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A series of multiple-choice questions covering various aspects of human resources management (hrm), including legal compliance, employee relations, recruitment, compensation, and benefits. Each question is followed by the correct answer, providing a valuable resource for students preparing for the aphr exam or those seeking to enhance their understanding of hrm principles.
Typology: Exams
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Employers are required to pay Social Security according to: a) ERISA b) FICA c) OWBPA d) ADEA - CORRECT ANSWERS-b) FICA employers are legally required by the Federal Insurance Contribution Act of 1935 (FICA) to provide Social Security to their employees. Identifying internal and external factors that drive a company's strategies, goals, and decisions is called __________. a) forecasting b) quantitative research c) environmental scanning d) operational strategizing - CORRECT ANSWERS-C) environmental scanning When more stimulating and rewarding work is added to a job during redesign, this is called: a) job simplification b) job enlargement c) job enrichment d) job creation - CORRECT ANSWERS-c) job enrichment Which approach to job design focuses attention on a worker's comfort, whether it be with the equipment he or she uses or the work environment's noise level? a) mechanistic b) biological c) motivational d) perceptual-motor - CORRECT ANSWERS-b) biological Which element of a PEST (or, STEP) analysis is primarily concerned with demographics? a) Political b) Economic c) Social d) Technological - CORRECT ANSWERS-c) social
Which of the following are mostly used to assess the company as a whole? a) PEST (or, STEP) analysis b) SWOT analysis c) Demographic analysis d) All of the above - CORRECT ANSWERS-b) SWOT Analysis Which of the following best describes what an HR manager does when performing a ratio analysis? a) makes predictions about how technological advances will change workforce needs b) makes predictions about what skills new employees will need in the coming year c) uses historical information to predict staffing needs d) collects information from professionals to reach a consensus about a problem - CORRECT ANSWERS-c) uses historical information to predict staffing needs A ratio analysis is a means for determining whether an organization has enough employees to meet the requirements of the company, and it involves using historical information to make predictions about the workforce needs in the organization's future. When is an employee permitted to waive their rights under the Older Worker Benefit Protection Act? a) After being given 45 days to consider the agreement b) After being given 21 days to consider the agreement c) Only in circumstances where the employee is part of a group termination d) Employers are never able to waive their rights under the OWBPA - CORRECT ANSWERS-b) After being given 21 days to consider the agreement Griggs V. Duke Power established the judicial concept of: a) protected classes b) arbitration c) disparate impact d) disparate treatment - CORRECT ANSWERS-c) disparate impact The legal requirement that samples collected for drug testing be carefully tracked and documented is referred to as: a) double negative b) false positive c) chain of custody d) validity - CORRECT ANSWERS-c) chain of custody
Employees may sometimes be terminated for failing drug or alcohol tests. To protect the reliability of those tests, a log must be kept of each person who was responsible for the sample from the time it is collected from the employee until it is tested at the appropriate facility. When unemployment levels are high, which of the following is most likely to be the case during the hiring process? a) recruitment will be easy b) recruitment will be difficult c) turnover will be high d) turnover will be low - CORRECT ANSWERS-a) recruitment will be easy In these cases, it is likely that there will be a lot of interest from potential candidates, so recruitment will be relatively easy. Which executive order added the identity classifier "sex" to the list of protected groups, thereby making it illegal to discriminate against employees on the basis of sex? a) EO 11375 b) EO 11246 c) EO 11333 d) EO 11478 - CORRECT ANSWERS-a) EO 11375 The correct answer is A. EO 11375, issued by President Johnson in 1967, added "sex" to the list of protected classes covered by EO 11246. Which of the following is true regarding the EEOC and the timeliness of complaints? a) in most cases, complaints must be filed immediately after the alleged incident b) in most cases, complaints must be filed within 180 days of the alleged incident c) in most cases, complaints must be filed within 3 years of the alleged incident d) complaints may be filed at any time; there's no restriction on how long an employee can wait to file a complaint - CORRECT ANSWERS-b) in most cases, complaints must be filed within 180 days of the alleged incident Strict time limits apply to claims filed with the EEOC. Most claims must be filed within 180 days from the date of the alleged discrimination. Griggs v. Duke Power established the judicial concept of: a) protected classes b) adverse impact c) disparate treatment
d) minimum wage - CORRECT ANSWERS-b) adverse impact The case of Griggs v. Duke Power established that discrimination could occur unintentionally, but that an employer is responsible for that discrimination nonetheless. In which of the following circumstances would outsourcing be most likely to be a good decision? a) when the outsourced task is one of the functions the organization believes differentiates it from its competitors b) when the outsourced task is not among the organization's core competencies c) when it would be more costly to have the task performed by employees d) when the outsourced task could be accomplished with better quality by employees as the organization - CORRECT ANSWERS-b) when the outsourced task is not among the organization's core competencies Outsourcing describes the increasingly common practice of paying an outside company to perform some specialized business function that is not within the main company's core competencies. The Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures require that employment tests are: a) reliable b) valid c) both reliable and valid d) neither reliable nor valid - CORRECT ANSWERS-c) both reliable and valid This executive order exempted federal contractors who are religious or community organizations from the requirements of EO 11246. a) EO 13279 b) EO 11333 c) EO 11375 d) EO 11478 - CORRECT ANSWERS-a) EO 13279 The correct answer is A. EO 13279, issued by President George W. Bush in 2002, exempted federal contractors who are religious or community organizations from the requirements of EO 11246. Which of the following job announcements would be most appropriate for external recruiting? a) job bidding b) job posting c) succession planning
d) posting the position on a community site - CORRECT ANSWERS-d) posting the position on a community site External recruiting involves making the position and associated job description available to people outside the organization. This is typically done using a combination of media sources, job boards, community sites, and social media platforms. Which of the following requires that employment exams test skills that are relevant to the job that is being applied for? a) content validity b) predictive validity c) concurrent validity d) construct validity - CORRECT ANSWERS-a) content validity A pay for performance plan is best used to promote: a) pay equity b) collaboration between managers and employees c) longevity d) increased output - CORRECT ANSWERS-d) increased output One of the benefits of pay for performance is that it can motivate high performance and cut company costs in the event of low performance. According to FMLA, when must an employee provide notice of leave to an employer? a) an employee is never required to provide notice before taking family leave b) one week prior to the leave if it can be reasonably anticipated c) 30 days prior to the leave if it can be reasonably anticipated d) 60 days prior to the leave if it can be reasonably anticipated - CORRECT ANSWERS-c) 30 days prior to the leave if it can be reasonably anticipated Employers may require that all paid leave be used before unpaid leave begins, and can request 30 days notice when that is practical. Long term disability benefits are available when: a) a person does not want to exhaust his sick leave b) a person does not want to use her short-term disability insurance c) sick leave and short-term benefits are exhausted d) there is no such thing as long-term disability insurance - CORRECT ANSWERS-c) sick leave and short-term benefits are exhausted Summary plans are required for: a) all health plans
b) group health plans c) flexible benefits d) defined-benefit plans - CORRECT ANSWERS-b) group health plans The Employee Retirement Income Security Act requires that summary plan descriptions be provided for group health plans. Which employees should have similar compa-ratios? a) employees with similar skills b) employees with similar responsibilities c) employees with similar levels of seniority d) all of the above - CORRECT ANSWERS-d) all of the above Which of the following employees is entitled to time off according to the FMLA with the understanding that they'd be instated upon their return? a) A secretary at a company that employs 10 people who is caring for an elderly parent b) An executive who is among the 5 percent of employees who are most highly compensated at a corporation who wants to spend time with a spouse with a terminal illness c) An employee who has been with a company for 10 months and is adopting a child d) An administrative assistant working an average of 30 hours a week who needs to care for a sick parent - CORRECT ANSWERS-d) An administrative assistant working an average of 30 hours a week who needs to care for a sick parent Which of the following is an example of deferred compensation? a) compressed work schedules b) ESPP c) flexible work weeks d) stock options - CORRECT ANSWERS-d) stock options Stock options are a form of deferred payment that can be traded for shares of the company's stock at some point in the future. Which of the following is not a legally mandated benefit? a) social security b) paid time off c) workers' compensation d) unemployment compensation - CORRECT ANSWERS-b) paid time off Which of the following would result in imputed income? a) group life insurance over $50, b) group life insurance under $50,
c) dental Insurance d) flexible work schedules - CORRECT ANSWERS-a) group life insurance over $50, Some benefits must be treated as income for tax purposes. Imputed income is the value of a service or benefit received by the employee that must be treated as income for the purpose of taxes and reporting earnings to the Internal Revenue Service. Group life insurance over $50,000 is imputed income. An organization is considering implementing a new comprehensive training program. Which of the following should they do first? a) They should consider whether funds are available for the program b) They should conduct a needs assessment c) They should consider whether anyone on the staff is capable of conducting the training d) They should consider the value of bringing training experts in from other organizations - CORRECT ANSWERS-b) They should conduct a needs assessment What is the last step in conducting a training needs analysis? a) Budgetary estimations b) Carrying out the training c) Identifying the performance gap to be addressed d) Identifying solutions - CORRECT ANSWERS-b) Carrying out the training The answer is 'identifying the performance gap to be addressed' because all of the answers refer to aspects of training programs that are not part of a training needs analysis. Which of the following best describes HR intervention known as Management by Objectives (MBO)? a) This is a method for developing training programs b) This intervention aims to align measurements of employee performance with the organization's goals c) This is an employee discipline method that aims to treat employees fairly and provide employees with an opportunity to correct problematic behavior d) This is a quality management program that holds managers responsible for the quality of an organization's performance - CORRECT ANSWERS-b) This intervention aims to align measurements of employee performance with the organization's goals Which of the following is most likely the goal of cross-training? a) that employees will become experts in all areas in an organization
b) that employees will come to see the work their colleagues do as simple and unimportant c) that employees will work collaboratively d) that employees will be able to fill in for each other - CORRECT ANSWERS- c) that employees will work collaboratively Moving employees through a range of jobs can increase interest and motivation, as well as encourage employees to work collaboratively with one another. When employees develop a wider range of skills, managers have more options and flexibility in scheduling work and filling open jobs. It is possible that cross-training may sometimes make it possible for employees to fill in for one another, but this will be a relatively rare outcome of job rotation. Employees will not gain the level of expertise necessary for fulfilling a job through cross-training alone. Which training type takes place in a classroom and replicates the work environment and equipment? a) simulation b) vestibule training c) internship d) apprenticeship - CORRECT ANSWERS-b) vestibule training Vestibule training takes place away from the jobsite in order to shelter the employee from the pressures of the actual work. All of the following are phases of training evaluation EXCEPT: a) reaction b) learning c) behavior d) implementation - CORRECT ANSWERS-d) implementation Implementation takes place before the evaluation of a training program. A competitive way to shrink the market or leverage resources can be from a __________. a) contract manufacturer b) merger or acquisition c) outsourcing d) divestiture - CORRECT ANSWERS-b) merger or acquisition When an employee is accused of misconduct, which of the following actions should take place first: a) the employee should be terminated immediately b) the employee's peers should be informed c) a polygraph test should be administered
d) the complainant should be interviewed - CORRECT ANSWERS-d) the complainant should be interviewed An employee misconduct investigation should begin with a precise definition of what conduct or behavior is being investigated, and what evidence is needed to prove the alleged misconduct. This will typically require that the person alleging the misconduct be interviewed. Which act guaranteed the right of workers to form unions and bargain as a union with their employers? a) Sherman Antitrust Act b) Railway Labor Act c) Clayton Antitrust Act d) Wagner Act - CORRECT ANSWERS-d) Wagner Act the Wagner Act, also known as the National Labor Relations Act, guaranteed the right of workers to form unions and bargain as a union with their employers. It created the National Labor Relations Board to arbitrate deadlocked labor disputes, ensure democratic union elections, and penalize unfair labor practices by employers. Which of the following is true regarding employer responsibility and hostile work environment harassment? a) Employers are always responsible for hostile work environment harassment. b) Employers are responsible for hostile work environment harassment if they know about it or should have known about it, and employers do not take appropriate action. c) Employers are only responsible for hostile work environment harassment in cases where an employee files charges or a formal complaint, and the employer does not take appropriate action. d) Employers are never responsible for hostile work environment harassment. - CORRECT ANSWERS-b) Employers are responsible for hostile work environment harassment if they know about it or should have known about it, and employers do not take appropriate action. Legally speaking, employers are considered liable if they knew or should have known about the occurrence of hostile work environment harassment and failed to take appropriate corrective action. Which of the following would most likely result in a tort? a) fulfilling a contract b) constructive discharge c) creating an affirmative action plan
d) developing a training program - CORRECT ANSWERS-b) constructive discharge A tort is an alleged violation of duty or contract that results in civil legal liability. Constructive discharge occurs when an employer makes working conditions so unbearable that an employee feels they must quit a job, and so an employee who ends a working relationship on the basis of constructive discharge may feel the employer has violated a duty or obligation and pursue legal recourse. All of the following are true of independent contractors EXCEPT: a) independent contractors are responsible for paying their own Social Security taxes b) employers are required to pay overtime c) employers are not required to pay for on-call time d) independent contractors are responsible for submitting their own state and federal taxes - CORRECT ANSWERS-b) employers are required to pay overtime Continuation of coverage under COBRA need not be extended to employees who: a) resign b) are terminated c) are laid off d) are on medical leave - CORRECT ANSWERS-d) are on medical leave COBRA requires employers to extend a health care coverage purchase option after an employee is terminated, laid off, or resigns. Essential job functions listed in a job description should focus on: a) skills b) personality traits c) the manner in which a job will be completed d) desired outcomes - CORRECT ANSWERS-d) desired outcomes The job description states the tasks performed on the job and the purpose of the job. However, employees should avoid specifying exactly how those outcomes should be brought about, or else they may inadvertently discriminate against qualified applicants. How many credits must an employee earn by contributing to the Old Age, Survivors, and Disability Insurance program in order to retire and collect a percentage of their income?
a) 100 b) 60 c) 40 d) 10 - CORRECT ANSWERS-c) 40 Employees may earn up to four credits a year for their contributions, and employees who have earned at least 40 credits are eligible to retire and collect a percentage of their income from Social Security. It is necessary to pay overtime to: a) telecommuting employees b) employees who work less than 40 hours a week c) employees who work on a Saturday d) exempt employees - CORRECT ANSWERS-a) telecommuting It is necessary to pay overtime to telecommuting employees once they have reached the maximum level within the company's payscale. What determines the strategic goals of HR? a) the values of the employees managed by the HR department b) the goals of the organization c) the goals of competitive organizations d) the values of HR managers - CORRECT ANSWERS-b) the goals of the organization What would an employer use an OSHA Form 300 for? a) to provide more information about work-related illnesses and injuries, including what injured employees were doing before each incident b) to report particular incidents of work-related illnesses or injuries and illnesses c) to review all work-related injuries and illnesses that take place at a worksite over the course of a year d) to detail the employer's response to a particular work-related illness or injury - CORRECT ANSWERS-b) to report particular incidents of work-related illnesses or injuries and illnesses OSHA Form 300, also known as the log of work-related injuries and illnesses, is used to report work-related injuries and illnesses. On this form, an employer records information about the type of injury or illness, how the injury or illness was caused, identifying information about the individual who was injured or became ill, and where and when the injury or illness took place. This form must be completed within a week of the employer's coming to be aware of the incident.
Which of the following best describes what an HR manager does when replacement charting? a) categorize employees into groups based on their futures at the organization b) plan for the promotion of employees with no interest in supervisory positions c) recruit employees to fill positions internally d) recruit applicants to fill positions externally - CORRECT ANSWERS-a) categorize employees into groups based on their futures at the organization Which of the following best describes what an HR manager does when succession planning? a) categorize employees into groups based on their futures at the organization b) plan for the promotion of employees with no interest in supervisory positions c) plan for the promotion of employees with supervisory potential d) recruit applicants to fill positions externally - CORRECT ANSWERS-c) plan for the promotion of employees with supervisory potential Which of the following describes a tool with four categories managers use for grouping employees who need to be replaced? a) Job bidding b) Succession plan c) Dual career ladder d) Replacement chart - CORRECT ANSWERS-d) Replacement chart Which of the following is a strategic role played by human resource management? a) managing employee records b) aligning HR priorities when organizations are in the process of restructuring c) administering employee benefits d) conducting performance appraisals - CORRECT ANSWERS-b) aligning HR priorities when organizations are in the process of restructuring Operational tasks tend to focus more on the day-to-day management of employees. Strategic tasks, on the other hand, tend to have more to do with the organization's future and assisting in meeting long-term goals. Which of the following provides a complete measure of how much each employee costs an organization?
a) cost per hire b) HR value added c) total compensation expense per employee d) human capital ROI - CORRECT ANSWERS-c) total compensation expense per employee The Total Compensation Expense Per Employee is a more complete measure of the financial cost of each worker. It is compensation cost plus benefits cost divided by the total number of full-time employees. Which type of analysis considers how both internal and external factors serve as benefits and obstacles for an organization? a) time series analysis b) SWOT analysis c) cost-benefit analysis d) innovation metric - CORRECT ANSWERS-b) SWOT Analysis A SWOT (strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats) analysis focuses on identifying factors both within and outside of an organization that will impact its performance. Which type of analysis focuses exclusively on external factors that affect a business, like the political and legal environment? a) PEST analysis b) SWOT analysis c) cost-benefit analysis d) innovation metric - CORRECT ANSWERS-a) PEST Analysis The letters that make up the acronym PEST stand for political, economic, social, and technological. These are all factors that could help determine what threats and opportunities an organization faces. __________ is a term that describes a person or entity that is not directly involved in a transaction. a) Partnership b) Overhead c) Co-source d) Third party - CORRECT ANSWERS-d) third party PEST (or STEP) analysis is nearly completed after distributing a(n) __________, which can help executives understand the general skill set of employees. a) internal assessment b) after-action report
c) external assessment d) report log - CORRECT ANSWERS-a) internal assessment Price competition is a concern for the '__________' force of Porter's Five Forces. a) Intensity of rivalry among competing firms b) Threat of new entrants c) Bargaining power of vendors/suppliers d) Bargaining power of firm's customers - CORRECT ANSWERS-a) Intensity of rivalry among competing firms What is the IRS 20-Factor test used to determine? a) if an employee is entitled to health insurance b) if an employee is entitled to a pension fund c) if an individual is an employee or an independent contractor d) how much an employer should withhold for federal taxes - CORRECT ANSWERS-c) if an individual is an employee or an independent contractor The IRS 20-factor test is used to determine whether someone paid to complete work for an organization is a proper employee or an independent contractor. The weight of each factor in determining whether a worker is an employee or an independent contractor varies from case to case, depending on the services rendered. When HR takes on a strategic role, line managers become responsible for: a) day-to-day operational tasks involved with managing people b) strategic planning c) HR alignment d) the company code of ethics - CORRECT ANSWERS-a) day-to-day operational tasks involved with managing people