wants to provide a visual representation of how a project is organized into tasks and how the tasks relate to each other. Which of the following can the PM use? A. Milestone chart B. Gantt chart C. PERT chart D. WBS Answer: B Explanation: A gantt chart is a visual representation of a project timeline that shows the tasks, durations, dependencies, and resources of a project in a horizontal bar chart format. A gantt chart can help a project manager to plan, monitor, and control the project progress, scope, and quality. A gantt chart is different from a milestone chart, which only shows the key events or deliverables of a project without the details of the tasks. A gantt chart is also different from a PERT chart, which is a network diagram that shows the logical relationships and sequence of tasks in a project. A gantt chart is also different from a WBS, which is a hierarchical breakdown of the project scope into smaller and manageable components. Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 6: Schedule Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 6: Schedule Management2; What Is a Gantt Chart? 7 Examples for Project Management3; 3 types of visual project management: Timelines, calendars, and boards (with examples)4 55 / 56 Get full version of PK0-005 Q&As Powered by TCPDF (www.tcpdf.org) 56 / 56