Download 2024 ASET QUESTIONS EXAM WITH 100% DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS GUARANTEED PASS and more Exams Engineering in PDF only on Docsity! 2024 ASET QUESTIONS EXAM WITH 100% DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS GUARANTEED PASS Ampere The basic unit for measuring current flow is___ Ohm The basic unit of resistance is___ a. R=EI or R=VI Which of the following is NOT a valid expression of Ohm's law? a. R=EI or R=VI b. E=IR or V=IR c. I=E/R or I=V/R d. R=E/I or R=V/I b. Volts Which of the following is not a unit for measuring alternating frequencies? a. Cycles per second b. Volts c. Hertz d. Kilocycles d. Stores energy Which of the following describes the action of a capacitor? a. Opposes changes in current flow b. Converts alternating current to direct current c. Creates a direct current resistance d. Stores energy Filter A circuit that allows some frequencies to pass through it, while others are blocked is a ___ Amplifier A combination of electronic components designed to increase the power, voltage or current of a signal___ noise A small fluctuating output recorded by the EEG instrument even when there is no input signal is called___ Upward The EEG amplifier is designed so that when input 1 is more negative than input 2, the deflection will be___ The characteristic of an amplifier that rejects external interference Common Mode Rejection is___ d. 0.1 Hz Which of the following is most attenuated by a low frequency filter of 1Hz? a. 0.5Hz b. 5.0Hz c. 10Hz d. 0.1Hz For the deflection to fall(decay) to 37% of the peak deflection Time constant is defined as the time required___ Between 25 and 35 mm/second horizontal scaling and a MINIMUM of 100 data points/second to accurately display EEG on the monitor screen According to ACNS guidelines, Recording clinical EEG on Digital media requires monitors to have___ b. LF 5.0Hz and HF 15Hz The filters creating a very narrow band pass that should rarely be used clinically are a. LF 5.0HZ and HF 70HZ b. LF 5.0HZ and HF 15HZ c. LF 0.1HZ and HF 70HZ d. LF 0.1HZ and HF 15HZ no effect on the activity being recorded During the recording of cerebral activity, the calibration input voltage is changed from 50uV to 100uV. What will be the result? 112uV A spike is printed out on paper and measures 16mm peak to peak, the sensitivity is 7uV/mm and a calibration signal of 50uV causes a deflection of 7.1mm. What is the voltage of the spike? 200uV representation of the motor and sensory cortex of the brain The homunculus is a ___ Hypothalamus and thalamus The diencephalon is composed of___ brainstem The midbrain, pons, and medulla comprise the___ store multiple files in a centrak server One benefit to networking EEG instruments in the ability to___ Respiration and regulation of heart rate Two important functions of the medulla are___ is the major sensory nerve of the face The trigeminal nerve___ Between 2 layers of the meninges A subarachnoid hemorrhage occurs___ medulla The cardiovascular and respiratory centers for automatic control of heart rate and respiration are found in the___ Contralateral lower extremity weakness Thrombosis of the anterior cerebral artery is most likely due to cause___ left sided paralysis, primarily of the face and arm Thrombosis of the right middle cerebral artery would most likely cause___ Opening between lateral ventricles and third ventricle of the brain The foramen of Munro is the ___ b. depolarization An action potential is an immediate result of which of the following changes in the neural membrane? a. repolarization b. depolarization c. hyper polarization d. IPSP 50-100mV with the inside of the cell more negative than the outside The resting potential of a neuron is___ The sensitivity should be decreased (from 7 uV/mm to 10/15 uV/mm If a seizure discharge causes the waveforms in the channels to square off and run into each other, what should be done? Meningitis Inflammation of the coverings of the brain or spinal cord is called___ Medulloblastoma A malignant tumor primarily seen in children may be ___ Concussion The most common symptoms of which type of injury are a temporary loss of consciousness, followed by confusion, severe headache, and possibly amnesia for the accident? Meningitis Which infection is most likely to produce headache, fever, nuchal rigidity, coma, and death? Huntington's chorea The "dance-like" movements of the head and extremities may be exhibited in a patient with which hereditary degenerative disease? Phenylketonuria Without dietetic treatment, this hereditary disease may cause mental retardation and infantile spasms. third Herniation of the uncus results in compression of which cranial nerve? Von Recklinghousen's disease Cafe-au-lait spots and neurofibromas are associated with___ Parkinsonism Substantia nigra is affected in what disorder? Sturge-Weber Syndrome Port wine stain is associated with___ One Million bytes A megabyte of memory is approximately equal to ___ d. Parkinson's Disease Which of the following conditions is characterized by rigidity, tremors and festination? a. Huntington's chorea b. Alzheimer's disease c. Friedreich's ataxia d. Parkinson's disease difficulty moving the right half of the body A patient complaining of right hemiplegia will have___ Comprehending the meaning of words or phrases A patient with sensory aphasia will have difficulty___ locked-in syndrome What term is used to describe brainstem injury in a patient who is completely paralyzed except for vertical eye movements? cerebral spinal fluid The term 'xanthochromic" is usually used in reference to___ Involuntary twitching of muscle fibers Fasciculation refers to___ The patient's degree of consciousness The Glasgow scale is used to determine___ Speech dominance WADA testing is done to determine___ Visualizing the metabolism of the brain Positron emission tomography (PET) is used for___ Brainstem auditory evoked potential This test is useful in the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis, pontine angle tumors, coma and brain death ventricular excitation of the myocardium QRS complex refers to___ observe universal precautions When performing an EEG for evaluation of a central nervous system disease that may have infectious etiology, the technologist should___ A diagnosis of an astrocytoma in the left frontal lobe is most likely to produce which of the following EEG findings? a. generalized polymorphic delta activity b. focal delta activity in the right hemisphere c. left frontal spike activity d. left frontal burst suppression polymorphic delta activity This type of EEG activity most often appears in association with rapidly growing tumors such as glioblastoma multiforme and cerebral metastatic lesions may or may not be present in a normal EEG recording Photic driving___ hyperventilation Activation of an absence seizure is most consistently obtained during___ during Stage I sleep Interictal discharges in patients with complex partial seizures are most likely to be recorded in the EEG___ higher amplitude activity over the affected area When recorded from over or near a burr hole, the EEG may show___ generalized epilepsies and syndromes The International Classification of Epilepsies and Epileptic Syndromes places juvenile myoclonic epilepsy under what category? a. nonreactive continuous alpha Which of the following EEG patterns carries a poor prognosis and is often the result of a respiratory or cardiac arrest? a. nonreactive continuous alpha b. hypsarrythmia c. frontal intermittent rhythmic delta (FIRDA) d. continuous spindles d. an atypical distribution of alpha Which of the following is related to an alpha coma pattern? a. reactivity to external stimuli b. usually indicates a good prognosis c. is only present when the patient is alert and oriented d. an atypical distribution of alpha 2.0uV Electrocerebral inactivity is defined as no electrical activity greater than___ narcolepsy The triad of cataplexy, sleep paralysis, and hypnagogic hallucinations is seen in___ sleep apnea The sleep disorder that occurs most commonly in the adult population is___ quantify the patient's sleepiness and identify REM onset The purpose of the multiple sleep latency test (MSLT) is to___ d. MSLT (Multiple Sleep Latency Test) Of the following, which would be the most beneficial in evaluating suspected narcolepsy? a. pneumoencephalography b. electroencephalography c. all night polysomnography d. MSLT frontal Central beta Benzodiazepines such as Ativan, at therapeutic levels can cause___ A slowing in the background alpha The drug phenytoin (Dilantin) will have little effect on the EEG at therapeutic levels, however when approaching toxic levels the drug can cause what EEG change? WADA test Sodium amytal is used for___ a. increased beta then intermixed theta then delta, with burst suppression if anesthesia is deep enough Increasing depth of anesthesia causes which of the following sequences of EEG changes? a. increased beta then intermixed theta then delta, with burst suppression if anesthesia is deep enough b. burst suppression then delta then theta c. loss of alpha then increased theta then widespread beta d. delta then widespread beta then burst suppression a. antidepressants Which of the following medications can commonly cause increased theta and beta activity at therapeutic doses? a. antidepressants b. chloral hydrate c. analgesics d. antihistamines Inability to simultaneously sample multiple channels of EEG Sampling skew is a problem with early digital EEG instruments caused by___ Insufficient sampling rate Aliasing is caused by___ number of data points that are stored to record a signal in each second across time Horizontal resolution refers to the___ at least 1024 data points across the screen The minimum requirements for a monitor to display EEG accurately are met with monitors that have___ 10 mm, 21 ACNS Guidelines 2006 state that vertical scaling on digital EEG instruments should have a minimum of ___ per channel when displaying up to ___channels The voltage in input 1 is the same as the voltage in input 2 cancellation occurs when___ highest voltage discharge In a referential montage, with Cz as the reference, what is the most valuable localizing feature/ the power supply In an EEG instrument, what component transforms alternating current into direct current/ differential What kind of amplifiers are used to record biological signals? Very high An EEG instrument's common mode rejection ratio should be___ The electrode impedance When 60hz interference is seen on an EEG recording, what should be checked first? High pass filters An autosomal recessive genetic disorder of copper metabolism also called hepatolenticular degeneration, with symptoms of behavioral changes, ataxia, dysarthria, and abnormal movements well as hepatic dysfunction: Middle cerebral artery infarction A patient with symptoms of stroke which include, contralateral hemiparesis (face and arm greater than leg) horizontal gaze palsy, hemisensory deficits, homonymous hemianopsia, language and cognitive deficits (aphasia, apraxia, agnosia, neglect) is likely to have had___ Nystagmus A biphasic horizontal, vertical, diagonal, or rotational ocular oscillation in which at least one phase is slow: Friedrick's ataxia spinocerebellar degeneration Abnormal cavity or cyst in the spinal cord Syringomyelia Papilledema Sign of increased intracranial pressure: West's Syndrome EEG pattern of hypsarrythmia Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy of Janz ___ is a genetic epilepsy syndrome whose gene has been mapped to chromosome 6 and becomes evident in normal teenagers with early morning myoclonic jerks and generalized tonic-clonic seizures Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome ___ is characterized by multiple seizure types that are difficult to control, especially atonic seizures and atypical absences, in addition to generalized convulsions, and an abnormal interictal EEG with generalized 2 to 2.5 Hz slow spike and wave discharges Leukoencephalopathies ___is a white matter disease with long tract signs including spasticity, hyperreflexia, and Babinski's Sign, optic atrophy, cortical blindness or deafness and seizures occurring late in the course Moyamoya Disease ___ is a rare progressive cerebrovascular disorder primarily in children but also adults, caused by blocked arteries in the basal ganglia. The name means "puff of smoke" named for the appearance of a tangle of tiny blood vessels that develop to compensate for the blockage and appear on Xray. Symptoms include stroke with TIAs with associated weakness and paralysis. Tay-Sachs Disease ___ is a fatal genetic lipid storage disorder seen in infants in which harmful quantities of fatty substance called ganglioside, build up in the tissues and nerve cells in the brain. After normal development during the first few months of life, there is progressive deterioration including seizures, deafness, blindness, and paralysis. Paget's Disease In ___, old bone is broken down and replaced at a faster rate than normal. The new bone is larger, softer, weaker, and more easily broken than normal bone. This disease can affect any bones, including the skull, spine, hip, pelvis, and limbs Pick's Disease Similar to Alzheimer's, ___ affects the frontal and temporal lobes first, with earliest symptoms showing up as changes in personality, an decline in function at home and at work Tourette's Syndrome A disorder of involuntary motor and/or vocal tics, and premonitory urges (the urge to perform a motor activity) usually with onset in childhood or adolescence Todd's Paralysis A brief period of transient paralysis following a seizure Rassmussen's Encephalitis A rare chronic inflammatory autoimmune disease usually affecting only one hemisphere of the brain characterized by frequent and severe seizures, loss of motor and speech as well as hemiparesis and mental deterioration. Onset is common in childhood and rare in adolescents and adults Reyes Syndrome A disease of unknown cause, usually following a viral infection in children who have taken aspirin, and resulting in vomiting, listlessness, personality changes, disorientation, seizures and loss of consciousness Sturge-Weber Syndrome A neurological disorder indicated at birth by seizures accompanied by a large port-wine stain birthmark on the forehead, an cerebral cortex atrophy and increased pressure within the eye on the affected side Cheyne-Stokes respiration Cyclically increasing and decreasing respiratory depth and rate, separated by apneic phases, suggesting bilateral deep cerebral hemispheric or diencephalic dysfunction or may be produced by any encephalopathic state: Horner's Syndrome Interruption of the oculosympathetic nerve pathway somewhere between its origin in the hypothalamus and the eye with classic clinical findings of ptosis, pupillary miosis and facial anhidrosis is known as___ (T7, T8 and P7, P8) (T3, T4 and T5, T6) ACNS has recommended nomenclature for the mid temporal and posterior temporal placements ___ and ___, which on most instruments is still labeled ___ and ___ 300 uV At a sensitivity of 30uV/mm, how much voltage is represented by 10 mm of deflection? indications to omit hyperventilation from the EEG procedure Recent cardiac illness, recent stroke, distressed breathing, extreme hypertension, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, severe asthma, Moyamoya disease, Sickle Cell Anemia, and intra-cranial or extra- cranial hemorrhage are all: 7uV If a 10uV, 1 hertz wave was recorded using a 1 hertz low frequency filter, what would the voltage measure in the print out? 15 mm How much deflection will occur if a 150uV spike is recorded at a sensitivity of 10uV/mm? nasion The indentation between the forehead and the nose is the___ 6 cm If the measurement from Fp2 to O2 is 24 cm, where should F4 be marked if the zero remains at Fp2? sleep spindles The onset of Stage 2 sleep is indicated by the appearance of ___ scanning a complex image Lambda can be elicited by ___ a. HFF= 35Hz c. eye closing d. eye opening gestational age plus the chronological age The conceptual age is defined as the___ REM A full term neonate usually enters sleep in a ___state central Mu rhythm is highest amplitude in the ___ electrodes eye opening Slow waves of youth attenuate with___ alpha dropout drowsiness in an 8 year old child is characterized by___ drowsy High voltage diffuse rhythmic theta in a 1 year old child indicates that the child is ___ irregular respirations and eye movements During active sleep, the full term neonate has___ b. sleep spindles Which of the following sleep transients is well defined by age 2 to 3 months? a. POSTS b. sleep spindles c. V waves d. K complexes antiepileptics ZARONTIN( ethosuximide), NEURONTIN(Gabapentin), KEPPRA(Levetiracetam), LAMICTAL(Lamotrigine), TOPOMAX(Topiramate), GABATRIL(Tiagabine), TRILEPTAL(Oxcarbazepine), ZONEGRAN(Zonisamide)___ antidepressants PROZAC(fluoxetine), WELBUTRIN(bupropion), LEXAPRO(escitalopram oxalate), ZOLOFT(sertraline), PAXIL(paroxetine), CELEXA(citalopram), EFFEXOR XL(venlafazine HCI), ___ Benzodiazepines ATIVAN(lorazepam), VALIUM(diazepam), KLONOPIN(clonazepam) psychotherapeutics THORAZINE (Chlorpromazine), HALDOL (Haloperidol), STELAZINE (Trifluoperazine), MELLARIL (Thioridazine), CLOZAPINE (Clozaril), RISPERDAL (Risperidone), ZYPREXA (olanzapine) The cause is unknown Idiopathic epilepsy means Simple partial No alteration in consciousness is characteristic of what type of seizure? fully resolved within 24 hours Transient ischemic attacks are ___ loss of mental skills in later life Dementia is a term for ___ a dementia with amyloid plaques and neuronal tangles Alzheimer's disease is a term for___ Cancellation The term used to describe the result of differential amplification when both inputs are of equal voltage values is___ Bipolar Phase reversal is an electrical event used for localization in which type of montage? Differential Amplification The ability of the EEG instrument to output the voltage difference between two inputs to a single channel is known as ___ Summation What term describes the resulting output when two inputs of opposite polarity are subtracted during the differential amplification process? Amplitude What is the primary localization technique utilized for identification of a focus in a referential montage? down When a patient opens his eyes, the eyeballs roll in which direction? Positive The corneal retinal potential is a relative charge difference between the front and back of the eye. What is the relative charge of the cornea? artifact induced from surroundings Electrodes placed on the dorsum of the n=hand monitor___ check electrode impedance then regel or replace When 60Hz interference appears in two adjacent channels sharing a common electrode, which of the following should you do first? 10 cm for an ECI recording, inter-electrode distances should be AT LEAST___ c. input 1 = -40uV and input 2 = -20uV The deflection will be upward if ___ a. Input 1 = +20uV and input 2 = -20uV b. Input 1 = +120uV and input 2 = +50uV c. input 1 = -40uV and input 2 = -20uV d. input 1 = -50uV and input 2 = -50uV a. input 1 = +100uV and input 2 = -100uV The deflection will be downward if ___ a. input 1 = +100uV and input 2 = -100uV b. input 1 = +70uV and input 2 = +70uV c. input 1 = -50uV and input 2 = +50uV d. input 1 = -20uV and input 2 = -10uV transient ischemic attack TIA___ generalized and partial What are the two major classifications of seizure types? 160msec A sharp wave could have a duration of ___ theta A wave with a frequency of 5 hertz falls in what frequency band? b. desynchronization of background rhythms in response to noxious stimuli if a child has an episode of staring accompanied by 3 hertz generalized spike and wave activity, the technologist should ___ Sturge-Weber syndrome A facial port-wine is seen in ___ brain's lateral surface The middle cerebral artery supplies blood to the___ c. corpus callosum Which of the following cerebral structures interconnects symmetrical areas of the right and left hemispheres? a. fornix b. internal capsule c. corpus callosum d. thalamus dopamine the substantia nigra supplies the neurotransmitter___ relaxation The parasympathetic nervous system is activated by ___ acetylcholine (Ach) The parasympathetic nervous system uses only ___ as its neurotransmitter. d. both EPSPs and IPSPs Which of the following electrophysiological events is thought to generate the EEG signal? a. IPSP b. EPSP c. action potential d. both EPSPs and IPSPs maintaining equilibrium The vestibular system is responsible for the function of ___ collateral blood circulation The Circle of Willis provides___ TIA What term is used to describe an interruption in blood to the brain causing neurological symptoms, but with full recovery within 24 hours? cancellation occurs When input I = -60uV and Input II = -60uV, then___ contra coup An area of brain injury that occurs on the opposite side of a head injury is called ___ b. photo-paroxysmal discharges Which of the following is an abnormal cortical response to photic stimulation? a. bilateral photic driving b. photo-paroxysmal discharges c. harmonic photo-entrainment d. photo-myoclonic discharges very high An EEG instrument's input impedance should be ___ The indentation between the forehead and the nose Correct location of the nasion is ___ The ridge of knob at the back of the head The correct location of the inion is ___ opposition to AC current Impedance is ___ a skull defect Breach rhythm is produced by ___ the onset of Stage 2 sleep Sleep spindles are ___ Stage 1 Sleep POSTS are seen during___ regular respirations and no eye movements During quiet sleep, a normal 44 week CA has ___ Antiepileptic Dilantin A collection of diseases and syndromes united by the occurrence of seizures Epilepsy is ___ A normal finding Rhythmical Mid-temporal discharges are ___ b. Triphasic Waves Which one of the following EEG patterns is often seen with liver disease? a. breach rhythm b. triphasic waves c. hypsarrhythmia d. rhythmic mid-temporal discharges Tegretol Which of the following medications is most likely to produce a paroxysmal discharge in the EEG? absence seizures 3 hertz generalized spike and wave: A medical emergency Generalized tonic/clonic seizures which continue for 30 minutes or more are___ focal motor seizure Focal facial clonic movements without loss of consciousness are called___ arises from a localized area of abnormality in one part of the brain A partial seizure : A clinical or sub-clinical seizure which continues for 30 minutes or more without stopping Status epilepticus___ The hallucination of an unpleasant smell The olfactory aura preceding a major seizure is ___ c. deflection (mm) and Voltage (uV) Which of the following information is necessary to calculate the sensitivity? a. Montage and deflection b. Deflection (mm) and Gain Neurological syndrome caused by long term used of neuroleptic drugs characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements: secondary portable storage for data files Disks, CDs, DVDs as well as portable hard drives provide a form of ___ dead tissue Necrosis means: myelin The ___ serves to insulate the axon and increase the speed of impulses conducted d. all of the above The relationship between voltage, sensitivity, and deflection is ___ a. deflection is equal to voltage divided by sensitivity b. sensitivity is equal to voltage divided by deflection c. voltage is equal to sensitivity multiplied by deflection d. all of the above 2 inputs and a ground or common Each channel of the EEG instrument has: amplify the difference in electrical potential between 2 inputs The function of an amplifier is to ___ common mode rejection The desirable characteristic of a differential amplifier in which like signals are cancelled is called ___ of the characteristic of common mode rejection in the differential amplifier We are able to record EEG signals that are very low in amplitude in the midst of 60 Hz noise in the environment because of ___ 0 uV and equipotential (no deflection) Solve for voltage and deflection, the following input scenario. Input 1 receives and input of negative 50 microvolts, and input 2 receives and input of negative 50 microvolts. What would be the output? horizontal or tangential dipole When both the negative and positive ends of a generator are recorded during an EEG is called ___ positive A ___ electrical field is created when the human eye is looking in the direction of one of the anterior temporal electrodes. positive The dipole of the human eye is ___ at the cornea. d. all of the above No difference in electrical potential is called: a. equipotential b. in phase cancellation c. common mode rejection d. all of the above 13 to 25 years old Positive Occipital Sharp Transients of Sleep are typically found on what age group? Mu rhythm A surface negative wicket-type rhythm of 9 Hz (plus or minus 2Hz) found in the central head regions is known as: Lambda What occipital pattern can be elicited by having the patient scan a complex image? k complexes When sleep spindles are preceded by sharp slow waves that can be elicited by sound they are called___ breach rhythm It is common for a defect in the skull either from surgery or injury to produce which of the following patterns? Triphasic Waves Hepatic encephalopathy is associated with what EEG pattern/ hyperthyroidism What disorder is associated with an increase in frequency of posterior alpha activity/ hypoatremia Abnormally low concentration of sodium in the blood is called ___ hypercalcemia Abnormally high concentration of calcium in the blood is called___ Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease Rare and fatal neurological disorder presenting clinically with cognitive changes, followed by behavioral change, then myoclonic jerks, followed by severe dementia, with a characteristic EEG pattern consisting of periodic short interval diffuse discharges at a rate of 0.5 to 1 sec: Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis Rare and fatal neurological disorder, thought to be associated with the measles virus, usually developing in children or adolescents with progressive dementia, myoclonic jerks and seizures with a characteristic EEG pattern of diffuse periodic complexes seen early in the development of the disease and having a long interval between complexes from 4-15 seconds: real or imagined contralateral motor activity Mu rhythm is blocked by: a. k complexes Which of the following EEG patterns does not appear in drowsiness? a. k-complexes b. BETS c. 14 and 6 Hz positive spikes d. SMES POSTS A surface positive event found in the occipital head regions during drowsiness: isolated from In modern EEG systems, the ground or common electrode on the patient is ___ the ground in the electrical outlet in which the instrument is plugged. The flow of electrons through a pathway and the unit is the ampere Current is: The potential charge difference between two points and the unit is the volt Voltage is: Welcomes any current change A resistor: 16 mA Using a constant voltage, what is the maximum current a person can grasp and probably still "let go"? 20-50 mA