Medical Emergencies and Procedures: A Comprehensive Guide, Exams of Nutrition

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4N051 SSgt WAPS - Full SKT Exam (893 terms) with Verified

Answers.

1. Anterograde (Posttraumatic) Amnesia - Correct answer Inability to remember events after an injury.
2. Basilar Skull Fractures - Correct answer Usually occur following diffuse impact to the head (such as falls, motor vehicle crashes); generally result from extension of a linear fracture to the base of the skull and can be difficult to diagnose with a radiograph (x-ray).
3. Battle's Sign - Correct answer Bruising behind an ear over the mastoid process that may indicate a skull fracture.
4. Cerebral Edema - Correct answer swelling of the brain.
5. Closed Head Injury - Correct answer Injury in which the brain has been injured but the skin has not been broken and there is no obvious bleeding.
6. Concussion - Correct answer a temporary loss or alteration of part of all of the brain's abilities to function without actual physical damage to the brain.
7. Connecting Nerves - Correct answer Nerves in the spinal cord that connect the motor and sensory nerves.
8. Coup-Countercoup Injury - Correct answer dual impacting of the brain into the skull; coup injury occurs at the point of impact; Countercoup injury occurs on the opposite side of impact, as the brain rebounds.
9. Distraction - Correct answer the action of pulling the spine along its length.
10. Epidural Hematoma - Correct answer an accumulation of blood between the skull and the Dura mater.
11. Eyes-Forward Position - Correct answer a head position in which the patient's eyes are looking straight ahead and the head and torso are in line.
12. Four-Person Log Roll - Correct answer the recommended procedure for moving a patient with a suspected spinal injury from the ground to a long backboard.
13. Intervertebral Disk - Correct answer the cushion that lies between two vertebrae.
14. Intracerebral Hematoma - Correct answer bleeding within the brain tissue (parenchyma) itself; also referred to as an intraparenchymal hematoma.
15. ICP - Correct answer Intracranial Pressure.

16. Intracranial Pressure (ICP) - Correct answer the pressure within the cranial vault.
17. Involuntary Activities - Correct answer Actions of the body that are not under a person's conscious control.
18. Linear Skull Fractures - Correct answer Account for 80% of skull fractures; also referred to as no displaced skull fractures; commonly occur in the temporal-parietal region of the skull; not associated with deformities to the skull.
19. Meninges - Correct answer three distinct layers of tissue that surround and protect the brain and the spinal cord within the skull and the spinal canal.
20. Open Head Injury - Correct answer Injury to the head often caused by a penetrating object in which there may be bleeding and exposed brain tissue.
21. Primary (Direct) Injury - Correct answer an injury to the brain and its associated structures that is a direct result of impact to the head.
22. Raccoon Eyes - Correct answer bruising under the eyes that may indicate a skull fracture.
23. Retrograde Amnesia - Correct answer the inability to remember events leading up to a head injury.
24. Secondary (Indirect) Injury - Correct answer the "after effects" of the primary injury; includes abnormal processes such as cerebral edema, increased intracranial pressure, cerebral ischemia and hypoxia, and infection; onset is often delayed following the primary brain injury.
25. Subarachnoid Hemorrhage - Correct answer bleeding into the subarachnoid space, where the cerebrospinal fluid circulates.
26. Subdural Hematoma - Correct answer an accumulation of blood beneath the Dura mater but outside the brain.
27. Subluxation - Correct answer a partial or incomplete dislocation.
28. TBI - Correct answer Traumatic Brain Injury
29. Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI) - Correct answer a traumatic insult to the brain capable of producing physical, intellectual, emotional, social, and vocational changes.
30. Voluntary Activities - Correct answer Actions that we consciously perform, in which sensory input or conscious thought determines a specific muscular activity.
31. Developmental disability - Correct answer insufficient development of the brain resulting in some level of dysfunction or impairment. Can include intellectual, hearing, or vision impairments that surface during infanthood or childhood

32. Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) - Correct answer a group of complex disorders of brain development characterized by difficulties in social interaction, repetitive behaviors, and verbal and nonverbal communication
33. down syndrome - Correct answer a genetic chromosomal defect that can occur during fetal development and that results in intellectual impairment as well as certain physical characteristics such as a round head with a flat occiput and slanted wide set eyes. Increased maternal age and family history are known risk factors for this condition.
34. These are the characteristics of a developmentally disabled patient - Correct answer may appear slow to understand, limited vocabulary
35. Immature behavior
36. Characteristics of autism - Correct answer severe behavioral problems, repetitive motor activities,
37. Impairment in verbal and nonverbal skills, difficulty making eye contact, has trouble answering open ended questions and monotone speech
38. These are the most common forms of hearing loss - Correct answer sensor neural deafness and conductive hearing loss
39. Sensor neural deafness - Correct answer a permanent lack of hearing caused by a lesion or damage of the inner ear
40. Conductive hearing loss - Correct answer hearing loss caused by a faulty transmission of sounds waves. Can be caused by an accumulation of wax within the ear canal or a perforated eardrum
41. Tracheostomy tube - Correct answer a plastic tube placed within the tracheostomy site (stoma)
42. Ventilator malfunction - Correct answer if this malfunction occurs, remove the patient from this devise and begin bag-valve-mask ventilations via the tracheostomy hole
43. Internal cardiac pacemaker - Correct answer this is a device implanted under the patients skin to regulate the heart rate. (Document the type of pacemaker)
44. Left ventricular assist devices (LVAD) - Correct answer this is a special piece of medical equipment that takes over the function of one or both heart ventricles. It is used as a bridge to heart transplantation while a donor heart is located. May be difficult to palpate a pulse in patients who have this
45. central venous catheter - Correct answer a catheter that has its tip placed in the vena cava to and provides venous access (pick-line) used for home care patients, chemotherapy, long term antibiotic or pain management, total parental nutrition

(TPN) hemodialysis, or high concentration glucose solutions. Common locations - chest, upper arm, subclavicular

46. Gastrostomy tubes - Correct answer these may be placed into the stomach for patients who cannot ingest fluids, food or medication by mouth.
47. This transport position should be used for patients with gastric tubes and difficulty breathing - Correct answer sitting or lying on the right side with the head elevated 30 degrees
48. Shunts - Correct answer tubes that drain excess cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the brain to another part of the body outside of the brain such as the abdomen; lowers pressure in the brain. Used for patients with chronic neurologic conditions. Located beneath the skin on the side of the head behind the ear.
49. Signs/symptoms of distress for kids with shunts - Correct answer bulging fontanels (infants) headache, projectile vomiting, AMS, irritability, high pitched cry, fever, nausea, difficulty walking, blurred vision, seizures, redness along the shunt track, bradycardia, and heart arrhythmias
50. Vagal nerve stimulator - Correct answer this is a treatment used for seizures that are not controlled with medication. It stimulates the vague nerve at predetermined intervals to prevent seizure activity. Surgical implant used in children over 12. Located under the patients skin about the size of a silver dollar.
51. Colostomy - Correct answer a surgical procedure to create an opening (stoma) between the small or large intestine and the surface of the body
52. Caregiver - Correct answer interaction with the ___________ is important because they are
53. Experts on caring for the patient and can help determine baseline behavior for the patient
54. Urostomy - Correct answer a surgical procedure to create an opening (stoma) which connects the urinary system to the surface of the skin and allows urine to drain through the abdominal wall instead of through the urethra
55. Tracheostomy - Correct answer a surgical procedure to create an opening (stoma) into the trachea; a stoma in the neck connects the trachea directly to the skin
56. Stoma - Correct answer an opening through the skin and into an organ or other structure
57. spine bifida - Correct answer a development defect in which a portion of the spinal cord or meninges may protrude outside of the vertebrae and possible even outside of the body usually at the lower third of the spine in the lumbar area. This is a birth defect caused by incomplete closure of the spinal column during embryonic or fetal development

58. Obesity - Correct answer a complex condition in which a person has an excessive amount of body fat.
59. Ileostomy - Correct answer a surgical procedure to create an opening (stoma) between the small intestine and the surface of the body.
60. Cerebral palsy - Correct answer this is a brain / group of disorders characterized by poorly controlled body movement. Limbs are often underdeveloped and prone to injury.
61. Intellectual disability - Correct answer results in the inability to learn and socially adapt at a normal developmental rate
62. Characteristics of intellectual disability - Correct answer patients may appear slow to understand or have a limited vocabulary. May behave immaturely compared to their peers. If severely disabled, may not have the ability to care for themselves, communicate, understand or respond to surroundings
63. Pervasive developmental disorder (PDD) - Correct answer characterized by impaired social or communication skills, repetitive behaviors, or a restricted range of interests.
64. Atlantoaxial Instability (AAI) - Correct answer this is characterized by excessive movement at the junction between the atlas (C1) and axis (C2) as a result of either a bony or ligamentous abnormality. Neurologic symptoms can occur when the spinal cord or adjacent nerve roots are involved. 15% of people's neck with Down syndrome is unstable at this joint
65. Behind-the-ear-type hearing aide - Correct answer these are contained in plastic cases that rest behind the ear
66. Conventional body type hearing aids - Correct answer these are an older style used for profound hearing loss
67. in-the-canal & completely in-the-canal hearing aids - Correct answer these are contained in a plastic case that fits partly or completely inside of the ear canal
68. In-the-ear type hearing aids - Correct answer these are contained in a shell that fits in the outer part of the ear
69. Ataxia - Correct answer an unsteady gait
70. mild to severe symptoms of Cerebral Palsy - Correct answer poor posture, uncontrolled spastic movements of the limbs, visual and hearing impairments, difficulty communicating, epilepsy (seizures), intellectual disabilities, unsteady gait which may necessitate a wheelchair or walker
71. Dysphagia - Correct answer difficulty swallowing

72. Hydrocephalus - Correct answer this is a condition in which fluid accumulates in the brain. Found typically in young children, enlarging the head and sometimes causing brain damage.
73. Paralysis - Correct answer inability to voluntarily move one or more body parts (stroke, trauma and birth defects)
74. Hyperesthesia - Correct answer increased sensitivity is called
75. Facial paralysis - Correct answer this can also cause communication challenges
76. Sever obesity - Correct answer this is when a person is 2-3 times over the ideal weight
77. These are associated health problems with obesity - Correct answer mobility difficulties, diabetes, hypertension, heart disease, and stroke
78. Tracheal stoma - Correct answer this provides a path between the surface of the neck and the trachea. Passes from the neck directly into the major airway and bypasses the nose and mouth
79. D.O.P.E. - Correct answer D - displacement, dislodged or damaged tube  - Obstruction of tube (secretions, blood, mucus, vomitus)
80. P - Pneumothorax
81. E - Equipment failure (kinked tubing, ventilator malfunction, and empty oxygen supply)
82. Mechanical ventilators - Correct answer these are used when patients cannot breathe without assistance.
83. Apnea monitors - Correct answer these are used for infants who are premature and have severe gastro esophageal reflux that causes choking episodes. Have a family history of SIDS, have experienced an apparent life-threatening event (ALTE) used 2 weeks - 2 months after birth. An alarm will sound if an infant experiences bradycardia or apnea
84. Automated implanted cardioverter defibrillator - Correct answer a pacemaker may also include this to monitor heart rhythm
85. Non-stop pacemaker - Correct answer this is set at a non-stop pace of 70 bpm
86. Demand pacemaker - Correct answer this sends a pacer spike under a set rate as needed
87. External defibrillator vest - Correct answer this is a vest with built in monitoring electrodes and defibrillation pads which is worn by the patient under their clothing.

88. Ventricular peritoneum shunt - Correct answer this drains excess fluid from the ventricles of the brain into the peritoneum of the abdomen
89. Ventricular atrium shunt - Correct answer this drains excess fluid from the ventricles of the brain into the right atrium of the heart.
90. Palliative care - Correct answer this is the type of care used with pain medications
91. Obese - Correct answer this term is used when someone is 30% or more over their ideal body weight
92. possible causes of cerebral palsy - Correct answer this can stem from the following; damage to the developing fetal brain while in utero, oxygen deprivation at birth, or traumatic brain injury at birth
93. The sign for SICK - Correct answer when a complete hearing impaired patient uses sign language and puts their hand on their head and stomach this means?
94. the sign for HURT - Correct answer when a complete hearing impaired patient uses sign language and extends the index fingers of both hands, brings the fingers toward each other twice using a jabbing or twisting movement, this means?
95. Abruption placenta - Correct answer a premature separation of the placenta from the wall of the uterus
96. Amniotic sac - Correct answer the fluid-filled, baglike membrane in which the fetus develops.
97. Apgar score - Correct answer a scoring system for assessing the status of a newborn that assigns a number value to each of five areas of assessment.
98. Birth canal - Correct answer the vagina and cervix
99. Bloody show - Correct answer A small amount of blood at the vagina that appears at the beginning of labor and my include a plug of pink-tinged mucus that is discharged when the cervix begins to dilate.
100. Breech presentation - Correct answer a delivery in which buttocks come out first.
101. Cervix - Correct answer narrowest portion of the uterus that opens into the vagina.
102. Crowning - Correct answer the appearance of the infant's head at the vaginal opening during labor.
103. Eclampsia - Correct answer Seizures (convulsions) resulting from severe hypertension in a pregnant woman.

104. Ectopic pregnancy - Correct answer a pregnancy that develops outside the uterus, typically in a fallopian tube.
105. Embryo - Correct answer the fertilized egg that is the early stages of a fetus.
106. Endometrium - Correct answer the lining of the inside of the uterus.
107. fetal alcohol syndrome - Correct answer A condition of infants who are born to women who consume alcohol during pregnancy; characterized by growth and physical problems, mental retardation, and a variety of congenital abnormalities.
108. Fetus - Correct answer the developing, unborn infant inside the uterus
109. Fundus - Correct answer the dome-shaped top of the uterus.
110. Gestational diabetes - Correct answer Diabetes that develops during pregnancy in women who did not have diabetes before pregnancy
111. Lightening - Correct answer a sensation felt by a pregnant patient when the fetus positions itself for delivery.
112. Limb presentation - Correct answer a delivery in which presenting part of a single arm, leg, or foot.
113. Meconium - Correct answer A dark green material in the amniotic fluid that can indicate distress or disease in the newborn, the meconium can be aspirated into the infant's lungs during delivery; the infant's first bowel movement
114. Miscarriage - Correct answer the passage of the fetus and placenta before 20 weeks; spontaneous abortion.
115. Multigravida - Correct answer a woman who has had previous pregnancies.
116. Nuchal cord - Correct answer an umbilical cord that is wrapped around the infant's neck
117. Placenta - Correct answer the tissue attached to the uterine wall that nourishes the fetus through the umbilical cord
118. Placenta prevail - Correct answer a condition in which the placenta develops over and covers the cervix.
119. Preeclampsia - Correct answer a condition of late pregnancy that involves headache, visual changes, and swelling of the hands and feet; also called pregnancy-induced hypertension.

120. Pregnancy-induced hypertension - Correct answer a condition of late pregnancy that involves headache, visual changes, and swelling of the hands and feet; also called preeclampsia.
121. Presentation - Correct answer the position in which an infant is born; the part of the infant that appears first.
122. Primigravida - Correct answer a woman who is experiencing her first pregnancy
123. Prolapse of the umbilical cord - Correct answer a situation in which the umbilical cord comes out of the vagina before the infant.
124. Spine bifida - Correct answer a development defect in which a portion of the spinal cord or meninges may protrude outside of the vertebrae and possibly even outside of the body, usually at the lower third of the spine in the lumbar area.
125. Supine hypotensive syndrome - Correct answer Low blood pressure resulting from compression of the inferior vena cava by the weight of the pregnant uterus when the mother is supine.
126. Umbilical cord - Correct answer the conduit connecting the mother to infant via the placenta; contains two arteries and one vein.
127. Vertex presentation - Correct answer a delivery in which the head comes out first.
128. If a patient's mechanical ventilator malfunctions, you should remove the patient from the ventilator and: A) Place the patient on a nasal cannula. B) Place the patient on a no rebreathing mask. C) Begin ventilations with a bag-valve mask. D) Contact medical control. - Correct answer C) begin ventilations with a bag-valve mask.
129. Airway management can be challenging in patients with Down syndrome because there: A) Teeth are misaligned and they have a large tongue. B) Occiput is round, which causes flexion of the neck. C) Tongue is relatively small and falls back in the throat. D) Mandible is large, which inhibits a mask-to-face seal. - Correct answer A) teeth are misaligned and they have a large tongue.
130. When assessing or providing care to a patient with an intellectual disability, you should: A) Explain procedures while in the process of performing them. B) Be observant for signs of fear or reluctance from the patient. C) Move swiftly and deliberately to quickly accomplish the task.

D) Frequently reassure him or her that everything will be okay. - Correct answer B) be observant for signs of fear or reluctance from the patient.

131. General techniques for communicating with hearing-impaired patients include: A) Exaggerating your lip movements to ensure the patient understands. B) Speaking directly into the patient's ear with an increased voice pitch. C) Removing any hearing aids and using pen and paper to ask questions. D) Positioning yourself approximately 18 inches directly in front of the patient. - Correct answer D) positioning yourself approximately 18 inches directly in front of the patient.
132. When enlisting the help of an interpreter who signs, it is important for you to ask the interpreter to: A) Report exactly what the patient signs and not to add any commentary. B) Voice what he or she is signing while communicating with the patient. C) Document the answers to the questions that the patient has responded to. D) Avoid any kind of lip movement while he or she is signing with the patient. - Correct answer A) report exactly what the patient signs and not to add any commentary.
133. Cerebral palsy is a condition that results from damage or injury to the: A) Brain. B) Spinal cord. C) Voluntary muscles. D) Peripheral nervous system. - Correct answer A) brain.
134. When caring for patients with cerebral palsy, it is important to remember that: A) They are unable to walk and are totally dependent upon you. B) Their limbs are often underdeveloped and are prone to injury. C) Hearing aids are usually ineffective for patients with hearing loss. D) Most patients have the ability to walk, but have an unsteady gait. - Correct answer B) their limbs are often underdeveloped and are prone to injury.
135. A tube from the brain to the abdomen that drains excessive cerebrospinal fluid is called a: A) Shunt. B) G-tube. C) CS tube. D) Cerebral bypass. - Correct answer A) shunt.
136. Which of the following does NOT usually contribute to or cause obesity?

A) Rapid metabolism B) High caloric intake C) Low metabolic rate D) Genetic predisposition - Correct answer A) Rapid metabolism

137. General care for a patient with a tracheostomy tube includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A) Ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation at all times. B) Removing the tube if the area around it appears to be infected. C) Suctioning the tube as needed to clear a thick mucus plug. D) Maintaining the patient in a position of comfort when possible. - Correct answer B) removing the tube if the area around it appears to be infected.
138. Which of the following statements regarding patients with developmental disabilities is correct? A) Speaking with the patient's family is the least effective way to determine how much the patient understands. B) Patients with developmental disabilities are susceptible to the same disease processes as other patients. C) A developmental disability differs from mental retardation in that it is the result of a congenital abnormality. D) Most patients with developmental disabilities have normal cognitive function, but abnormal physical features. - Correct answer B) Patients with developmental disabilities are susceptible to the same disease processes as other patients.
139. Down syndrome is a genetic defect that occurs as the result of: A) An extra pair of chromosomes. B) A separation of chromosome 21. C) A triplication of chromosome 21. D) A sperm that contains 24 chromosomes. - Correct answer C) a triplication of chromosome 21.
140. Two thirds of children born with Down syndrome have:
141. Incorrect Response A) Diabetes mellitus. B) Intracranial bleeding. C) Unilateral paralysis. D) Congenital heart disease. - Correct answer D) congenital heart disease.
142. An important aspect in the assessment of a patient who experienced a previous brain injury involves: A) Presuming that he or she has cognitive impairment until proven otherwise. B) Contacting the patient's physician to determine the extent of the brain injury.

C) Recalling that most patients with a brain injury have other organ dysfunction. D) Speaking with the patient and family to establish what is considered normal for the patient. - Correct answer D) speaking with the patient and family to establish what is considered normal for the patient.

143. When caring for a patient who is visually impaired, it is important to: A) Allow a service dog to remain with the patient at all times, even if the patient is critically ill. B) Stand to the side of the patient when speaking if his or her peripheral vision is impaired. C) Leave items such as canes and walkers at the residence if the patient will be carried on a gurney. D) Tell him or her what is happening, identify noises, and describe the situation and surroundings. - Correct answer D) tell him or her what is happening, identify noises, and describe the situation and surroundings.
144. Abrasion - Correct answer Loss or damage of the superficial layer of skin as a result of a body part rubbing or scraping across a rough or hard surface.
145. Amputation - Correct answer an injury in which part of the body is completely severed.
146. Avulsion - Correct answer an injury in which soft tissue is torn completely loose or is hanging as a flap.
147. burns - Correct answer Injuries in which soft-tissue damage occurs as a result from thermal heat, frictional heat, toxic chemicals, electricity, or nuclear radiation.
148. Closed injuries - Correct answer Injuries in which damage occurs beneath the skin or mucous membrane but the surface remains intact.
149. Compartment syndrome - Correct answer swelling in a confined space that produces dangerous pressure; may cut off blood flow or damage sensitive tissue.
150. Contact burn - Correct answer a burn caused by direct contact with a hot object.
151. contamination - Correct answer The presence of infectious organisms or foreign bodies on or in objects such as dressings, water, food, needles, wounds, or a patient's body.
152. Contusion - Correct answer a bruise from an injury that causes bleeding beneath the skin without breaking the skin.

153. Crush syndrome - Correct answer significant metabolic derangement that develops when crushed extremities or body parts remain trapped for prolonged periods. This can lead to renal failure and death.
154. Crushing injury - Correct answer an injury that occurs when a great amount of force is applied to the body.
155. Dermis - Correct answer the inner layer of the skin, containing hair follicles, sweat glands, nerve endings, and blood vessels.
156. Ecchymosis - Correct answer Bruising or discoloration associated with bleeding within or under the skin.
157. Epidermis - Correct answer the outer layer of skin that acts as a watertight protective covering.
158. Evisceration - Correct answer the displacement of organs outside of the body.
159. Fascia - Correct answer the fiber like connective tissue that covers arteries, veins, tendons, and ligaments.
160. Flame burn - Correct answer a burn caused by an open flame.
161. Flash burn - Correct answer a burn caused by exposure to very intense heat, such as in an explosion.
162. full-thickness (third-degree) burns - Correct answer Burns that affects all skin layers and may affect the subcutaneous layers, muscle, bone, and internal organs, leaving the area dry, leathery, and white, dark brown, or charred.
163. Hematoma - Correct answer a mass of blood in the soft tissues beneath the skin.
164. Incision - Correct answer a sharp, smooth cut.
165. Laceration - Correct answer a jagged, open wound.
166. Mucous membranes - Correct answer the lining of body cavities and passages that communicate directly or indirectly with the environment outside the body.
167. Occlusive dressings - Correct answer a dressing made of Vaseline- impregnated gauze, aluminum foil, or plastic that protects a wound from air and bacteria.
168. Open injuries - Correct answer Injuries in which there is a break in the surface of the skin or the mucous membrane, exposing deeper tissue to potential contamination.

169. Partial-thickness (second-degree) burns - Correct answer Burns affecting the epidermis and some portion of the dermis but not the subcutaneous tissue; characterized by blisters and skin that is white to red, moist, and mottled.
170. Penetrating wound - Correct answer an injury resulting from a sharp, pointed object.
171. Rabid - Correct answer describes an animal that is infected with rabies.
172. Rule of nines - Correct answer a system that assigns percentages to sections of the body, allowing calculation of the amount of skin surface involved in the burn area.
173. Scald burn - Correct answer a burn caused by hot liquids.
174. Steam burn - Correct answer a burn caused by exposure to hot steam.
175. Superficial (first-degree) burns - Correct answer Burns affecting only the epidermis; characterized by skin that is red but not blistered or actually burned through.
176. Thermal burns - Correct answer Burns caused by heat.
177. Greenstick (fracture) - Correct answer an incomplete fracture that passes only partway through the shaft of a bone but may still cause substantial angulation; occurs with children
178. Comminuted (fracture) - Correct answer a fracture in which the bone is broken into more than two fragments.
179. Pathologic (fracture) - Correct answer a fracture of weakened or diseased bone, seen in patients with osteoporosis or cancer, generally produced by minimal force.
180. Epiphyseal (fracture) - Correct answer a fracture that occurs in a growth section of a child's bone and may lead to growth abnormalities.
181. Oblique (fracture) - Correct answer a fracture in which the bone is broken at an angle across the bone. This is usually the result of a sharp angled blow to the bone.
182. Transverse (fracture) - Correct answer a fracture that occurs straight across the bone. This is usually the result of a direct blow or stress fracture caused by prolonged running.

183. Spiral (fracture) - Correct answer a fracture caused by a twisting force, causing an oblique fracture around the bone and through the bone. This is often the result of abuse in very young children.
184. Incomplete (fracture) - Correct answer a fracture that does not run completely through the bone; a non-displaced partial crack.
185. Significant forces required to cause fractures or dislocations may be: - Correct answer -direct blows
186. -indirect forces
187. -twisting forces
188. -high energy injuries
189. Musculoskeletal Injury Grading System / Minor Injuries: - Correct answer - minor sprains
190. -fractures or dislocations of digits
191. Musculoskeletal Injury Grading System / Moderate Injuries: - Correct answer - open fractures of digits
192. -non-displaced long-bone fractures
193. -non-displaced pelvic fractures
194. -major sprains of a major joint
195. Musculoskeletal Injury Grading System / Serious Injuries: - Correct answer - displaced long-bone fractures
196. -multiple hand and foot fractures
197. -open long-bone fractures
198. -displaced pelvic fractures
199. -dislocations of major joints
200. -multiple digit amputations
201. -laceration of major nerves or blood vessels
202. Musculoskeletal Injury Grading System / Severe, Life-Threatening Injuries (survival is probable): - Correct answer -multiple closed fractures
203. -limb amputations
204. -fractures of both long bones of the legs (bilateral femur fractures)
205. Musculoskeletal Injury Grading System / Critical Injuries (survival is uncertain): - Correct answer -multiple open fractures of the limbs
206. -suspected pelvic fractures with hemodynamic instability
207. Do not use Traction Splints for any of these conditions: - Correct answer - injuries of the upper extremity
208. -injuries close to or involving the knee
209. -injuries of the hip
210. -injuries of the pelvis
211. -partial amputations or avulsions with bone separation
212. -lower leg, foot, or ankle injury

213. Do not use the PASG (pneumatic antismoke garment) if these conditions exist: - Correct answer -pregnancy
214. -pulmonary edema
215. -acute heart failure
216. -penetrating chest injuries
217. -groin injuries
218. -major head injuries
219. -a transport time of less than 30 minutes
220. Acromioclavicular (AC) joint - Correct answer a simple joint where the bony projections of the scapula and the clavicle meet at the top of the shoulder.
221. Articular cartilage - Correct answer a pearly layer of specialized cartilage covering the articular surfaces (contact surfaces on the ends) of bones in synovial joints.
222. Calcaneus - Correct answer the heel bone.
223. Closed fracture - Correct answer a fracture in which the skin is not broken.
224. Compartment syndrome - Correct answer swelling in a confined space that produces dangerous pressure; may cut off blood flow or damage sensitive tissue.
225. Crepitus - Correct answer a grating or grinding sensation caused by fractured bone ends or joints rubbing together; also air bubbles under the skin that produce a crackling sound or crinkly feeling.
226. Dislocation - Correct answer Disruption of a joint in which ligaments are damaged and the bone ends are completely displaced.
227. Displaced fracture - Correct answer a fracture in which bone fragments are separated from one another and not in anatomic alignment.
228. Ecchymosis - Correct answer Bruising or discoloration associated with bleeding within or under the skin.
229. Fibula - Correct answer the outer and smaller bone of the two bones of the lower leg.
230. Fracture - Correct answer a break in the continuity of a bone.
231. Globoid fossa - Correct answer the part of the scapula that joins with the humeral head to form the glen humeral joint.
232. Hematuria - Correct answer Blood in the urine.
233. Joint - Correct answer the place where two bones come into contact.

234. No displaced fracture - Correct answer a simple crack in the bone that has not caused the bone to move from its normal anatomic position; also called a hairline fracture.
235. Open fracture - Correct answer any break in a bone in which the overlying skin has been damaged.
236. Pelvic binders - Correct answer Used to splint the bony pelvis to reduce hemorrhage from bone ends, venous disruption, and pain.
237. Point tenderness - Correct answer Tenderness that is sharply localized at the site of the injury, found by gently palpating along the bone with the tip of one finger.
238. Position of function - Correct answer a hand position in which the wrist is slightly dorsiflexed and all finger joints are moderately flexed.
239. Reduce - Correct answer Return a dislocated joint or fractured bone to its normal position; set.
240. Retroperitoneal space - Correct answer the space between the abdominal cavity and the posterior abdominal wall, containing the kidneys, certain large vessels, and parts of the gastrointestinal tract.
241. Sciatic nerve - Correct answer the major nerve to the lower extremities; controls much of muscle function in the leg and sensation in most of the leg and foot.
242. Sling - Correct answer a bandage or material that helps to support the weight of an injured upper extremity.
243. Splint - Correct answer a flexible or rigid appliance used to protect and maintain the position of an injured extremity.
244. Sprain - Correct answer a joint injury involving damage to supporting ligaments, and sometimes partial or temporary dislocation of bone ends.
245. Strain - Correct answer Stretching or tearing of a muscle; also called a muscle pull.
246. Subluxation - Correct answer a partial or incomplete dislocation.
247. Swathe - Correct answer a bandage that passes around the chest to secure an injured arm to the chest.
248. Tibia - Correct answer the shin bone, the larger of the two bones of the lower leg.

249. Tourniquet - Correct answer the bleeding control method used when a wound continues to bleed despite the use of direct pressure and elevation; useful if a patient is bleeding severely from a partial or complete amputation.
250. Traction - Correct answer longitudinal force applied to a structure.
251. Zone of injury - Correct answer the area of potentially damaged soft tissue, adjacent nerves, and blood vessels surrounding an injury to a bone or a joint.
252. Which Air Force Doctrine Document (AFFD) is the primary guide used by the Air Force Medical Service commanders to accomplish their mission? (001) - Correct answer AFDD 4-02, Medical Operations.
253. Why is Medical Doctrine necessary? (001) - Correct answer Guides commanders in using assets.
254. What type of doctrine guides organization and employment of forces within distinct objective, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment? (001) - Correct answer Operational
255. Tactical doctrine can be explained best by which of the following examples? (001) - Correct answer a car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed
256. Or safety factors.
257. What kind of change to casualty survival rates occurs when aeromedical evacuation (AE) is available? (002) - Correct answer significantly increase
258. Which Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) increment has no beds? (002) - Correct answer EMEDS Basic.
259. Who is qualified to perform a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD)? (002) - Correct answer Mental Health personnel and Aerospace Med Specialist with additional training.
260. Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) Basic requires both routine aeromedical evacuation (AE) support and urgent AE support within how many hours of notification? (002) - Correct answer 24 hours for routine AE support, and 12 hours for urgent AE support.
261. What is total number of personal assigned to the Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) +25? (002) - Correct answer 86.
262. The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) has which skill level? (003) - Correct answer 4N
263. Who develops and maintains currency of the career field education and training plan (CFETP)? (003) - Correct answer Air Force career field manager

264. What figure in an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies career grouping? (004) - Correct answer First
265. Who may request a 4N0X1 Job Inventory? (005) - Correct answer Career field manager
266. How often is the 4N0xx Job Inventory normally completed? (005) - Correct answer Every 3 years
267. Who is responsible for completing the graduate Assessment Survey (GAS)? (005) - Correct answer Supervisor
268. Why is it required for 4N0X1 personnel to complete sustainment training? (006) - Correct answer Maintain skills.
269. Required Specialty Verification Program (RSVP) is designed to sustain Air Force specialty code (AFSC) training in what location? (006) - Correct answer Deployed setting.
270. What timeframe is best to conduct in-service training within your unit? (007) - Correct answer on training days
271. The Master Training Plan (MTP) is used to outline? (008) - Correct answer training goals and milestones for enlisted within the assigned area
272. Duty section job description and the upgrade training plan is kept in the? (008) - Correct answer Master Training Plan (MTP).
273. Your first step for creating and editing a Master Training Plan (MTP) in your Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is to select with option from AFTR Data/MTP menu? (008) - Correct answer Create/Edit MTP.
274. What is the fourth step in Air Force Training Record (AFTR) for editing and specialty training standard (STS) Master Training Plan (MTP) tasks? (008) - Correct answer the user must enter in a Start Month, End Month, Training Days, Training Method, and Evaluation
275. Method, and Training Aid
276. What two parts divide the Master Training List (MTL) section? (009) - Correct answer STS on the left and MTL on the right
277. The Edit Master Training List (MTL) menu option allows which certification level requirement to be edited? (009) - Correct answer. MTL tasks 5 and 7.
278. The first step when creating/editing the Duty Task List (DTL) in your Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is to select the? (010) - Correct answer Create/Edit DTL option from the AFTR Data/Duty Position menu.

279. Some additional factors must be considered when determining training requirements. What are they? (011) - Correct answer Deployment requirements, AEF tasks, and other factors driving the training need must also be
280. Considered when determining training requirements.
281. Who or whom do you contact, if there is a training requirement for which you have no trainer or certifier? (012) - Correct answer Base Training Office.
282. The total training program leads to? (013) - Correct answer higher skill level.
283. The steps to evaluate a 4N0X1's competency on a task involves reviewing the? (013) - Correct answer behavior exhibited while completing the task; the conditions where the task was performed;
284. And the standards that fall under each task.
285. Which personal provides specifics training information for particular tasks or knowledge? (014) - Correct answer Your OJT trainer or supervisor.
286. What does task knowledge identify? (014) - Correct answer your ability to identify facts, state principles, analyze or evaluate the subject
287. To fully understand task knowledge, what step is used to assess your ability? (014) - Correct answer Name parts, tools, and simple facts about the task.
288. To fully understand subject knowledge, the steps to assess your ability include? (014) - Correct answer analyzing facts and principles and draw conclusions about the subject.
289. What information is updated when each task is successfully learned and demonstrated by the trainee in Air Force Training Record? (AFTR) (015) - Correct answer Start and complete date with trainee, trainer, and certifier initials (if applicable).
290. Each time an Airman Changes duty positions (transfers from another base to work center), the supervisor must perform? (015) - Correct answer an initial evaluation.
291. After achieving training and knowledge, what is the 1st question you should ask yourself to determine proficiency level? (016) - Correct answer Can I do simple parts of the task?
292. After achieving training and knowledge, what is the last question you should ask yourself to determine proficiency level? (016) - Correct answer Can I do the complete task quickly and accurately? Can tell or show others how to do the task?

293. The Air Force training record (AFTR), AF Form 623, AF Form 803, and training critiques or surveys are used to document? (017) - Correct answer training effectiveness.
294. If training is effective, what should trainees remember? (017) - Correct answer the requirements to successfully complete the job.
295. What is one of the methods used to develop and evaluate training effectiveness? (017) - Correct answer Analyze if everyone actively participated in training process
296. Name one of the three shred-outs of the 4N0X1 career field? (018) - Correct answer Neurology technician.
297. Your first step in successful recommendation for formal training begins? (019)

- Correct answer with meeting the requirements in the Enlisted Classification Directory, Education and Training 

298. Course Announcements (ETCA), and AFI 36-2626
299. What educational and training steps must be completed to apply for technical training instructor? (019) - Correct answer National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) certification; QTPs for
300. Assigned position; complete all duty position training requirements
301. What must you meet prior to applying for retraining? (019) - Correct answer Eligibility requirements.
302. What is one criterion used by the Quality Retraining Program (QRP) board to rank Airmen applying for retraining? (019) - Correct answer Last three EPRs.
303. The overall objective of taking advantage of retraining opportunities is to balance the? (019) - Correct answer career force of each Air Force specialty code (AFSC) as needed
304. To access your electronic training record in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR), log into the Advanced Distributive Learning System (ADLS), the click on? (020) - Correct answer Training Records.
305. The procedures to update the User Location for MACJCOM, Base, Unit, or Work center is performed by clicking? (021) - Correct answer My Profile and editing Root and Sub Organizations
306. If training status code changes, whom do you contact to update the code in the user training information? (021) - Correct answer Unit training manager.
307. What section is used in Air Force Training Record (AFTR) to update career development course (CDC) start and complete dates? (022) - Correct answer AF 623 Part II

308. The Training Type drop down menu is used to view the entire training Record and? (022) - Correct answer Qualification Training
309. What's the first button trainee's click to sign off 623A entries in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR)? (023) - Correct answer USER
310. What is the first step trainees make in searching for 1098 items to update the Air Force Form 1098? (024) - Correct answer Click the SEARCH RECORD button.
311. What is the first step trainees use to sign off a task as a trainee on Job Qualifications Standard (JQS) if a task already has a start date? (025) - Correct answer. Select a task and click the TRAINEE button
312. Which form is used to access Job Qualification Standard (JQS) continuation items? (026) - Correct answer AF Form 797.
313. The purpose of an AF Form 803 involves what two evaluation steps? (026) - Correct answer Conduct and document completion of task evaluations during training
314. What button do you click to add new file information to the Air Force Training Record (AFTR) User File? (027) - Correct answer ADD FILE
315. What system is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget and other important resource allocation decisions for medical personnel? (028) - Correct answer Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System.
316. Who approves or disapproves an Authorization Change Request? (029) - Correct answer Major command (MAJCOM).
317. Who is responsible to lead their teams and establish clear standards for the Work Centers? (030) - Correct answer Supervisors
318. When setting priorities, what category is used to assign an urgent priority? (031) - Correct answer Category A
319. What are the responsibilities of the scheduler within a unit or clinic to make sure all shifts are adequately covered? (032) - Correct answer Use all Air Force instructions, OIs, and local guidance to prepare a duty schedule.
320. Who is responsible for final approval of the enlisted duty schedule within a unit or clinic? (032) - Correct answer Nurse Managers and NCOICs
321. What references and guidance does the scheduler use to prepare a duty schedule for the unit or clinic? (032) - Correct answer Air Force instructions (AFI), operating instructions (OI), and local guidance.

322. What duty schedule provides a continual rotation, but the least amount of flexibility? (032) - Correct answer Cyclical.
323. What type of information can you provide all new personnel on preparation of duty schedules? (033) - Correct answer Authority, responsibility, and delegation; length of cycle rotation and direction-forward,
324. Backward; deadlines for posting; guidelines for changes and/or exchanging hours; reporting
325. Schedule changes.
326. What mandatory formations do you keep in mind when making a schedule? (033) - Correct answer Mobility exercises.
327. Performance can be broken down into what types of criteria? (034) - Correct answer Qualitative and quantitative.
328. Who is responsible for the control, care, use, and safeguarding of public property under control of the Air Force? (035) - Correct answer each individual.
329. By training new personnel on proper equipment, what is the supervisor likely to prevent? (035) - Correct answer Equipment damage and injury to a patient
330. What is the name of the product that is generated through the Defense Medical Logistics Support System (DMLSS) and lists information pertaining to all supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in from a section? (036) - Correct answer Activity issue/turn-in summary
331. What actions should the property custodian take if a backorder item is no longer needed? (036) - Correct answer Attempt to cancel the order through MEMO
332. What should you do if an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days? (036) - Correct answer Ask Medical Equipment Management Office (MEMO) personnel to check on the order.
333. How often are medical and nonmedical equipment inspections usually conducted? (037) - Correct answer Daily.
334. What is the primary source for recording medical or nonmedical equipment repair? (037) - Correct answer AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt or custodian actions/custodial report listing.
335. Who should you contact to obtain the most current procedures and local policy for medical or nonmedical equipment problems or concerns? (037) - Correct answer Biomedical equipment repair technician
336. Which are the two primary categories of items that require report of survey (ROS) documentation if lost, damaged, or destroyed? (038) - Correct answer Supply system stocks and property record items

337. Pecuniary liability is generally limited to a maximum of one-month's base pay of? (038) - Correct answer a person who lost or damaged property.
338. A report of survey (ROS) is referred to the legal office for review when? (038)

- Correct answer. Financial responsibility is assessed. 

339. What form is used when an individual admits pecuniary liability and wants to make a cash payment? (038) - Correct answer DD Form 1131.
340. Which of the following defines no maleficence? (039) - Correct answer the duty to do no harm.
341. Each medical treatment facility (MTF) must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for which of the following responsibilities? (039) - Correct answer Chaperone
342. Which category of personnel does the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) affect? (040) - Correct answer anyone handling patient information.
343. For general guidance regarding the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) use? (040) - Correct answer DOD Regulation 6025.18-R
344. Which is an appropriate way to help relieve a patient's stress? (041) - Correct answer Remain honest and in control to decrease the patient's anxiety
345. Which procedure is not a useful social media tip when Airmen and their families are communicating online? (042) - Correct answer No precautions are taken while off-duty.
346. Which model is the correct type for Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH)? (043) - Correct answer Team-based model.
347. What is the purpose of Team Huddles and how often do they occur within a Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH)? (043) - Correct answer Intended for problem solving and updating the team's work plan; daily.
348. What updates are completed nightly by CarPoint? (043) - Correct answer Lab and screening tests with updates to both action lists and patient counts
349. Enrollment information from the Defense Enrollment and Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) is sent to the medical treatment facility (MTF) at least? (044) - Correct answer quarterly
350. If you are trying to determine the deployment status of a unit, what system should you use that will support Force Health Protection, Population Health, and

Military Health System (MHS) optimization? (044) - Correct answer. Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application

351. When patient care is not documented what can be assumed about the patient's treatment? (044) - Correct answer No care or treatment was accomplished.
352. What step does a medical technician provide in the workflow process? (045) - Correct answer Uses a common AIM form to enter data into AHLTA.
353. Who starts the Tri-Service workflow form documentation? (045) - Correct answer the patient signs in and data is entered in an encounter worksheet or SF600 overprint.
354. What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when used in International Classification of Diseases (ICD-9)? (046) - Correct answer Not elsewhere classified.
355. When do Preventive Health Assessment (PHA) member's status turn yellow in Aeromedical Services Information Management System (ASIMS)? (047) - Correct answer When PHA is due within 3 months
356. When Preventive Health Assessment (PHA) status do turns red and what items may be overdue? (047) - Correct answer Member needs to complete immunizations, PHAs, dental, and deployment health assessments
357. (DHAs). It turns red on day 456.
358. What are the principles of population health management? (048) - Correct answer Support the DOD and our nation's security.
359. What is the purpose of case management? (048) - Correct answer Promote quality, safe, and cost-effective care
360. What is the purpose of utilization management (UM)? (048) - Correct answer Identify, monitor, evaluate, and resolve issues.
361. What is the correct anatomical position of the spine as it relates to the sternum? - Correct answer posterior
362. Line projecting at right angles to the plane of motion best describes which of the following body movements? - Correct answer axis of joint rotation
363. Moving the forearm toward the head by bending the elbow is an example of?

- Correct answer flexion 

364. Why it is important to ensure medical abbreviations, documentation and terminology are written accurately? - Correct answer provide clear and concise pt. info