2024 APEA FNP PREDICTOR Exam Test Bank with 300+ Questions from Actual Past Exam, Exams of Nursing

Download 2024 APEA FNP PREDICTOR Exam Test Bank with 300+ Questions from Actual Past Exam and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 2024 APEA FNP PREDICTOR Exam Test Bank with 300+ Questions from Actual Past Exam and 100% Correct Answer What 2 things put someone at the highest risk of developing pancreatitis? -------- Correct Answer -------- gallstones and alcohol abuse. Hypertriglyceridemia can also cause it. Why is primary open-angle glaucoma considered a chronic glaucoma? -------- Correct Answer -------- there is a SLOW rise in intraocular pressure A benign epidermal tumor that is a well-demarcated, coin-like, pigmented lesion with a stuck on appearance -------- Correct Answer -------- seborrheic keratosis The most common precancerous skin lesion that results from years of repeated sun exposure -------- Correct Answer -------- actinic keratosis What are the RF for GI bleeding? -------- Correct Answer -------- age 75 or older, warfarin use, daily NSAID use, chronic steroid use, PMHx of GI bleed When two or more RF for a GI bleed are present, we should not start a patient on aspirin without what? -------- Correct Answer -------- a daily PPI What medication is first line for the treatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria or UTI in pregnancy? -------- Correct Answer -------- nitrofurantoin Athletic amenorrhea increases one's risk of developing what? -------- Correct Answer ---- ---- osteoporosis; this is because there is a loss of body fat and body fat is what produces estrogen so estrogen levels decline An intervention being performed to prevent the occurrence of the same event happening again is an example of ___________ prevention. Give an example. -------- Correct Answer -------- secondary; taking a daily aspirin to prevent another stroke after already having one What is Strattera (atomoxetine) used for? -------- Correct Answer -------- ADHD; side effect includes increased BP and HR so monitor closely What is the drug Danazol and what is it used for? -------- Correct Answer -------- an androgen used in the treatment of endometriosis and fibrocystic breast disease Danazol, an androgen, has what potential side effects? -------- Correct Answer -------- edema, hirsutism, hair loss, vocal changes The Mirena (Levonorgestrol) IUD stays in for how long? -------- Correct Answer -------- 5 years What is the most common reason for persistent gonorrhea infections? -------- Correct Answer -------- failure of the patient to abstain from unprotected sexual intercourse What class of drug is theophylline? What does it do? -------- Correct Answer -------- methylxanthine; it's a bronchodilator Beta blockers are contraindicated in which cardiovascular condition? -------- Correct Answer -------- variant (prinzmetal) angina bc they may induce coronary vasospasm from unopposed alpha receptor activity What class of drug is Ropinirole (requip) and what is it used for? -------- Correct Answer -------- dopamine agonist; restless leg syndrome Are males or females more likely to commit suicide? -------- Correct Answer -------- males How do depression vs. anxiety differ in the way that they affect sleep? -------- Correct Answer -------- anxiety usually causes people to have problems falling asleep whereas depression causes early morning wakening What is the most common cause of pneumonia in all ages? -------- Correct Answer ------- - strep pneumo What is the most common cause of hemorrhagic stroke? -------- Correct Answer -------- hypertension What helps prevent infection by maintaining the acidic environment of the ear canal? ---- ---- Correct Answer -------- cerumen Mortality associated with Kawasaki disease is most likely related to what? -------- Correct Answer -------- coronary artery aneurysm What is Kawasaki disease? -------- Correct Answer -------- an acute febrile illness of early childhood characterized by vasculitis of the medium sized arteries, most noticeable in the coronary vessels Serial echos must be performed in a patient with Kawasaki disease in order to rule out coronary artery aneurysms. When should these occur? -------- Correct Answer -------- at the time of diagnosis, 1-2 weeks after onset of illness, 5-6 weeks after onset of illness What is the most common cause of croup? -------- Correct Answer -------- parainfluenza virus Tinea cruris "jock itch" is a common __________ infection and should be treated with what? -------- Correct Answer -------- fungal; OTC antifungal cream What are teaching points for males to avoid contracting tinea cruris? -------- Correct Answer -------- dry off after swimming and don't stay in a wet bathing suit Tinea cruris can affect the inner thighs but never what else? -------- Correct Answer ------ -- the penis or scrotum On microscopic exam, what is most likely to be seen in the presence of a bacterial infection? -------- Correct Answer -------- cocci and rods On microscopic exam, what is most likely to be seen in the presence of a candidal infection? -------- Correct Answer -------- yeasts What are dermatophytes? -------- Correct Answer -------- fungi On microscopic exam, what is most likely to be seen in the presence of a dermatophytic (fungal) infection? -------- Correct Answer -------- hyphae that are long, thin, and branching (such as in the case of tinea pedis, tinea cruris, and tinea corporis) The medical term for ringworm -------- Correct Answer -------- tinea corporis What is the most common cause of viral pneumonia in peds? -------- Correct Answer ---- ---- RSV Viral pneumonia is the most common type of pneumonia in children of what ages? ------- - Correct Answer -------- 6 months to 5 years What is the simplest way to screen for nutritional adequacy in older adults? -------- Correct Answer -------- measure their weight How are scabies treated? -------- Correct Answer -------- via permethrin and good hygiene What are common side effects of NSAIDs? -------- Correct Answer -------- renal impairment, acute renal failure, gastritis What is the most common cause of pernicious anemias? -------- Correct Answer -------- vitamin B12 deficiency How should oral iron supplements be taken? -------- Correct Answer -------- on an empty stomach with something acidic and high in calcium such as orange juice Group A strep pharyngitis can be accompanied by what symptoms other than the classic Centor criteria? -------- Correct Answer -------- abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting A stool specimen that is positive for WBCs is a sign of what? -------- Correct Answer ----- --- a viral or bacterial infection The only type of incontinence that would not benefit from pelvic floor therapy is what? --- ----- Correct Answer -------- overflow incontinence What do the skin manifestations of a penicillin allergy look like? -------- Correct Answer -- ------ hives What are symptoms that someone will experience as soon as they are started on a SSRI and when will this resolve? -------- Correct Answer -------- headache, nausea, insomnia, restlessness, agitation; will resolve in 2 weeks What causes the dry cough in people taking an ACEI? -------- Correct Answer -------- the buildup of bradykinin which is usually degraded by ACE ACEI induced coughs usually begin how soon after starting the medication? -------- Correct Answer -------- within 2 weeks COPD is often associated with what sequelae? -------- Correct Answer -------- anxiety and depression When should an antiviral be started in a patient with shingles? -------- Correct Answer --- ----- within 72 hours of the onset of symptoms What is the drug of choice for treating UTIs in male patients? -------- Correct Answer ----- --- bactrim for 7-10 days What is the leading cause of CKD and ESRD in the united states? -------- Correct Answer -------- diabetes What is the usual recommendation about administering MMR and varicella immunizations? -------- Correct Answer -------- they should be given on the same day or at least one month apart What are the classic symptoms of an atopic pregnancy? -------- Correct Answer -------- amenorrhea, vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain What is sideroblastic anemia? -------- Correct Answer -------- when the bone marrow is unable to incorporate iron into hemoglobin. This may be either inherited or acquired. Can a pregnant woman get the MMR vaccine while pregnant? -------- Correct Answer --- ----- yes Why are the carotid arteries auscultated for bruits? -------- Correct Answer -------- this is indicative of generalized atherosclerosis What is roseola? -------- Correct Answer -------- a viral exanthem characterized by a high fever for 3 days then abrupt stopping of the fever and a maculopapular rash that blanches. also known as exanthem subitum. What are signs indicative of a meningitis infection? -------- Correct Answer -------- Kernig and Brudzinski's signs Cancer in the bone marrow that results in skeletal destruction -------- Correct Answer ---- ---- multiple myeloma What is the average age of diagnosis of multiple myeloma? -------- Correct Answer ------- - 65 a skin disorder that causes the nose to enlarge and become red, bumpy, and bulbous -- ------ Correct Answer -------- rhinophyma What are physical exam findings common in alcohol abuse? -------- Correct Answer ------ -- tremors, macrocytosis (due to vitamin B12 and folate deficiencies common in alcoholics), hypertension, rhinophyma, peripheral neuropathy, teleangectasia, hepatosplenomegaly What is the first sign of sexual maturation in a male? -------- Correct Answer -------- an increase in testicular size (tanner stage 2) The inability to name a familiar object -------- Correct Answer -------- anomia What happens to a womans vital signs when she is in her second trimester of pregnancy? -------- Correct Answer -------- her blood pressure decreases What is the most common cause of acute pharyngitis in children? -------- Correct Answer -------- respiratory viruses A depressed patient is started on an SSRI. When should another antidepressant be tried if there is no response? -------- Correct Answer -------- 8-12 weeks If the number of bacteria on a urinalysis are greater than ____________________, this is indicative of a UTI. -------- Correct Answer -------- 100,000 What are signs of a ruptured TM other than the obviously ruptured TM? -------- Correct Answer -------- muffled hearing and bright red blood in the canal Which drug classes are responsible for causing urinary retention? -------- Correct Answer -------- antihistamines, TCAs, antispasmodics, bronchodilators, antipsychotics, carbidopa levodopa A 75 year old patient is experiencing progressive confusion and memory deterioration. Which condition mimics dementia that this patient should be tested for? -------- Correct Answer -------- neurosyphilis Which hormones in late pregnancy can block insulin and cause gestational diabetes? --- ----- Correct Answer -------- cortisol, estrogen, and placental lactogen Target shaped skin lesions as a result of a hypersensitivity reaction to certain infections and drugs -------- Correct Answer -------- erythema multiforme An abnormal growth of squamos epithelium in the middle ear and mastoid -------- Correct Answer -------- cholesteatoma The cremasteric reflex is assessed in infants for what purpose? -------- Correct Answer - ------- to assess for retractile testicles; this occurs when the reflex is too strong and it pulls the testicle out of the body and into the groin; this is normal and should go away by puberty Patient populations who may present atypically when having a MI include who? -------- Correct Answer -------- diabetics, females, elderly A disorder that results in the destruction of platelets due to an autoimmune response ---- ---- Correct Answer -------- idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura Pelvic inflammatory disease is most commonly caused by what? -------- Correct Answer -------- chlamydia and gonorrhea A protruding abdominal mass after bending over, lifting, or coughing, and is painful with coughing, is often what in adults? -------- Correct Answer -------- inguinal hernia Hiatal hernias cause what type of symptoms? -------- Correct Answer -------- GERD What is the name of an immature female gamete? -------- Correct Answer -------- oocyte The fused ovum and sperm once fertilization has occurred -------- Correct Answer -------- zygote What are conditions that are often co-occurring with alopecia areata? -------- Correct Answer -------- atopic dermatitis, vitiligo, thyroid disease, collagen-vascular diseases, Down syndrome The medical term for eczema -------- Correct Answer -------- atopic dermatitis The leading cause of death in infants under the age of 1 -------- Correct Answer -------- sudden unexplained infant death How is varicella zoster transmitted? -------- Correct Answer -------- via the respiratory tract The presence of pruritic papules, macules, and vesicles in various stages of healing ----- --- Correct Answer -------- varicella zoster What is presbycusis? -------- Correct Answer -------- age related hearing loss Age is the most common cause of presbycusis, but what other conditions may play a role in quickening the onset of this? -------- Correct Answer -------- white, infections, smoking, hypertenson, diabetes, vascular disease, immune disorders, hormonal factors The fascia layer of the male anatomy that the anterior 2/3s of the testicle resides in ------ -- Correct Answer -------- tunica vaginalis A subtype of strabismus that describes an inward turning of the eye -------- Correct Answer -------- esotropia The abducens nerve (CN VI) is responsible for what? -------- Correct Answer -------- lateral movement of the eye outward The trochlear nerve is responsible for what extraocular movement? -------- Correct Answer -------- down and inward movement What happens during the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle? -------- Correct Answer -------- FSH and LH increase which stimulate the production of estrogen. Ultimately, it is estrogen that prepares the uterus for ovum fertilization A superficial dermatophyte/fungal infection of the skin of the scalp, eyebrows, and eyelashes -------- Correct Answer -------- tinea capitis Bacterial invasion of the renal parenchyma -------- Correct Answer -------- pyelonephritis What is phimosis vs. paraphimosis? -------- Correct Answer -------- phimosis is tightening of the foreskin over the glans that prevents retraction; paraphimosis is when you can retract the foreskin but you can't pull it back up What is a common characteristic of a person with Graves disease? -------- Correct Answer -------- ophthalmopathy causing lymphocytes to infiltrate the extraocular muscle, resulting in paralysis of EOMs, involvement of the optic nerve, and corneal ulcers Which phase of the menstrual cycle begins with a surge in LH and FSH? -------- Correct Answer -------- ovulatory phase What is the pathophys of HIV? -------- Correct Answer -------- causes destruction of the CD4 T cells resulting in eventual immune suppression Cells within the epidermis that are primarily responsible for protecting the skin from UV rays in sunlight -------- Correct Answer -------- melanocytes Body lice primarily live where? -------- Correct Answer -------- on bedding and clothing, not people Body lice are vectors for which diseases? -------- Correct Answer -------- epidemic typhus, trench fever, relapsing fever Fifth disease is spread via how? -------- Correct Answer -------- respiratory droplets What are other names of fifth disease? -------- Correct Answer -------- parvovirus, slapped cheek disease What is the life span of lice? -------- Correct Answer -------- 30 days The hypersensitivity and pain crescendo experienced in conjunction with a migraine is thought to be related to the release of what? -------- Correct Answer -------- substance P; a neurotransmitter which functions as the pain transmitter of the dorsal horn and is responsible for causing nausea, vomiting, stress, and anxiety Where is the location of the tricuspid valve? -------- Correct Answer -------- separates the right atrium and ventricle What does a tricuspid regurgitation murmur sound like? -------- Correct Answer -------- best heard at the left sternal border, on both systole and diastole. Increases with inspiration When can you hear the murmur associated with pulmonic stenosis? -------- Correct Answer -------- mid-late systolic murmur When can you hear the murmur associated with aortic regurg? -------- Correct Answer -- ------ diastole only When can you hear the murmur associated with mitral valve stenosis? -------- Correct Answer -------- diastole only What EKG changes may be present during episodes of angina? -------- Correct Answer - ------- transient ST elevation, T wave changes such as inversions, ST depressionals, Q waves Where is acanthosis nigricans most likely to occur? -------- Correct Answer -------- axillae, neck, groin What causes subjective tinnitus? -------- Correct Answer -------- abnormal neuronal activity HIV produces cellular immunity deficiency by depleting what? -------- Correct Answer ---- ---- helper T cells What is the function of B cells in the immune system? -------- Correct Answer -------- development of antibodies When does the male fetus begin to produce testosterone and how? -------- Correct Answer -------- around 9 weeks gestation due to the Leydig cells What is the pathophys of Addison's disease? -------- Correct Answer -------- causes decreased or absent aldosterone levels resulting in increased excretion of sodium and water by the kidneys, and hyperkalemia What is the most serious complication of Addison's disease? -------- Correct Answer ----- --- acute adrenal insufficiency or adrenal crisis What are the 4 heart defects of Tetralogy of Fallot? -------- Correct Answer -------- VSD, right ventricular hypertrophy, overriding aorta, pulmonary stenosis What are the s/s of Kawasaki disease? -------- Correct Answer -------- think CREAM; conjunctivitis, rash, erythema of hands and soles of feet, adenopathy (cervical), mucous membranes (strawberry tongue) A palpable softening of the cervical isthmus during pregnancy -------- Correct Answer ---- ---- Hegar's sign A bluish tint to the vagina and cervix due to increased vascularity during pregnancy ------ -- Correct Answer -------- Chadwick's sign What is Paget's disease? -------- Correct Answer -------- where there is abnormal bone destruction or growth of bone. It is also a malignant disease of the breast. Does Meniere's disease result in hearing loss? -------- Correct Answer -------- yes, gradual but progressive sensorineural hearing loss What is another term for chronic bladder pain syndrome? -------- Correct Answer -------- interstitial cystitis What classifies someone as having "prediabetes"? -------- Correct Answer -------- hgba1c between 5.7 and 6.4 What classifies someone as having diabetes? -------- Correct Answer -------- hgba1c 6.5 or greater A reduction in vision in one or both eyes causing loss of binocular vision -------- Correct Answer -------- amblyopia What is Brudzinski's sign? -------- Correct Answer -------- the patient lies supine and the NP flexes the patients neck forward. If both hips and knees flex at the same time, this is indicative of meningitis A child presents with erythematous papules and vesicles, that are weeping, oozing, and crusty. They are located all over the forehead, wrists, elbows, and backs of knees. What is this most likely to be? -------- Correct Answer -------- atopic dermatitis In older adults, what is an audible S3 sound usually a sign of? -------- Correct Answer --- ----- left ventricular hypertrophy from heart failure, or cardiomyopathy How is cervical radiculopathy different from cervical myelopathy? -------- Correct Answer -------- in radiculopathy, there is nerve root compression that results in burning pain and n/t in the neck and one arm. In myelopathy, there is pain with bilateral weakness and n/t in both the upper and lower extremities Other than scratching the medial aspect of the thigh, how else can we elicit the cremasteric reflex in a child? -------- Correct Answer -------- have them sit cross legged and blow into a balloon. This will increase intraabdominal pressure and stimulate the reflex. What is the Lachman's test and what does it identify? -------- Correct Answer -------- used to assess for ACL tear; the knee is held passively at 30 degrees flexed and then one hand stabilizes the femur while the other applies a gentle anterior force to the proximal tibia. If it moves beyond it's normal ROM, there may be an ACL tear When should the testicles fully descend into the scrotum by in an infant? -------- Correct Answer -------- 6 months of age. If not descended by this time, then refer to Urology at 6 months although surgical correction (orchipexy) may not be performed until 1 year What is another name for the moro reflex? -------- Correct Answer -------- the startle reflex; both arms should extend outwards when this is positive If a moro reflex in an infant is only positive in one arm, then what do you need to consider? -------- Correct Answer -------- examine the clavicle for a potential fracture Which model is used to designate risk factors for melanoma? -------- Correct Answer ---- ---- think HARMM; history, age, regular dermatologist absent, mole changing, male gender What is a sign of an ankle fracture on physical exam? -------- Correct Answer -------- point tenderness over the posterior malleolus with an inability to bear weight after 4 or more steps What is an acoustic neuroma? -------- Correct Answer -------- something pressing, likely a tumor, on the acoustic nerve that results in dizziness, loss of balance, facial numbness, hearing loss, and tinnitus The axillary lymph nodes drain lymphatic fluid from where? -------- Correct Answer ------- - breast, upper abdomen, upper back, pectoral region, and upper limbs International travelers to endemic areas are at a risk for what form of hepatitis? -------- Correct Answer -------- hepatitis A because it can be transmitted through contaminated food or drink Adrenarche is the early presence of pubic hair in girls aged __________ -------- Correct Answer -------- 5-8 years old A condition that presents with symptomatic limb ischemia upon exertion is termed: ------- - Correct Answer -------- atherosclerotic peripheral arterial disease The largest salivary gland is the parotid gland, and where does it drain to? -------- Correct Answer -------- Stensen's duct which has an opening on the buccal mucosa opposite the second molar The varus stress test assesses for a tear in which part of the lower extremities? -------- Correct Answer -------- lateral meniscus The valgus stress test assesses for a tear in which part of the lower extremities? -------- Correct Answer -------- medical meniscus To evaluate the uterus during a bimanual exam, the examiner would lubricate the index and middle fingers of one hand and insert them into the vagina. The other hand would be placed on the abdomen where? -------- Correct Answer -------- about midway betwee the umbilicus and symphysis pubis while elevating the cervix and uterus with the other hand A feeling of constantly needing to pass stool -------- Correct Answer -------- tenesmus Severe constipation resulting from intestinal obstruction -------- Correct Answer -------- obstipation What does the vaginal discharge associated with trich look like? -------- Correct Answer - ------- profuse, yellowish green that is malodorous Which part of the spine controls the ankle DTRs? -------- Correct Answer -------- sacral nerve 1 Which part of the spine controls the knee DTRs? -------- Correct Answer -------- lumbar nerves 2, 3, 4 Which part of the spine controls the biceps DTRs? -------- Correct Answer -------- cervical nerves 5 and 6 Which part of the spine controls the triceps DTRs? -------- Correct Answer -------- cervical nerves 6 and 7 What are s/s of carpal tunnel syndrome? -------- Correct Answer -------- dropping objects, unable to twist lids off of jars, aching at the wrist or forearm, numbness of the first 3 digits of the hand Which movement indicates a nuchal rigidity sign when working a patient up for meningitis? -------- Correct Answer -------- neck stiffness and resistance when flexing the neck forward What is Kernig's sign? -------- Correct Answer -------- flex the patients leg at both the hip and the knee, then straighten the knee. Pain and resistance to extension of the knee are positive for meningitis. A patient who is unable to touch his left scapula with his right hand likely has what? ----- --- Correct Answer -------- a rotator cuff tear A widened pulse pressure greater than or equal to 60 in an older adult is a risk factor for what? -------- Correct Answer -------- cardiovascular disease, stroke, renal disease The ethmoidal sinuses are located where? -------- Correct Answer -------- between the eyes Where do the sphenoid sinuses lie? -------- Correct Answer -------- just behind the ethmoid sinuses Where do the maxillary sinuses lie? -------- Correct Answer -------- around the nasal cavity What describes a stage III pressure ulcer? -------- Correct Answer -------- full thickness tissue loss and subcutanous fat may be present, but bone, tendon, or muscle are not exposed Dislocation of the elbow joint caused by the sudden pull on the extended pronated forearm -------- Correct Answer -------- nursemaid's elbow Localized tenderness over the ankle joint is a sign of what? -------- Correct Answer ------- - a ligamentous injury; point tenderness and inability to bear weight is more of a sign of an ankle fracture Describe renal adaptation of the newborn -------- Correct Answer -------- the kidneys are structurally complete but physiologically immature. the infant is at increased risk of metabolic acidosis due to the kidneys inability to concentrate urine and adapt to fluid and electrolyte stress Where is the best place to locate the twelfth rib? -------- Correct Answer -------- between the spine and lateral chest What is biliary colic? -------- Correct Answer -------- pain in the epigastric region or RUQ that radiates to the right scapula or shoulder; indicative of cholecystitis Costochondritis occurs when there is inflammation of the cartilage where? -------- Correct Answer -------- that connects the ribs to the sternum What aggravates costochondritis? -------- Correct Answer -------- movement of the chest, trunk, and arms Which segments of the spine control the plantar reflexes? -------- Correct Answer -------- lumbar 5 and sacral 1 A softening of the skin at the angles of the mouth which may be due to nutritional deficiency -------- Correct Answer -------- angular cheilitis Angular cheilitis can be caused by what? -------- Correct Answer -------- nutritional deficiency What causes actinic cheilitis? -------- Correct Answer -------- excessive exposure to sunlight; most often affects the lower lip Intention tremors appear with movement and worsen when? -------- Correct Answer ------ -- as the target gets closer Nausea, diaphoresis, and pallor triggered by a fearful or unpleasant event -------- Correct Answer -------- vasovagal syncope Which conditions are known to cause polyuria? -------- Correct Answer -------- lithium toxicity, uncontrolled diabetes, disorders of the posterior pituitary and hypothalamus (hypogonadism), and hypokalemic nephropathy Breath sounds heard over the periphery of the lung fields are what? -------- Correct Answer -------- vesicular; they are quiet and wispy What do bronchovesicular breath sounds sound like? -------- Correct Answer -------- full inspiratory phase with a shortened and quieter expiratory phase Thenar atrophy suggests what? -------- Correct Answer -------- a median nerve disorder Does the ulnar nerve innervate the pinky or the thumb? -------- Correct Answer -------- pinky The pregnant woman who has a BMI of less than 18.5 should gain how many pounds in pregnancy? -------- Correct Answer -------- 28-40 pounds The pregnant woman who has a BMI of 18.5-24.9 (normal) should gain how many pounds in pregnancy? -------- Correct Answer -------- 25-35 pounds The pregnant woman who has a BMI of 25-29.9 (overweight) should gain how many pounds in pregnancy? -------- Correct Answer -------- 15-25 pounds The pregnant woman with a BMI over 30 should gain how many pounds in pregnancy? - ------- Correct Answer -------- 11-20 pounds A BMI of less than _____ is considered underweight -------- Correct Answer -------- 18.5 The term used to refer to skin that is peeling -------- Correct Answer -------- exfoliation What will a basal cell carcinoma on the eyelid look like? -------- Correct Answer -------- papule with an ulcerated center, most often on the lower lid and medial canthus What is Rovsing's sign? -------- Correct Answer -------- positive for appendicitis; palpation on the LLQ elicits pain in the RLQ What causes plantar warts? -------- Correct Answer -------- human papillomavirus; usually occur on the sole of the foot In second degree uterine prolapse, where is the cervix located? -------- Correct Answer - ------- at the introitus In third degree uterine prolapse, where is the cervix located? -------- Correct Answer ----- --- both the cervix and vagina are outside the introitus The anterior cervical lymph node chain is located where? -------- Correct Answer -------- anterior and superficial to the sternocleidomastoid muscle How do we diagnose a migraine headache? -------- Correct Answer -------- if 3 of the 5 POUND symptoms are present: pulsatile or throbbing, one day duration or 4-72 hours if left untreated, unilateral, nausea or vomiting, disabiling or intense causing interruption of daily activity