Pharmaceutical Industry: Growth Factors, Drug Development, and Regulation, Exams of Nursing

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2023/2024 CNPR Exam Questions and Answers

1. Bone marrow transplants. are a type of stem cell therapy. unless patient's own cells are reinjected.
2. What does AMA stand for? American Medical Association
3. What section of a drug's package insert describes situations in which the drug should not be used because the risks outweigh the therapeutic benefits? contraindications 5 What is tertiary care? highly specialized medical and surgical care provided by a large medical center for unusual or complex medical problems
4. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages in the classic approach to brand development strategy covered in your manual? brand quality 7 What are vasodilators used to do? decrease vascular resistance and increase blood flow
5. What is the name of the condition that occurs after a specific dose of a drug is given at such regular intervals that absorption and elimination (and therefore drug plasma concentration) have become fairly constant? Steady State
6. Which statement is TRUE about ocular administration? Ocular administration is used primarily to treat the eye.
7. Which entities invest's the most money in pharmaceutical R&D? U.S. pharmaceutical companies
8. How are most drugs excreted? via the kidneys
9. Over the last few decades, what has happened to legal limitations on sales' reps discussions about of label uses? Limitations have decreased.

14. What does it mean if two drugs are at parity? Both drugs are essentially in a neutral position. 15 Who is most likely to benefit from electronic sampling programs? Everyone would benefit equally from electronic sampling programs
15. When referring to medication dosage, which abbreviation means "one-half' SS 17 What is an internist? a physician who practices internal medicine
16. Which of the following is a type of white blood cell? Lymphocytes
17. Why are novice sales representatives often placed in charge of negotiating MCO formularies? They are not. This job is usually reserved for more experienced reps.
18. What distinguishes pharmacodynamics from pharmacokinetics? Pharmacodynamics studies the how the body affects drugs. 21 What proportion of the drugs tested on human subjects are eventually approved by the FDA? about 70%
19. According to a study discussed in your manual, how do most physicians prefer to receive their drug samples? directly from sales representatives
20. Which of the following is an example of a central value? I buy Advil to show that I'm a modern consumer.
21. Which of the following specialties likely has the MOST emergency calls? cardiologist
22. What affects the rate of active transport? neither the availability of carriers nor the availability of energy
23. Over the last few decades, what has happened to the FDA approval time for new drugs? It has been shortened to reduce the cost of new drug development.
24. Which of the following would NOT help improve compliance? pharmacists understanding how generics differ from brand name drugs

28. Which entity chooses a drug's trade name? the FDA
29. What type of stem cells are obtained from embryos and can develop into any cell type? totipotent
30. As the price a patient pays for a prescription increases, what happens to the likelihood that the patient will fill it? It remains unaffected because the prescription is needed
31. Most involuntary movements come from which type of muscle tissue? cardiac and smooth
32. Which of the following is NOT one of the body's major organ systems? the cellular system
33. How do most drugs exert their primary physiological effects?by binding to cell receptors that are sensitive to their presence
34. What is the most reliable source of information for determining therapeutically equivalent drug products? Orange Book
35. What does subcutaneous mean? beneath the outer skin
36. What should a sales representative do if all of the prime spaces in a drug cabinet are coccupied? ask staf for permission to move some of the other products in the cabinet
37. It is inappropriate for physicians' prescribing behaviors to be educated by their personal tastes and idiosyncrasies TRUE
38. The FDA defines API as the active ingredient in a drug, which produces the desired change in the body. pharmaceutical
39. What are the 2 legal classifications of wholesalers? primary and secondary wholesale distributors

40. What term describes the usage of a medication for purposes other than the FDA-approved indications on the labeling? of-label usage
41. What is the acronym for pharmacokinetics? PK
42. The dosage range of a drug that is both safe and beneficial is known as the therapeutic window. True
43. What is typically NOT a characteristic of a pharmaceutical sales rep? Pharmaceutical sales reps are not concerned about competitors.
44. What entity grants drug patents? The US Patent and Trademark Office
45. Which of the following refers to all active and inert pharmaceutical ingredients in a drug,including fillers and colors? formulation
46. What is the diference between potency and efficacy? potency refers to the drug's strength, while efficacy refers to its efectiveness
47. What is the minimum level of education required for a nurse practitioner? a graduate degree
48. How many names must a drug have? at least three
49. How has a longer development time increased the cost of bringing a new drug to market? Increasing the cost of capital
50. Senior citizens consume over times as many pharmaceuticals as people under
51. three
52. What agency regulates the distribution and use of narcotics? DEA
53. What is passive difusion? when a substance freely moves through a membrane from a high concentration gradient to a low one
54. What are the MAIN categories of drugs under FDA jurisdiction?

prescription and non prescription

55. What are all metabolites? products of metabolism
56. When a drug is administered orally, where does first-pass metabolism occur? liver
57. What is the medical term for swelling? edema
58. Which of the following is NOT part of the Seven Step Cascade of Emotion? be a consultant, not a rep
59. Which part of a clinical research paper is frequently referred to as the road map? abstract
60. Which of the following is a main active ingredient in lung surfactants? theophylline
61. What does parenteral mean? injection
62. Which term denotes a type of substance that enhances the action of a drug or antigen? adjunvant
63. If a sales representative's product is placed on the second tier of a standard three-tier formulary, which of the following is most likely true? It probably has exclusive preferred status if it is not at parity with any other drugs
64. Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic transport mechanisms? homeostasis
65. Which statement accurately describes a relationship between drug agonists and antagonists? Agonists and antagonists can be used together.
66. What is the study of the efects and movement of drugs in the human body? clinical pharmacology
67. According to your manual, what is a common complaint that physicians have about traditional sampling methods? that drug sample supply is too unpredictable

68. Which of these entities is formed by two or more hospitals or other healthcare entities to negotiate reduced rates with its aggregated purchasing power? GPO
69. What is another name for a drug derived from a biologic compound? large molecule
70. What is the most common policy regarding pharmaceutical reps dispensing drug samples in hospitals? drug sampling is often forbidden 71 Which of the following would help you build trust with a physician? asking if he or she is having any problems with the managed care coverage of your products
71. What term denotes the diference between the usual efective dose and the dose that induces severe or life-threatening side efects? margin of safety
72. What are excipients? the inert ingredients in a drug formulation
73. What is another term for the AWP? list price
74. Which of these is the most likely use for a uterotonic agent? to induce labor
75. As of November 2013, which of these countries has legalized DTC advertising of prescription drugs? none of these
76. Why are oral drugs often taken on an empty stomach? to pass through the stomach more quickly
77. What is one factor that diferentiates community health centers from hospitals? community health center formularies are more restrictive
78. How does drug sampling provide a social benefit? doctors often use drug samples to treat patients who otherwise could not aford it
79. Which medical term denotes the use of a stethoscope to listen to the heart? ausculation
80. What do enteric coatings do?

prevents dissolution in the stomach

82. What is the duration of exclusivity for orphan drugs? 7 years
83. What do National Account Managers do? negotiate contracts with MCO and PBM
84. What does it usually mean if a drug recall is voluntary? The manufacturer has recalled the product on its own. but negotiated with the FDA beforehand.
85. Which phase of clinical trials is also known as the pivotal phase? Phase III
86. During which phase of clinical trials is the new drug's safety and efectiveness first tested in the target group? Phase II
87. How do antacids work? by raising gastric PH
88. What is one of the biggest time wasters for a pharmaceutical sales rep? Travel Time
89. What happens when equilibrium is reached? equal numbers of molecules cross the membrane in both directions
90. What are the most common vectors used in gene therapy? viruses
91. What is the percentage fee that the dispenser pays the wholesaler for distribution? upcharge
92. What is the diference between a chronic (or continuing) reaction, and a delayed reaction? chronic reactions persist for a long time, delayed reactions take some time to develop 93 What is clinical efect? the response produced by a medication
93. Which of the following is an example of noncompliance? a patient forgetting to take a drug at a specified time of day
94. What is the average circulation time of blood?

about a minute

96. What is one way in which pharmaceutical selling is diferent from selling in most other industries? representative do NOT sell to the end user of the product
97. From what types of entities do primary wholesale distributors buy most of their drugs? manufacturers 98.What is the Office of the Inspector General (01G)? an arm of the Dept of Health and Human Services
98. What are doctors required to consider when deciding whether or not to prescribe a particular drug? the severity of the disorder being treated and the efect it has on the patients quality of life
99. Which entity assigns a new drug its generic names? the United States Adopted Name Council
100. Drugs can be used days beyond their expiration date. drugs never can be used beyond expiration date
101. What is necessary for a drug to be excreted extensively via the kidneys? The drug must be water-soluble, and not bind too tightly to protein in the bloodstream
102. Which organization or individual initiates the clinical trial and finances the study? sponsor
103. The name describes the atomic or molecular structure of a drug. chemical
104. Under PhRMA Code, is it acceptable or unacceptable for a pharmaceutical sales rep to take a physician and the physician's spouse to a fundraising dinner? never (unacceptable)
105. The Hatch-Waxman Act is considered the most significant drug-related afecting the pharmaceutical industry since 1962. legislation
106. What term denotes the the extent, quality, or degree to which a substance is poisonous or harmful to the body? toxicity
107. What issue has MOST encouraged consumers' desire to see more OTC medications? lack of insurance coverage

109. What is the degree to which a medication produces a therapeutic efect? efficacy
110. What is the most important benefit of electronic prescribing? safety
111. When does the FDA regulate generic drugs? always
112. Which phase of trials largely determines the clinical dose? Phase II trials
113. What is an advantage of inactivated vaccines over attenuated vaccines? inactive vaccines have a more stable shelf life
114. Which medical term denotes a low supply of oxygen due to low blood flow? ischemia
115. What are the two main types of prescription drug marketing? professional physician promotions and direct-to-consumer advertising
116. What is the site of delivery for subcutaneous injections? fatty tissue beneath the surface of the skin
117. What must be contained in the Description section of a pharmaceutical package insert? the proprietary name and the established name
118. What is the study of a medication's efects as it travels through the body? pharmacokinetics
119. Customers purchase products from people they like, trust, and respect. This is called the likeability factor
120. What is penicillin's primary mechanism of action? it disturbs bacterial cell wall synthesis
121. According to your manual, how has the U.S. healthcare marketplace changed in the last few decades? managed care has been increasingly replaced by more patient centered approaches
122. How does pharmaceutical marketing help narrow the treatment gap? it encourages patients to take more active roles in their healthcare

123. What do immunosuppressive agents do? reduce risk of rejection of foreign bodies
124. What types of drugs are EGFR inhibitors? antineoplastics
125. Which of the following means outside of the living body? ex vivo
126. The FDA requirements for nutraceuticals and medicinal herbs are just as stringent as for pharmaceuticals. False
127. What is the estimated net gain of private-sector healthcare's contributions to increased U.S. life expectancy? 2-5 trillion
128. Which statement is TRUE regarding post-approval drug monitoring? the FDA can choose to withdraw their approval if new evidence arises
129. Which term denotes when tolerance to one medication causes increased tolerance to another medication? cross tolerance
130. Patents expire years from the date of filing. twenty
131. After a trade-name drug's patent expires, how may generic versions of it be sold? only under the branded generic name
132. What is required for a new pharmaceutical to be considered a viable therapy? it is more efective, causes fewer serious adverse efects than other drugs on the market
133. Under the AMA guidelines, who is ultimately responsible for minimizing conflicts of interest? doctors
134. The act of dispensing a pharmaceutical alternative for the product prescribed is pharmaceutical substitution
135. What does it mean if a drug is said to have a wide margin of safety? there is a lower chance of severe or life threatening side efects
136. Which of the following is the correct medical acronym for efective dose?

ED

137. Why is one group of subjects given an active drug, while another group only receives a placebo? to assess the drugs efectiveness
138. A generic version is likely to have some inactive ingredients that are diferent from those of the original drug. True
139. Which of the following is an example of a functional value? I drink coco cola because I like the taste
140. Where are most drugs metabolized? liver
141. What is essential to the ethical requirement that subjects be selected fairly? subjects should be selected based on scientific objectives
142. Which of the following is the most appropriate salutation for a cover letter if you cannot find a contact name? Dear Sir or Madam
143. What is part of becoming an indispensable pharmaceutical sales rep? asking for feedback
144. Which of the following is NOT typically included in the indications and usage section of the package insert information? the drugs active metabolites
145. Which term denotes the practice of classifying physicians and other potential prescribers by anticipated prescription volume? deciling
146. What makes a drug eligible for fast track approval from the FDA? it treats patients with a serious life-threatening condition
147. In the gastrointestinal tract, help break up tablets to ensure full release of the active pharmaceutical ingredient. disintegrants
148. According to your manual, what does the PDRP do? it limits sales reps abilities to see individual physicians prescribing data

149. What are the components of the central nervous system? the brain and spinal cord
150. Which term denotes the origin or cause of a medical condition? etiology
151. Patients diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes have an autoimmune disease
152. Which DTC pharmaceutical marketing tactic is permitted in European countries? disease state ads
153. What is one way in which psychologists DIFFER from psychiatrists? psycologist deal with emotional than physical issues
154. What are PBMs? organizations that negotiate between pharmaceutical companies and large drug purchasers
155. How does the Hatch-Waxman Act protect research-based drug manufacturers? by providing a 30 month cooling of period
156. What is the process of adjusting drug doses to achieve the maximum positive therapeutic efects while minimizing adverse or side efects? titration
157. Which of the following is studied more in pharmacodynamics than in pharmacokinetics? the transportation of the drug to the specific site for drug receptor interactions
158. How does the healthy human immune system use MHC markers? substances without MHC markers are discerned as foreign and targeted for destruction
159. What is a behind-the-counter drug? an OTC drug that must be closely monitored by the pharmacist
160. When do MSLs meet with clinicians? at nearly any stage of the products life cycle

Quiz 1

1. Pharmaceuticals are arguably the most socially important healthcare product. A. TRUE B. FALSE 2. Pharmaceutical development is a high-risk undertaking, in which many promising leads prove disappointing. A. TRUE B. FALSE 3. Pharmaceutical sales are highest in which geographical regions? A. The U.S., Saudi Arabia, and Japan B. The U.S., Western Europe, and Japan C. Western Europe, Australia, and Canada D. Western Europe, Canada, and Saudi Arabia 4. The U.S. accounts for about of the world’s pharmaceutical revenues. A. 30% B. 50% C. 80% D. 95% 5. Which of the following has fueled recent growth in the pharmaceutical industry? A. increased international standardization and regulation B. international legalization of DTC advertising C. population growth and increased life expectancies D. all of these 6. According to your manual, which statement accurately describes the predicted relationship between pharmaceutical companies and genomic research facilities? A. Genomic research company is another term for ethical research company.

B. Partnerships between pharmaceutical companies and genomic companies will not prove immediately profitable. C. Pharmaceutical companies have little to no interest in partnerships with genomic research companies. D. Pharmaceutical companies will be genomic research companies' biggest competitors in the coming years.

7. Prescription drug therapy is not cost-effective for insurance companies and healthcare providers. A. TRUE B. FALSE 8. The high price of healthcare is explained by the high price of medicines. A. TRUE B. FALSE 9. One of the oldest and least effective pharmaceutical marketing techniques is DTC (direct-to-consumer) advertising. A. TRUE B. FALSE 10. What influences the number of districts in a region? A. the number of qualified sales representatives who apply to represent that region B. the region's population C. both the district's population and the number of qualified sales representatives who apply to represent that region D. none of these 11. What is an example of the regionalization of healthcare delivery systems? A. California and Florida have different demographics. B. California and Florida have different drug companies. C. California and Florida have different DTC advertisements. D. California and Florida have different prescription reimbursement policies. 12. The heart of a pharmaceutical sales team is the Regional Manager. A. TRUE B. FALSE

13. Most DMs did not start as representatives. A. TRUE B. FALSE 14. How many territories are in a typical district? A. 1 to 2 B. 8 to 12 C. 30 to 40 D. 50 to 100 15. What is the most effective method for grabbing market share? A. comparative selling B. criticizing the competition C. power point presentations D. questioning doctors' choices

Quiz 2

1. Pharmaceutical reps mainly visit pharmacies. A. TRUE B. FALSE 2. It usually only takes 1-2 calls to a physician before he or she commits to prescribing your product. A. TRUE B. FALSE 3. The pharmacist may dispense a product other than what the physician prescribed A. TRUE B. FALSE

4. According to Chapter 2 of your manual, which of the following would classify as payers? A. employers B. patients C. pharmacists D. physicians 5. According to your manual, what defines ethical pharmaceutical companies? A. donating a specified proportion of their revenue to consumer organizations B. donating a specified proportion of their revenue to the NIH C. manufacturing generics D. researching and developing novel drugs 6. One of the most disappointing results of the pharmaceutical industry’s continued investment in R & D is the few new drugs being approved and in development. A. TRUE B. FALSE 7. Thanks to modern medicines, how long are people newly diagnosed with HIV expected to live? A. another 10 years B. another 20 years C. another 5 years D. another 50 years 8. How much has the average American lifespan increased since 1890? A. almost 10 years B. almost 15 years C. almost 30 years D. almost 5 years 9. What is a treatment group? A. a group of patients assigned to receive a specified treatment

B. a group of patients who have volunteered to receive the active drug, but not the placebo C. A group of substances being tested D. A list of study protocols

10. What is the main difference between a blinded and double-blinded study? A. A blinded study is performed to control the placebo effect whereas a double-blinded study is performed to control the observer effect. B. A double-blinded study has two control groups, but a blinded study only has one. C. Blinded studies are more scientifically rigorous. D. In a double-blind study, neither the study staff nor the study participants know which subjects are in the experimental group and which in the control. 11. What does asymptomatic mean? A. exhibiting atypical signs or symptoms that were not indicated in the product packaging B. not exhibiting signs or symptoms C. refusing treatment for symptoms D. toxic or harmful to the human body

Quiz 3

1. Which term denotes the study of bodily functions (as opposed to structures)? A. anatomy B. cytology C. oncology D. physiology 2. In its broadest definition, a drug is any substance that produces a physical or psychological change in the body. A. TRUE B. FALSE 3. How does the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA) define a drug? A. any substance intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease, or a substance other than food intended to affect the structure or function of the body

B. any substance that causes legitimate side effects C. any substance that outperforms a placebo D. any substance that produces a physical or psychological change in the body

4. Which statement about vitamins is CORRECT? A. Most of the body's required vitamins are manufactured in the bone marrow. B. Most of the body's required vitamins are products of the body's metabolic processes. C. Most of the body's required vitamins must be taken in from outside the body. D. The body manufactures most of the vitamins it requires. 5. ADME testing measures the rate at which the body absorbs the drug, distributes it to the organs necessary to produce the desired effect, metabolizes it into waste material and then excretes it from the body. A. TRUE B. FALSE 6. ADME testing is primarily used in what field? A. epidemiology B. epigenetics C. pharmacodynamics D. pharmacokinetics 7. Which statement about placebos is CORRECT? A. By definition, placebos must be designed to affect everyone equally. B. Placebo effects can be distinguished from drugs because they are always desirable. C. Placebo effects can lead to withdrawal symptoms. D. Placebos can be distinguished from drugs because they do not lead to withdrawal symptoms. 8. On average, only about 5 of 4,000 drugs studied in the laboratory are eventually studied in people. A. TRUE B. FALSE

9. Which statement is TRUE about drugs taken sublingually? A. Sublingual administration is the most common route of administration. B. Sublingual drugs are absorbed directly and almost immediately into the bloodstream. C. Sublingual drugs are used primarily to treat the mouth. D. Sublingual drugs must first pass through the intestinal wall and liver, just like oral drugs, but can be used in patients with swallowing problems. 10. What are 3 of the 7 rights of drug administration? A. the right patient, the right drug, and the right dose B. the right supervision, the right patient, and the right dose C. the right technique, the right documentation, and the right supervision D. the right to information about one's medication, the right to question one's treatment, and the right to a second opinion 11. Pro-drugs are administered in an active form, which is metabolized into an inactive form. A. TRUE B. FALSE 12. The kidney of an 85-year-old person excretes drugs only as efficiently as that of a 35-year-old person. A. around 15% B. around 30% C. around 50% D. This is impossible to predict because it depends on such a wide range of other factors. 13. The normal age-related decrease in kidney function can help doctors determine an appropriate dosage based solely on a person’s age. A. TRUE B. FALSE 14. What DIFFERENTIATES a caplet from a tablet? A. Caplets are made of compressed powder. B. Caplets are shaped like capsules and have film coatings to aid in swallowing.

C. Caplets are used for sustained-release drugs. D. Caplets contain hard cylindrical granules, liquids, or some combination of these.

15. Where will you find the legend “Caution: Federal Law prohibits dispensing without a prescription”? A. on the label of all prescription drugs B. on the labels of all generic drugs C. only on the labels of drugs dispensed at pharmacies (as opposed to, e.g., product samples at doctors' offices) D. only on the labels of product samples 16. What happens in slow acetylators? A. Drugs that are metabolized by N-acetyl transferase are less likely to reach toxic levels than in fast acetylators. B. Drugs that are metabolized by N-acetyl transferase tend to reach higher blood levels and remain in the body longer. C. Drugs that are metabolized by N-acetyl transferase tend to reach lower blood levels, but remain in the body longer. D. None of these statements apply to slow acetylators.

Quiz 4

1. About of the people in the U.S. are slow acetylators. A. 1% B. 5% C. 25% D. 50% 2. Which of the following statements about drug-drug interactions is INCORRECT? A. Drug-drug interactions are always harmful. B. Duplication can involve two drugs with the same effect causing toxicity when taken together. C. Duplication can involve two drugs with the same effect intensifying each other's therapeutic effects without any serious side effects. D. Opposition can involve two drugs with opposing actions interacting to reduce one's effectiveness but not the other's.

3. Smoking decreases the effectiveness of some drugs. A. TRUE B. FALSE 4. Which of the following statements about dietary supplements is INCORRECT? A. Because dietary supplements are not drugs, interactions with drugs are not a concern. B. Dietary supplements are regulated as foods. C. Dietary supplements contain vitamins, minerals, amino acids, and/or herbs. D. all of these 5. Which statement/s is/are INCORRECT about an ideal drug, or magic bullet as Ehrlich phrased it? A. It does not exist. B. It would be aimed precisely at a disease site. C. It would not harm healthy tissues. D. All of these statements are correct. 6. Which statement accurately differentiates resistance from tolerance? A. Doctors can predict resistance but not tolerance. B. There is no difference between tolerance and resistance. C. Tolerance is caused by genetic mutations, but resistance is always innate. D. Tolerance refers to a person's diminished response to a drug after repeated use, while resistance applies to microorganisms' or cancel cells' abilities to withstand drug effects. 7. Between 3% and 7% of hospital admissions in the United States are estimated to be for treatment of adverse drug reactions. A. TRUE B. FALSE 8. Which statement is true about the universal scale for quantifying the severity of an adverse drug reaction? A. The severities of adverse drug reactions are quantified by their chronicity. B. The severities of adverse drug reactions are quantified by their threat to life. C. None of these statements are true because the scale uses different criteria.

D. None of these statements are true because there is no such scale.

9. Why is non-compliance a serious public health concern? A. It erodes trust between physicians and pharmaceutical sales representatives. B. It increases the cost of medical care. C. It indicates a lack of accountability among healthcare providers. D. Noncompliance is a serious public health concern for all of these reasons. 10. Which of the following is NOT eligible for patent protection under U.S. regulations? A. the drug itself B. the method of delivering and releasing the drug into the bloodstream C. the way the drug is made D. Companies can be granted patents for all of these things. 11. Drugs' trade names are often unrelated to their intended use. A. TRUE B. FALSE 12. Like foods and household products, generic drugs are usually lower quality than the brand name drugs for which they are marketed as equivalents. A. TRUE B. FALSE 13. Legally, bioequivalence of different versions of a drug can vary by up to. A. 3.50% B. 10% C. 20% D. The drugs must be 100% equivalent. 14. Which of the following statements about biologics is INCORRECT?

A. They are also called “large molecule drugs. B. They are derived from living materials. C. They do not cause immune responses. D. Vaccines are a type of biologic. 15.“Large molecule” products are developed and manufactured by a chemical process. A. TRUE B. FALSE

16. What are drugs that attract or bind to cell receptors in order to mimic or enhance activities by endogenous chemical messengers? A. agonists B. antagonists C. orphan drugs D. steroids

Quiz 5

1. Which term denotes how an API works in the body? A. formulation B. mechanism of action C. site of action D. therapeutic group 2. What cements the active and inert components together to maintain cohesive portions? A. binders B. colors C. disintegrants D. lubricants 3. What does the medical abbreviation BID denote?

A. as needed B. bioavailable in diet C. quality of drugs D. twice a day

4. What is the medical abbreviation for as needed? A. BID B. PRN C. PSN D. QID 5. Which components might cause patients' different reactions to brand name and generic drugs? A. differences in active ingredients B. differences in inactive ingredients C. differences in both active and inactive ingredients D. Patients' reactions to a brand name and generic drugs are equivalent. 6. All cells have a nucleus. A. TRUE B. FALSE 7. Which of the following does NOT affect drug response? A. the patient's genetic makeup, age, body size, and use of other drugs and dietary supplements. B. the patient's other conditions or diseases. C. whether or not the patient takes the drug properly D. All of these factors influence drug response. 8. Drug reactions are predictable because they do not occur after a person has been previously exposed to the drug one or more times without any allergic reactions.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

9. What is the typical relationship between a drug's site of administration and site of action? A. They are usually somewhat removed from each other. B. They are usually the same site. C. They should not be the same site for economic reasons. D. They should not be the same site for safety reasons. 10. What is CMAX? A. an abbreviation for the maximum concentration of white blood cells B. the peak plasma concentration on a measuring curve C. the time interval within which a given dose of a drug is expected to have a therapeutic effect D. the time of peak plasma concentration on a measuring curve 11. Which of the following is NOT a main concept in clinical pharmacology? A. Drug Distribution and Elimination B. Pharmacodynamics C. Pharmacokinetics D. Pharmacoprocesses 12. Which of the following is NOT a route of drug administration? A. buccal B. Intramuscular C. sublingual D. transfugal 13. How are intradermal drugs delivered? A. by injection under the skin