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2024/2025 NASM Test Complete Questions with 100% Correct Verified Answers Graded A 2024/2025 NASM Test Complete Questions with 100% Correct Verified Answers Graded A 2024/2025 NASM Test Complete Questions with 100% Correct Verified Answers Graded A 2024/2025 NASM Test Complete Questions with 100% Correct Verified Answers Graded A 2024/2025 NASM Test Complete Questions with 100% Correct Verified Answers Graded A
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According to research, endurance is best achieved by performing what number of repetitions at 50- 70% of the 1RM a) 1- 5 b) 12- 20 c)6- 12 d) 1- 10 b) 12- 20 What muscle(s) are MOST likely tight (overactive) if a client demonstrates an arching low back during the overhead squat assessment? a) Hip Flexors b) Transverse abdominus c) Gluteus maximus d) Multifidus a) Hip Flexors The Four P's of Marketing include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Price b) Plan c) Product d) Place b) Plan A proprioceptively enriched environment challenges an individual's____ a) Internal balance and stabilization b) Maximum strength capabilities c) Maximum cardiac output d) Hypertrophy gains
a) Internal balance and stabilization What are smaller chambers located superiorly on either side of the heart that gathers blood returning to the heart much like a reservoir? a) Atria b) Atrioventricular node c) Ventricles d) Sinoatrial node a) Atria Which of the following is not a testing site for body fat according to the durnin womersley test? a) Bicep c) Thigh b) Tricep d) Suprailliac c) Thigh What muscles are most likely overactive and should be stretched when an athlete exhibits an excessive forward lean? a) Soleus, gastrocnemius, hip flexor complex, abdominal complex b) Anterior Tibialis, gluteus maximus, erector spinae c) Hip Flexor complex, erector spinae, latissimus dorsi, thoracolumbar fascia d) Transverse abdominus, multifidus, internal oblique, diaphragm. a) Soleus, gastrocnemius, hip flexor complex, abdominal complex What are the three stages of the General Adaptation Syndrome? A) Increased endurance, increased strength, increased power B) Alarm reaction, resistance development, exhaustion C) Delayed-onset muscle soreness, increased motor unit recruitment, joint pain and muscle strains D) Mechanical specificity, neuromuscular specificity, metabolic specificity B) Alarm reaction, resistance development, exhaustion When the nervous system properly recruits the correct muscles to produce force, reduce force, and dynamically stabilize the body's structures in all three planes of motion, this is an example of: a) serial distortion patterns.
b) structural efficiency. c) neuromuscular efficiency. d) equilibrium patterns. c) neuromuscular efficiency. Which of the following is not a key predictor of exercise participation and adherence? a) Popularity of chain c) Supportive environment b) Cost of membership d) Convenient location a) Popularity of chain The principle of ______________________ indicates that a synergist muscle will substitute for a prime mover exhibiting decreased neural drive. a) Autogenic Inhibition b) Reciprocal Inhibition c) Synergist Dominance d) Sarcopenia c) Synergist Dominance Staticstretchingisaformof: a) corrective flexibility b) dynamic flexibility c) active flexibility d) passive flexibility a) corrective flexibility Which stage of change has zero temptation to engage in the old behavior and exhibit 100% self- efficacy in all previously tempting situations a) Contemplation c) Maintenance b) Preparation d) Termination d) Termination What muscle(s) are MOST likely weak (underactive) if a client demonstrates knees move inward during the overhead squat assessment?
A) Gluteus medius c) Psoas B) Latissimus dorsi d) Soleus A) Gluteus medius PeopleinthisstageoftheStagesofChangeModeldonotexercisebutarethinkingaboutbecomingmore active in the next 6 months. a) Precontemplation b) Preparation c) Contemplation d) Action c) Contemplation Which of the follow is a lower body agility test? A) Shark Skill Test B) YMCA Step Test c) Bioelectrical Impedance d) Davies Test A) Shark Skill Test Ifaclientdemonstrateskneesthatcaveinduringtheoverheadsquatassessmentwhatmuscle(s)areMOST likely tight (overactive)? A) Gluteus maximus B) Gluteus medius c) Vastus medialis oblique d) Adductor complex d) Adductor complex Connectivetissue,suchastendonsandligaments,donotrepaireasilybecause? a) They're too vascular b) They're sarcoplasmic c) They're avascular d) Avascular Necrosis
c) They're avascular Theconceptof________statesthatprolongedGolgitendonorganstimulationinhibitsthemusclespindlesof the same muscle. a) reciprocal inhibition c) excitation inhibition b) facilitation inhibition d) autogenic inhibition d) autogenic inhibition What form of flexibility applies gentle force to an adhesion "knot," altering the elastic muscle fibers from a bundled position into straighter alignment with the direction of the muscle or fascia? A) Active-isolated stretching c) Static stretching B) Self-myofascial release d) Functional flexibility B) Self-myofascial release Obesity is a condition of being considerably overweight and refers to a person with a body mass index (BMI) of a) Less than 18.5 c) Between 18.5-24. b) Between 25 to 29.9 d) Greater than 30 d) Greater than 30 The tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns is called: A) Muscle imbalance c) Postural distortion patterns B) Altered reciprocal inhibition d) Relative flexibility d) Relative flexibility If a client demonstrates their heals coming off the ground during the overhead squat, which muscle(s) are MOST likely tight (overactive)? A) Teres major c) Latissimus dorsi B) Soleus d) Anterior Tibialis B) Soleus Which of the following is a process created to produce internalized experiences to support or enhance exercise participation?
a) Positive Self-Talk b) SMART Goals c) Exercise Imagery d) Verbal Communication c) Exercise Imagery According to NASM, which of the following is a performance test? A) Shark Skill Test B) Push-Ups C) YMCA Step Test D) Body Fat Calipers E) Answers A & B E) Answers A & B Which of the following is a beneficial adaptation to cardiorespiratory exercise? a) Decreases resting heart rate c) Decreases stroke volume b) Increases arterial blood pressure d) Increases heart rate at any given level of work a) Decreases resting heart rate What percentage of the US population is estimated not to engage in 30 minutes of low-to-moderate physical activity? a) 25% c)35% b) 65% d)75% d)75% Type2diabetesisassociatedwithobesity,particularlyabdominalobesity,andaccountsfor____________%of all diabetes. a) 5to10% c)40to45% b) 50to55% d)90to95% d)90to95% What muscles are possibly tight (shortened) if a client's feet turn out during the Overhead Squat Assessment? a) Anterior tibialis c) Posterior tibialis b) Lateral gastrocnemius d) Gluteus medius
b) Lateral gastrocnemius A tight psoas decreasing neural drive of the gluteus maximus is an example of what? a) Synergistic dominance b) Altered reciprocal inhibition c) Autogenic inhibition d) Arthokinetic dysfunction b) Altered reciprocal inhibition Approximately how many amino acids does the body use? a) 8 b) 20 c) d) b) 20 The formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources, such as amino acids is called: a) β-oxidation (beta) c) Krebs cycle b) Glycolysis d) Gluconeogenesis d) Gluconeogenesis According to research, hypertrophy is achieved by training with what percentage of 1RM a) 50-70% b) 85-100% c) 75-85% d) 30-45% c) 75-85% The ----------- is the primary pace maker of the heart a) Sinoatrial node b) Atriums c) Atrioventricular node d) Ventricles
a) Sinoatrial node The ability to react and change body position with maximal rate of force production, in all planes of motion and from all body positions, during functional activities is known as a) Quickness c) Power b) Speed d) Agility a) Quickness Which of the following is an example of a "total body power" exercise? a) Barbell Clean c) Single-leg Squat Touchdown b) Bench Press d) Ball Dumbbell Cobra a) Barbell Clean What muscles are possibly weak (lengthened) if a client's feet flatten during the Overhead Squat Assessment? a) Bicep femoris c) Latissimus dorsi b) Soleus d) Anterior tibialis d) Anterior tibialis When performing the Overhead Squat Assessment, how many repetitions should the client complete? a) 2 b) 5 c)3 d) b) 5 Hypertension is defined as blood pressure greater than: a) 120/ b) 130/ c) 110/ d) 140/ d) 140/ Which of the following assessments BEST measures cardiovascular efficiency? a) Shark Skill Test c) Bioelectrical Impedance b) Rockport Test d) Davies Test
b) Rockport Test Which of the following best describes a length-tension relationship? a) The length at which a muscle is under tension b) The greater the length of a muscle, the greater the tension, therefore allowing the most force to be generated c) The shorter the length of a muscle, the less the tension, therefore allowing the most force to be generated d) The length at which a muscle can produce the greatest force d) The length at which a muscle can produce the greatest force Muscle spindles are sensitive to: a) A change in tension and the rate at which tension changes b) A change in muscle length and the rate at which length changes c) Changes in articular tension d) A change in joint pressure b) A change in muscle length and the rate at which length changes When performing the single-leg squat, what check point should be observed? a) Ankles c) Knees b) Hip d) Lower back c) Knees Which phase of the Optimum Performance Training model supersets a "barbell bench press" with a "medicine ball chest pass"? a) Power Training c) Strength Endurance Training b) Hypertrophy d) Maximal Strength Training a) Power Training Which of the following is an example of a "back strength" exercise? a) Single-leg Cable Row c) Single-arm cable row b) Soccer Throw d) Pull-up d) Pull-up
Which of the following is the proper intensity for a client in phase 5 of the OPT model? a) 10-30% of 1rm b) 75-85% of 1rm c) 30-45% of 1rm d) 50-70% of 1rm c) 30-45% of 1rm The core is defined as which of the following? a) Levator-pelvic-hip complex b) Levator-pubic-head complex c) Lumbo-pubic-hip complex d) Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex d) Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex When using medicine balls for their explosive power capabilities, high-velocity movements will require a) A lighter ball, generally less than 10% an individual's body weight b) A smaller ball, generally less than 10 inches in diameter c) A larger ball, generally 20 inches in diameter d) A heavier ball, generally greater than 10% an individual's body weight a) A lighter ball, generally less than 10% an individual's body weight The core stabilizers are made up of primarily what type of muscle fiber? a) Type I b) Type II B c)Type II A d) None of the above a) Type I The storage form of carbohydrates is called: A) Amino acids B) Triglycerides c) Glycogen d) ATPase
c) Glycogen Which of the following is an example of a closed-chain exercise? a) Squats c) Lat Pull down Machine b) Machine Leg Extension d) Bench press a) Squats The reverse crunch is considered what type of core exercise? a) Core-stabilization b) Core-power c) Core-strength d) All of the above c) Core-strength A floor prone cobra is considered what type of exercise? a) Core-strength b) Core-stabilization c) Core-power d) All of the above b) Core-stabilization Which of the following is NOT true regarding reactive training? a) Increases resting heart rate c) Increases firing frequency (rate coding) b) Increases rate of force production d) Increases motor unit recruitment a) Increases resting heart rate A rotation chest pass is considered what type of exercise? a) Core-strength c) Core-stabilization b) Core-power d) All of the above b) Core-power
All of the following are true regarding reactive training, EXCEPT: a) it increases motor unit recruitment. b) it increases firing frequency (rate coding) c) it increases maximal strength d) it increases the rate of force production c) it increases maximal strength Whichplaneofmotionbisectsthebodyintoupperandlowerhalves,allowingforrotationalmovement? a) Sagittal b) Transverse c) Frontal d) Coronal b) Transverse The three phases of plyometric training ,in order, are: a) eccentric, amortization, and concentric. b) eccentric, concentric, and amortization. c) concentric, eccentric, and amortization. d) concentric, amortization, and eccentric. a) eccentric, amortization, and concentric. What is the target heart rate for a stage III cardiorespiratory training program? A) 65-75% of HRmax c) 76-85% of HRmax B) 86-95% of HRmax d) 96-100% of HRmax B) 86-95% of HRmax What is defined as the science concerned with the internal and external forces acting on the human body and the effects produced by these forces? a) Biochemistry b) Functional Anatomy c) Biomechanics d) Exercise Physiology
c) Biomechanics A Single-leg Squat Touchdown is what type of exercise? a) Balance-stabilization b) Balance-corrective c) Balance-Strength d) Balance-power c) Balance-Strength Which of the following is an accurate description of front-side mechanics? a) Proper alignment of the lead leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, hip extension, and neutral pelvis b) alignment of the rear leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle dorsiflexion, knee extension, hip flexion, and neutral pelvis c) Proper alignment of the rear leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, hip flexion, and neutral pelvis d) Proper alignment of the lead leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, hip flexion, and neutral pelvis d) Proper alignment of the lead leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, hip flexion, and neutral pelvis An anatomical location referring to a position above a reference point is known as A) Lateral c) Superior B) Distal d) Proximal c) Superior Core-stabilization exercises should adhere to which of the following tempos? a) 4/1/2 c) 2/2/ b) 4/2/1 d) 1/0/ b) 4/2/
All of the following are benefits of a cool-down EXCEPT: A) Restore physiological systems close to the baseline B) Encourages venous pooling of blood in the lower extremities C) Gradually cool body temperature D) Reduce heart and breathing rates B) Encourages venous pooling of blood in the lower extremities Physical Activity Guidelines recommends adults should accumulate 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity every week or A) 30 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity every week. B) 75 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity every week. C) 95 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity every week. D) 60 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity every week. B) 75 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity every week. Which of the following compounds are considered the CHIEF source of energy for all bodily functions and muscular exertion? a) Proteins c) Fats b) Water d) Carbohydrates d) Carbohydrates Consumption of which of the following is associated with a lower incidence of heart disease, lower incidence of cancer, maintaining good intestinal motility, and helps regulate the body's absorption of glucose? a) Fiber c) Water b) Protein d) Lipids a) Fiber When performing the Squat Jump with Stabilization exercise, how long should a client hold the landing position? a) 1-2 seconds c) 3-5 seconds b) 5-7 seconds d) 8-10 seconds
c) 3-5 seconds _____ simply means creating a purposeful system or plan to achieve a specific goal. a) Program design c) Goniometric assessment b) Reactive training d) Exercise imagery a) Program design Which of the following is an example of a peripheral heart action set? a) Bench Press into a Push-Up c) Push-Up into a Squat b) Squat into a Jump d) Jump Squat into a Power Clean c) Push-Up into a Squat _____ are the most fundamental components of designing a training program that determine the amount of stress placed on the body and what adaptations the body will incur. a) Power adaptations c) Acute variables b) Motor units d) Formed elements c) Acute variables A rest interval of 20-30 seconds replenishes what percentage of ATP/CP stores? a) 10 b) 50 c)30 d) b) 50 The _____ states that the body will particularly adapt to the demands placed on it. a) principle of overload c) principle of specificity b) principle of individualism d) principle of progression c) principle of specificity Actin (thin) and myosin (thick) are the primary components of myofilaments that make which of the following? a) Endomysium c) Sarcomere b) Fascicle d) Myofibril d) Myofibril
Mabel is 75 years old. She exhibits upper cross syndrome and her arms fall forward during the overhead squat. What muscle is likely overactive? a) Gastrocnemius b) Pectorals c) Mid/Lower traps d) Adductor b) Pectorals What is the purpose of phase 1 of the OPT model? a) Increase total body strength b) Increase lactate threshold c) Improve muscle imbalances d) Increase rate of force production c) Improve muscle imbalances What is an example of a "total body" exercise most appropriate for the starting phase of the OPT model? a) Step-up to balance, curl, press c) Barbell clean b) Squat, shrug, calf raise d) Squat, curl, press a) Step-up to balance, curl, press Which of the following is a strategy within a fitness professionals' scope of practice that focuses on the ability to recognize and regulate one's behavior? a) Intervention c) Disassociation b) Self-Monitoring d) Cognitive Restructuring a) Intervention Which of the following is a collaborative person-centered form of guiding to elicit and strengthen motivation for change? a) Disassociation c) Outcome Goal b) Motivational Interviewing d) Objective Goal b) Motivational Interviewing
Which of the following muscles work as a force couple to upwardly rotate the scapulae during a military press? a) Latissimus Dorsi, Bicep Brachii & Levator Scapulae b) Upper Trap, Serratus Anterior, Lower Trap c) Upper Trap, Middle Trap, Lower Trap d) Pectoralis Major, Latissimus Dorsi, Tricep Brachii b) Upper Trap, Serratus Anterior, Lower Trap resistance training workout that involves performing all sets of an exercise or body part before moving onto the next exercise or body part is known as_____ a) Superset b) Circuit Set c) Vertical Loading d) Horizontal Loading d) Horizontal Loading In the context of muscle actions, raising a dumbbell up against the direction of resistance is a(n) a) Concentric Action b) Eccentric Action c) Isometric Action d) OPT Action a) Concentric Action A person's estimated maximal heart rate is found by subtracting his or her age from the number__ a) 200 b) 220 c) d) b) 220 While observing a pulling assessment, a personal trainer notices a client's shoulders elevating. Which of the following exercises is appropriate to strengthen the client's underactive muscles? a) Standing shoulder shrug
b) Ball Cobra c) Seated shoulder press d) Ball Bridge b) Ball Cobra Which of the following is characterized by flat feet and adducted and internally rotated knees? a) Lower crossed syndrome b) Pronation distortion c) Upper crossed syndrome d) Lower extremity movement syndrome b) Pronation distortion A turn-key product is one that ________ a) Requires keys to open b) Needs work to open c) Ready for immediate use d) Requires extensive training c) Ready for immediate use Which of the following is a kinetic chain checkpoint? a) Neck b) Wrist c) Waist d) Knee d) Knee Which of the following indicates goal commitment? a) A client visits a licensed psychologist to deal with her affective influences. b) A client shares his goals with and reports his progress to others. c) A client accepts feedback from her friends and family about her progress. d) A client refrains from setting a fixed timeframe to achieve his goals. b) A client shares his goals with and reports his progress to others.
Which of the following is a progression of the multiplanar jump with stabilization in the frontal plane? a) A transverse plane jump with 90 degrees rotation before landing b) A sagittal plane jump with 90 degrees rotation before landing c) A frontal plane jump with 180 degrees rotation before landing d) A coronal plane jump with 180 degrees rotation before landing a) A transverse plane jump with 90 degrees rotation before landing Which of the following is considered objective information? a) Body composition testing b) Inquiring about client's current injuries c) Asking the client if they wear shoe's with elevated heels d) Asking the client about past surgeries a) Body composition testing Ancillary revenue can be gained through___ a) Personal training services b) Nutritional services c) Membership sales d) Merchandise sales d) Merchandise sales Individuals who have shown a certain level of interest in personal training services are________. a) Targets c) Acquisitions b) Leads d) Clients a) Targets Which of the following is a common mistake made while performing prisoner squats? a) Keeping the neck in neutral alignment b) Allowing the feet to turn out c) Keeping the knees in line with the feet d) Allowing the knees to point outward b) Allowing the feet to turn out
A client complains of pain in his shoulders while performing the triceps dips exercise. Which of the following should a fitness professional suggest to the client to reduce the discomfort? a) Perform the exercise without a bench b) Decrease the range of motion c) Perform the exercise with legs elevated. d) Elevate the shoulders up to the ears and push the body down b) Decrease the range of motion In the context of behavior modification approaches, which of the following is a written statement that outlines the responsibilities of participants, their expected behaviors, and contingencies for changes in their behaviors? a) A contract b) A record c) A prompt d) A journal a) A contract The drawing-in maneuver is a maneuver used to recruit the local core stabilizers by drawing the _____ in toward the spine. a) Shoulder b) navel c) chest d) pelvis b) navel Which of the following is an effect of an ankle sprain? a. A decrease in the neural control to the gluteus medius and gluteus maximus muscles b. A decrease in the neural control to muscles that stabilize the patella c. Decreased neural control to stabilizing muscles of the core of the ankle Incorrect d. Decreased neural control of the rotator cuff muscles a. A decrease in the neural control to the gluteus medius and gluteus maximus muscles
Which of the following is a difference between problem-focused coping and emotion-focused coping? a) Unlike emotion-focused coping, problem-focused coping is used when the problem is responsive to change. b) Unlike problem-focused coping, emotion-focused coping aims at reducing the cause of the stress. c) Unlike problem-focused coping, emotion-focused coping deals with the relationship between the body and the mind. d) Unlike emotion-focused coping, problem-focused coping diverts from negative feelings associated with stress a) Unlike emotion-focused coping, problem-focused coping is used when the problem is responsive to change. The Rockport Walk Test is used to determine which of the following? a) VO2 reserve b) Metabolic equivalent (MET) c) Estimated oxygen consumption d) Estimated heart rate reserve (HRR) c) Estimated oxygen consumption Which of the following glands is called the "master" gland of the endocrine system because it controls the functions of the other endocrine glands? a) Hypothalamus b) Thyroid glands c) Adrenal glands d) Pituitary gland d) Pituitary gland Facilities that are high-end and focus on a niche market segment are ________ facilities. a) Large facility b) Medium sized c) Boutique d) Small Group
c) Boutique In which of the following situations should a certified personal trainer refer a client to a medical professional? a) When the trainer becomes aware of diagnosed osteoporosis b) When the trainer becomes aware of diagnosed hypertension c) When the trainer becomes aware of an undiagnosed allergy d) When the trainer becomes aware of undiagnosed hypertension d) When the trainer becomes aware of undiagnosed hypertension (BLANK)_______trait does not change over time. a) Physical b) Emotional c) Dynamic d) Stable d) Stable When a client performs the Shark Skill performance test for lower body agility, which of the following would result in penalization of .1 seconds? a) Hands falling off the waist b) Returning to the center square c) Hands falling off the head d) Hoping to the desired square a) Hands falling off the waist How many ounces of water should your male clients be consuming per day? a) 91oz b) 115 oz c)98oz d) 125 oz d) 125 oz
The total amount of work performed within a specific period of time is known as: a) Training intensity b) Training volume c) Training duration d) Repetition tempo b) Training volume During phase 3 of the OPT model, a client is suggested to perform horizontal loading with _______________ rest periods? a) 1-3 minutes b) 0-60 seconds c) 3-5 minutes d) 2-4 minutes b) 0-60 seconds