2024 NYU PATHO EXAM I PREP QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS, Exams of Advanced Education

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2024 NYU PATHO EXAM I PREP

QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT

ANSWERS

Which type of disease is easily spread from person to person? a. Opportunistic b. Non-opportunistic c. Communicable d. Non-communicable - CORRECT ANSWERS-Communicable (spread person to person) Non-comm: opportunistic infection in someone immune -compromised Which chain of infection is proper food handling effective against? a. infectious agent b. reservoirs c. susceptible host d. means of transmission - CORRECT ANSWERS-Means of transmission Select all: Which chain of infection(s) is antimicrobial drugs effective against? a. infectious agent b. portal of exit/entry c. susceptible host d. reservoirs - CORRECT ANSWERS-Infectious agent, susceptible host, reservoirs Which of the following is an example of a clinical manifestation known as sign? a. Nausea b. Loss of appetite c. Bruise d. Headache - CORRECT ANSWERS-Bruise A sign is something that is observable to the nurse. A bruise can be seen by the nurse on a patient and is thus a sign.

An obese adult with type II diabetes is given prescription for a low-calorie diet and exercise. This is an example of: a. Primary Prevention b. Secondary Prevention c. Tertiary Prevention d. Disease Prevention - CORRECT ANSWERS-Tertiary Prevention

• Already has the condition
• Intervention is to treat it to prevent further complications Select all: Which chain of infection(s) is sterilization effective against? a. infectious agent b. reservoirs c. susceptible host d. means of transmission - CORRECT ANSWERS-Infectious agent & Means of transmission Select all: Which chain of infection(s) is hand washing effective against? a. infectious agent b. portal of exit/entry c. susceptible host d. means of transmission - CORRECT ANSWERS-Portal of exit/entry & Means of transmission T/F Individuals experiencing the same disease process exhibit the same clinical manifestations. - CORRECT ANSWERS-False Many things contribute to clinical manifestations:
• age, gender, race, healthcare, etc. Which of the following would be a non-modifiable risk factor for heart disease? a. smoking b. obesity c. family history d. elevated blood pressure - CORRECT ANSWERS-Family history Non- modifiable risk factor can't be changed. Family history is non-modifiable as our genetics are what they are. T/F A change in a physiologic variable is more important than the absolute values. - CORRECT ANSWERS-True

One value itself doesn't provide much useful information. It is important to understand an individuals baseline and then look at results related to the baseline. T/F Prevalence is the number of new cases of a disease in a given population at a given time. - CORRECT ANSWERS-False Prevalence is the number of old cases + new cases. Incidence is the number of only new cases T/F Breast cancer screening programs are an example of primary level of prevention. - CORRECT ANSWERS-False Secondary level of prevention = screening and test T/F Apoptotic cell death can be characterized as "cell suicide" - CORRECT ANSWERS-True trigger cell to kill itself Glucose must enter the body cell in order to provide energy for the client who was recently diagnosed with diabetes. The nurse knows that which of the following processes allows glucose to enter body cells? a. osmosis b. active transport c. diffusion d. Facilitated diffusion - CORRECT ANSWERS-Facilitated Diffusion

• uses a carrier protein aka insulin to enter the body cell. The nurse is examining the results of the bronchoscopy of a chronic smoker. The report showed stratified squamous cells as opposed to columnar ciliated cells. The nurse understands this is which type of cellular adaptation? a. hyperplasia b. dysplasia c. anaplasia d. metaplasia - CORRECT ANSWERS-Metaplasia If a cell changes from one differentiated cell type to another, that is termed metaplasia. hyperplasia - an increase in # of the same type of cells Dysplasia - loss of form and cells become irregular

Anaplasia - the cells become totally undifferentiated and cancerous. Which of the following cellular accumulations is indicative of injury due to faulty metabolism? a. Hydropic swelling b. Lactate production c. Metaplasia d. Intracellular accumulations - CORRECT ANSWERS-Intracellular accumulation Can occur due to build up of normal body substance, a build up of exogenous substances, or build up of abnormal endogenous products due to faulty metabolism. A knowledgeable nurse knows that a hermangioma is: a. malignant tumor of skin cells b. benign tumor of skin cells c. malignant tumor of blood vessels d. benign tumor of blood vessels - CORRECT ANSWERS-Benign tumor of blood vessels "-oma" refers to benign. The prefix "hermangi-" refers to blood vessels. "-carinoma" is a malignant tumor of the skin cells ie. melanoma. Mutations of which genes are necessary for tumors to form and cancer to develop? Select all that apply. a. Oncogenes b. It serves as its digestive system c. It manufactures mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA d. It is where protein is synthesized - CORRECT ANSWERS-b,c,d Mutation of mutator gene allows for INC mutations to occur when cells are dividing. How can a diagnosis of malignancy be confirmed? a. biopsy b. radiography c. careful palpation d. CT scan - CORRECT ANSWERS-Biopsy

Cancer can only be confirmed by examining tissue cells that are thought to be cancerous. This is done through biopsy. Remission of cancer is generally defined as a period in which: a. chemo can't be used b. signs and symptoms are absent c. complications are evident d. metastases occur - CORRECT ANSWERS-Signs and symptoms are absent Remission is when individuals no longer has any detectable signs/symptoms of cancer. The nurse explains that a debulking procedure for stomach cancer is: a. control of the tumor growth in malignant tissue b. promotion of better nutrition by reducing pressure in the stomach c. relief of pain by cutting sensory nerves in the stomach d. reduction of the tumor burden to enhance adjuvant therapy. - CORRECT ANSWERS-reduction of the tumor burden to enhance adjuvant therapy Debulking reduces the size of the tumor and makes radiation and chemo more effective. which of the following plasma systems that regulate inflammation is MOST responsible for destroying and removing microorganisms through opsonization and cell lysis? a. clotting b. complement c. kinin d. erythrocyte - CORRECT ANSWERS-Complement It is a part of the immune system that helps the ability of antibodies and phagocytic cells to clear pathogens from an organism. The leukocytes that are predominant early in the inflammatory response to ingest bacteria and cellular debris are: a. mast cells b. eosinophils c. basophils d. neutrophils - CORRECT ANSWERS-Neutrophils

A type of phagocyte and are normally found in the blood stream during the beginning phase of inflammation. First responders of inflammatory cells to migrate towards the site of inflammation. Mast cells (basophil granules) release histamine during inflammatory rxns. Eosinophils are proinflammatory WBC that migrate to inflamed areas, trapping substances, killing cells and participate in immediate allergic rxns. what is the leukocyte responsible for production and immediate release of inflammatory mediators through degranulation? a. dendritic cell b. mast cell c. neutrophil d. B lymphocytes - CORRECT ANSWERS-Mast Cell WBC that play a key role in the inflammatory process. When activated, a mast cell rapidly releases its characteristic granules, histamine and heparin. When assessing a patient's surgical incision, the nurse understands that the purpose of stitches is to approximate wound edges and promote healing through: a.primary intention b. secondary intention c. tertiary intention d. basic intention - CORRECT ANSWERS-Primary intention Wound edges are brought together (sutured/stapled/glued) so that they are adjacent to each other (approximated). Which of the following is a characteristic of a wound healing by secondary intention? a. scarring is minimal or absent b. the wound has approximated edges c. the would will have to heal from bottom up d. the risk for infection is low - CORRECT ANSWERS-Wound heals from bottom up Factors that promote healing include all of the following EXCEPT: a. hypovolemia b. youth c. adequate hemoglobin d. no infection - CORRECT ANSWERS-hypovolemia

causes decreased blood flow to the affected area, not allowing adequate O and important nutrients to the area that promote healing Which patient will NOT need to be transferred to a dedicated burn unit? a. 42yo F with full thickness burns on the front of the left arm b. 45yo M with superficial and deep partial thickness burns to the face c. 21 yo M with deep partial thickness burns to the upper half of the back d. 20 yo F with superficial and deep partial thickness burns on the chest and abdomen, groin and upper half of both legs. - CORRECT ANSWERS-C. 21 yo Male

20% on TBSA Receiving the influenza vaccination provides which type of immunity? a. Active Natural b. Passive Natural c. Active Artificial d. Passive Artificial - CORRECT ANSWERS-Active Artificial A vaccination or immunization introduces a weakened or dead version of the antigen into the body so the body can develop its own AB and memory cells. Which antibody mounts the largest, quick initial response to a pathogen invading the body a 2nd time? a. IgM b. IgA c. IgD d. IgG - CORRECT ANSWERS-IgG Upon 1st exposure, IgG slowly builds and memory is developed. Upon 2nd exposure and subsequent exposures, it mounts a rapid response to the invading organism. T lymphocytes mature and differentiate in the: a. spleen b. lymph nodes c. thymus d. bone marrow - CORRECT ANSWERS-Thymus T lymphocytes go through a highly involved selection process (ensuring that they don't attack self cells) in the THYMUS gland.

They are produced in the bone marrow but don't mature and differentiate there. Upon maturity, they will settle in the lymph nodes and spleen to fight invading organisms. Which MHC class would be responsible for signaling the immune system to destroy a virally infected cell? a. MHC Class I b. MHC Class II c. MHC Class III d. MHC Class IV - CORRECT ANSWERS-MHC Class I MHC Class I are located on self-cells. When a cell is damaged, via virus or it becomes cancerous or non-functioning, the MHC Class I will trigger destruction by cytotoxic T cells. T/F: Antibodies can directly destroy invading pathogens. - CORRECT ANSWERS-False Antibodies are able to coat invading pathogens (opsonization) or combine with them to form larger complexes (precipitation/agglutination), but don't directly destroy pathogens. They can neutralize toxins. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves the deposition of antigen/antibody complexes that lead to inflammatory destruction of tissue? a. type I hypersensitivity b. type II hypersensitivity c. type III hypersensitivity d. type IV hypersensitivity - CORRECT ANSWERS-Type III hypersensitivity antigen/ab complexes are deposited in tissues and results in activation of complement, subsequent tissue inflammation, and destruction. ie. Lupus, Rheumatoid Arthritis, Glomerulonephritis A patient that reports hives associated with eating peanuts has which type of hypersensitivity reaction? a. type I hypersensitivity b. type II hypersensitivity c. type III hypersensitivity d. type IV hypersensitivity - CORRECT ANSWERS-Type I hypersensitivity

IgE mediated allergic rxn The immune response stimulated by the presence of cells from another individual of the same species is called: a. serum sickness b. alloimmunity c. autoimmunity d. anaphylaxis - CORRECT ANSWERS-Alloimmunity an immune response to foreign antigens from members of the same species. The body attacks mainly transplanted tissue and even fetus in some cases. Alloimmune response results in graft rejection, which is manifested as a deterioration of graft fx. Which of the following causes anaphylaxis? a. A severe, system allergic rxn b. Type III hypersensitivity c. Cell mediated hypersensitivity d. Immune complex deposits in many tissues - CORRECT ANSWERS-A severe, systemic allergic rxn Rapid onset with and average onset of 5 -30 mins after exposure to an allergen ie. bee sting/food symptoms: hives, itchiness, SOB, swelling of affected tissues. As a nurse you know that hand washing is an important example of an action to break the chain of infection at which link? a. reservoir b. portal of entry c. means of transmission d. susceptible host - CORRECT ANSWERS-Means of Transmission Adequate hand hygiene is important to prevent the nurse from spreading infection from one patient to another (means of transmission) Hand washing doesn't relate to reservoir, portal of entry (unless skin breakage is present), or susceptible host. Symptoms of fatigue, low grade fever, and generalized muscle aches would most likely be present in which stage of acute infection? a. prodromal

b. convalescence c. incubation d. acute clinical illness - CORRECT ANSWERS-Prodromal Generalized systemic symptoms first appear during this phase of illness. Incubation - no manifestations; unrecognized exposure Acute - severe symptoms; local (puss, loss of fx, inflammation) Convalescence - recovered; no manifestations What does leukocytosis, specifically neutrophilia, frequently indicate? a. Immunosuppression b. bone marrow damage c. an allergic rxn d. bacterial infection - CORRECT ANSWERS-Bacterial infection An INC in WBC and neutrophils (responsible for attacking bacteria) are increased during a bacterial infection. Allergic rxn = INC in Eosinophils Immunosuppression/bone marrow damage, there will be a DEC in leukocytes and neutrophils. The primary pathological effect of influenza virus is: a. destruction of the mucosa in the lower respiratory tract b. replication of the virus in respiratory secretions c. destruction of leukocytes and macrophages in the lungs d. inflammation and necrosis of the upper resp. epithelium - CORRECT ANSWERS-Inflammation and necrosis of the upper resp. epithelium The virus attacks the upper resp. tract, leading to inflammation and necrosis of bronchial tissue T/F: Neoplasm that contain well-differentiated cells that are clustered together in a single mass are benign. - CORRECT ANSWERS-True T/F: During inflammation, blood vessels constrict to minimize tissue damage.

• CORRECT ANSWERS-False Smooth muscle constricts, Histamine released which causes vasodilation so more blood, O2,WBC and nutrients can go to site. T/F: Chronic inflammation is self perpetuating, while acute inflammation is normally self- limiting. - CORRECT ANSWERS-True

examples of chronic inflammation: rheumatoid arthritis, chromes disease, lupus Which term is used to describe the development of a secondary tumor in a location distant from the primary tumor? a. cachexia b. granulation c. opsonization d. metastasis - CORRECT ANSWERS-Metastasis Spreading --> seeding Tissue in the red, fresh blood vessel formation that appears on a wound bed is called? a. Lymphocytes b. Neutrophilia c. Granulation d. Fibroblast - CORRECT ANSWERS-Granulation skin that not fully healed --> blood vessels and O The cells primarily responsible for the tissue building that occurs during the proliferative phase of wound healing are: a. Histamine b. Macrophages c. Fibroblasts d. Bands - CORRECT ANSWERS-Fibroblasts inc fiber --> collagen and tissue What is the most abundant cation in the ECF? a. calcium b. potassium c. sodium d. phosphate - CORRECT ANSWERS-Sodium (Na+) Na+ (135 -145mEq/L) ECF K+ (3.5 - 5.0 mEq/L) Ca (8.5 - 10.5) PO (2.5-4.5)

ECF is rich in sodium, chloride and bicarbonate ions. Low in potassium, magnesium and phosphate ions. In fluid balance at the capillary level, which is caused by proteins or other molecules that can pull fluid from the interstitial space into the intravascular space? a. hydrostatic pressure b. diffusion pressure c. osmotic pressure d. filtration pressure - CORRECT ANSWERS-Osmotic Pressure Protein and electrolytes contribute to the osmotic pressure of a fluid and therefore are very important in maintaining fluid volumes in various compartments. Due to osmosis, when cells are in a hypotonic solution: a. water is pulled into the cell causing the cell to swell b. water is pulled out of the cell causing the cell to shrink c. water doesn't move and the cell size stays the same d. the movement of water in or out of the cell will depend on hydrostatic force - CORRECT ANSWERS-Water is pulled into the cell --> swelling Hypotonic solution - water is pulled into the cell Hypertonic solution - water is pulled out of the cell Isotonic solution - water doesn't move and the cell remains the same size Insensible fluid loss refers to water lost through: a. perspiration only b. perspiration and expiration c. feces only d. urine and feces - CORRECT ANSWERS-Perspiration and expiration Perspiration - temp control mechanism (some fluid loss) Expired air - water vapor = fluid loss (can't be easily measured = insensible fluid loss) The release of ADH results in: a. water retention

b. sodium retention and potassium excretion c. potassium retention d. sodium and water excretion - CORRECT ANSWERS-Water Retention The distal tubules and collecting ducts in the kidneys respond to ADH by becoming more permeable to water so that water is REABSORBED from tubular filtrate into the blood and not excreted in urine. Clinical manifestations of hypovolemia include all of the following, EXCEPT: a. dry mucous membrane b. increased blood pressure c. decreased urine output d. increased heart rate - CORRECT ANSWERS-INC BP INC BP occurs with hypervolemia Manifestations of hypovolemia:

• dry mouth, thirst, low skin turgor
• light headedness, dizziness, LOW BP, tachycardia (INC HR), oliguria (DEC urine output), low RBC and platelet. Which of the following would cause edema? a. Dec Hydrostatic Pressure b. Inc Capillary Osmotic Pressure c. Inc Capillary Permeability d. Dec Capillary Permeability - CORRECT ANSWERS-INC Capillary Permeability Other causes of include:
• INC Hydrostatic Pressure
• INC ISF osmotic pressure
• Blockage of lymphatic drainage
• DEC capillary osmotic pressure Which is a typical sign of dehydration? a. Dry oral mucosa b. Inc urine output c. Low hematocrit d. Slow, strong pulse - CORRECT ANSWERS-Dry oral mucosa Other Manifestations:
• DEC skin turgor/elasticity
• DEC BP, weak pulse, Fatigue

• INC hematocrit
• DEC urine output, mental fx Which of the following terms refers to a combination of DEC circulating blood vol. combined with excess fluid in body cavity? a. dehydration b. third spacing c. hypovolemia d. water retention - CORRECT ANSWERS-Third spacing fluid shifts out of the blood into a body cavity or tissue where it is no longer available as circulating fluid. The control center for thirst is located in the: a. thalamus b. medulla c. hypothalamus d. kidneys - CORRECT ANSWERS-Hypothalamus controls thirst, body temp., hunger, important aspects of parenting/attachment behaviors. fatigue, sleep and circadian rhythms. An elevation of which electrolyte can be associated with severe arrhythmias leading to cardiac arrest? a. sodium b. phosphate c. potassium d. magnesium - CORRECT ANSWERS-Potassium Abnormal K levels, both high and low, have serous effect on the contractions of cardiac muscle causing changes in ECG and cardiac arrest Water tends to move together with which electrolyte? a. Magnesium b. Phosphate c. Sodium d. calcium - CORRECT ANSWERS-Sodium Which of the following is the primary control serum Na+ levels? a. Aldosterone b. ADH

c. Serum hydrogen levels d. Serum potassium levels - CORRECT ANSWERS-Aldosterone Plays a central role in regulation of BP mainly acting on the distal tubules and collecting ducts of the nephron, INC reabsorption of ions and water in the kidneys, to cause the conservation of sodium, secretion of potassium, and INC in water retention. Hypocalcemia causes weak cardiac contractions because: a. permeability of nerve membranes increases b. increased activation of vit D c. insufficient calcium ions are available for muscle contraction d. decreased reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys - CORRECT ANSWERS- Insufficient calcium ions available for muscle contraction contraction of cardiac muscles relies on available ESF calcium ions passing through the calcium channels. Weaker contraction of cardiac muscle is directly related to the calcium deficit. Choose the correct effect of increased parathyroid hormone: a. Inc absorption of calcium from the digestive tract b. Inc movement of calcium ions into the bones c. Inc activation of vit. D d. Dec reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys - CORRECT ANSWERS-Inc absorption of calcium from the digestive tract Calcium balance is controlled by PTH and calcitonin. Low blood calcium levels stimulate secretion of PTH --> INC calcium absorption from digestive tract and kidneys --> promoted resorption from bone A public health nurse is providing community edu. related to risk of heart failure. He should be sure to include which of the following? a. Exercise b. Hypertension c. Low cholesterol d. Astham - CORRECT ANSWERS-Hypertension

A public health nurse is providing smoking cessation counseling to a patient at risk for hear failure. Smoking cessation would be what level of prevention? a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary - CORRECT ANSWERS-Primary level of prevention Key word: "at risk for" A patient with hypertension is taking lisinopril to reduce blood pressure and prevent complications from hypertension such as heart failure and stroke. This would be what level of prevention? a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary - CORRECT ANSWERS-Tertiary level of prevention Keywords: prevent future complications Which are examples of cellular adaptations? a. hypertrophy b. hyperplasia c. metaplasia d. all of the above - CORRECT ANSWERS-All of the above Stress increases functional demand --> adaptations (hypertrophy, atrophy, hyperplasia, dysplasia, metaplasia) An increase in cardiac size and function due to increased workload is termed: a. atrophy b. functional demand c. hypertrophy d. inflammation - CORRECT ANSWERS-Hypertrophy Inc in size When patients have an ischemic event, cellular damage occurs after: a. inc production of ATP b. inc oxygenation c. dec mitochondrial energy production d. inc pH - CORRECT ANSWERS-Dec mitochondrial energy production

Which of the following is occuring inside of cells while they're not receiving enough O2 due to ischemia? a. inc intracellular potassium b. inc intracellular sodium c. inc extracellular calcium d. inc extracellular magnesium - CORRECT ANSWERS-Inc intracellular sodium increased intracellular Na, H20 and Ca K flowing out Mutation of which gene is not necessary for tumors to form and cancer to develop? a. mutator genes b. DNA repair genes c. oncogenes d. tumor suppressor genes - CORRECT ANSWERS-Oncogenes A man diagnosed with colon cancer has a biopsy performed. The tumor is large in size and has spread to 1 nearby lymph node. X-ray and biopsy indicates no presence of metastasis. How would you classify this cancer? a. T1,N1,M b. T3, N2, M c. T4, N1, M d. T4, N2, M0 - CORRECT ANSWERS-T4, N1, M Our adaptive immune response is part of which of the body's lines of dense? a. first b. second c. third c. fourth - CORRECT ANSWERS-3rd Line of Defense Decreased risk of lung infections in breast-fed baby is a result of which type of immunity? a. active artificial b. active natural c. passive artificial d. passive natural - CORRECT ANSWERS-Passive Natural Mother to child (IgG & IgA)

• temporary A person who had measles at the age of 12 has which type of immunity? a. active artificial b. active natural c. passive artificial d. passive natural - CORRECT ANSWERS-Active Natural Natural exposure to antigen ie. getting chicken pox Someone who received the Hep. B vaccine series has which type of immunity? a. active artificial b. active natural c. passive artificial d. passive natural - CORRECT ANSWERS-Active Artificial Weakened or dead antigen is introduced on purpose ie. chicken pox vaccine Someone given rabies immunoglobulin after wild animal bite has which type of immunity? a. active artificial b. active natural c. passive artificial d. passive natural - CORRECT ANSWERS-Passive Artificial short term protection and body doesn't build up its' own What type of precautions requires the use of a gown when in working with an infected or potentially-infected patient? a. Universal b. Contact c. Airborne d. Droplet - CORRECT ANSWERS-Contact precautions gown and gloves for patient contact/contact with potentially contaminated objects.

What test will determine if an individual as active immunity against a particular infectious microorganism? a. ELISA b. Titer c. MHC typing d. Coombs test - CORRECT ANSWERS-Titer ELISA - for detection of antibodies but does not signify if level is enough for immunity (HIV) MHC typing - tissue matching (before transplant) Coombs test - Rh compatibility (mother to child) The nurse is caring for an 8-year old with suspected influenza. Proper treatment includes: (Select all that apply) a. Aspirin to alleviate fever and achiness b. Culture and sensitivity to guide antiobiotic treatment c. Adequate nutrition and hydration d. Implementing airborne precautions - CORRECT ANSWERS-Adequate nutrition and hydration *never give children Aspirin if they have the flu --> Reyes syndrome A patient's serum sodium is 128 mEq/L. What is the expected movement of fluid btwn the ICF & ECF? a. None. Net movement into and out of the cells would be equal. b. Movement into the cells causing cellular swelling. c. Movement out of the cells causing cellular shrinking. - CORRECT ANSWERS-Movement into the cells causing cellular swelling.