Medical Terminology Exam Questions and Answers, Exams of Nutrition and Aging

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DO NOT COPY 1) 4N051 SSgt WAPS - Full SKT Exam Questions and Answers Latest Update 2023 GRADED A+ 2) Anterograde (Posttraumatic) Amnesia - correct answer ✅Inability to remember events after an injury. 3) Basilar Skull Fractures - correct answer ✅Usually occur following diffuse impact to the head (such as falls, motor vehicle crashes); generally, result from extension of a linear fracture to the base of the skull and can be difficult to diagnose with a radiograph (x- ray). 4) Battle's Sign - correct answer ✅Bruising behind an ear over the mastoid process that may indicate a skull fracture. 5) Cerebral Edema - correct answer ✅Swelling of the brain. 6) Closed Head Injury - correct answer ✅Injury in which the brain ahs been injured but the skin has not been broken and there is no obvious bleeding. 7) Concussion - correct answer ✅A temporary loss or alteration of part of all of the brain's abilities to function without actual physical damage to the brain. 8) Connecting Nerves - correct answer ✅Nerves in the spinal cord that connect the motor and sensory nerves. 9) Coup-Contrecoup Injury - correct answer ✅Dual impacting of the brain into the skull; coup injury occurs at the point of impact; Contrecoup injury occurs on the opposite side of impact, as the brain rebounds. 10) Distraction - correct answer ✅the action of pulling the spine along its length. 11) Epidural Hematoma - correct answer ✅An accumulation of blood between the skull and the dura mater. 12) Eyes-Forward Position - correct answer ✅A head position in which the patient's eyes are looking straight ahead and the head and torso are in line. 13) Four-Person Log Roll - correct answer ✅The recommended procedure for moving a patient with a suspected spinal injury from the ground to a long backboard. 14) Intervertebral Disk - correct answer ✅The cushion that lies between two vertebrae. 15) Intracerebral Hematoma - correct answer ✅Bleeding within the brain tissue (parenchyma) itself; also referred to as an intraparenchymal hematoma. 16) ICP - correct answer ✅Intracranial Pressure. 17) Intracranial Pressure (ICP) - correct answer ✅The pressure within the cranial vault. 18) Involuntary Activities - correct answer ✅Actions of the body that are not under a person's conscious control. 19) Linear Skull Fractures - correct answer ✅Account for 80% of skull fractures; also referred to as nondisplaced skull fractures; commonly occur in the temporal-parietal region of the skull; not associated with deformities to the skull. 20) Meninges - correct answer ✅Three distinct layers of tissue that surround and protect the brain and the spinal cord within the skull and the spinal canal. 21) Open Head Injury - correct answer ✅Injury to the head often caused by a penetrating object in which there may be bleeding and exposed brain tissue. 22) Primary (Direct) Injury - correct answer ✅An injury to the brain and its associated structures that is a direct result of impact to the head. 44) internal cardiac pacemaker - correct answer ✅this is a device implanted under the patients skin to regulate the heart rate. (document the type of pacemaker) 45) left ventricular assist devices (LVAD) - correct answer ✅this is a special piece of medical equipment that takes over the function of one or both heart ventricles. it is used as a bridge to heart transplantation while a donor heart is located. may be difficult to palpate a pulse in patients who have this 46) central venous catheter - correct answer ✅a catheter that has its tip placed in the vena cavato and provides venous access (pick-line) used for home care patients, chemotherapy, long term antibiotic or pain management, total parental nutrition (TPN) hemodialysis, or high concentration glucose solutions. common locations - chest, upper arm, subclavicular 47) gastrostomy tubes - correct answer ✅these may be placed into the stomach for patients who cannot ingest fluids, food or medication by mouth. 48) this transport position should be used for patients with gastric tubes and difficulty breathing - correct answer ✅sitting or lying on the right side with the head elevated 30 degrees 49) shunts - correct answer ✅tubes that drain excess cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the brain to another part of the body outside of the brain such as the abdomen; lowers pressure in the brain. used for patients with chronic neurologic conditions. located beneath the skin on the side of the head behind the ear. 50) signs/symptoms of distress for kids with shunts - correct answer ✅bulging fontanelles (infants) headache, projectile vomiting, AMS, irritability, high pitched cry, fever, nausea, difficulty walking, blurred vision, seizures, redness along the shunt track, bradycardia, and heart arrhythmias 51) vagal nerve stimulator - correct answer ✅this is a treatment used for seizures that are not controlled with medication. it stimulates the vagus nerve at predetermined intervals to prevent seizure activity. surgical implant used in children over 12. located under the patients skin about the size of a silver dollar. 52) colostomy - correct answer ✅a surgical procedure to create an opening (stoma) between the small or large intestine and the surface of the body 53) caregiver - correct answer ✅interaction with the ___________ is important because they are 54) experts on caring for the patient and can help determine baseline behavior for the patient 55) urostomy - correct answer ✅a surgical procedure to create an opening (stoma) which connects the urinary system to the surface of the skin and allows urine to drain through the abdominal wall instead of through the urethra 56) tracheostomy - correct answer ✅a surgical procedure to create an opening (stoma) into the trachea; a stoma in the neck connects the trachea directly to the skin 57) stoma - correct answer ✅an opening through the skin and into an organ or other structure 58) spina bifida - correct answer ✅a development defect in which a portion of the spinal cord or meninges may protrude outside of the vertebrae and possible even outside of the body usually at the lower third of the spine in the lumbar area. this is a birth defect caused by incomplete closure of the spinal column during embryonic or fetal development 59) obesity - correct answer ✅a complex condition in which a person has an excessive amount of body fat. 60) ileostomy - correct answer ✅a surgical procedure to create an opening (stoma) between the small intestine and the surface of the body. 61) cerebral palsy - correct answer ✅this is a brain / group of disorders characterized by poorly controlled body movement. limbs are often underdeveloped and prone to injury. 62) intellectual disability - correct answer ✅results in the inability to learn and socially adapt at a normal developmental rate 63) characteristics of intellectual disability - correct answer ✅patients may appear slow to understand or have a limited vocabulary. may behave immaturely compared to their peers. if severely disabled, may not have the ability to care for themselves, communicate, understand or respond to surroundings 64) pervasive developmental disorder (PDD) - correct answer ✅characterized by impaired social or communication skills, repetitive behaviors, or a restricted range of interests. 65) Atlantoaxial Instability (AAI) - correct answer ✅this is characterized by excessive movement at the junction between the atlas (C1) and axis (C2) as a result of either a bony or ligamentous abnormality. Neurologic symptoms can occur when the spinal cord or adjacent nerve roots are involved. 15% of people's neck with down syndrome is unstable at this joint 66) behind-the-ear-type hearing aide - correct answer ✅these are contained in plastic cases that rest behind the ear 67) conventional body type hearing aides - correct answer ✅these are an older style used for profound hearing loss 68) in-the-canal & completely in-the-canal hearing aides - correct answer ✅these are contained in a plastic case that fits partly or completely inside of the ear canal 69) in-the-ear type hearing aides - correct answer ✅these are contained in a shell that fits in the outer part of the ear 70) ataxia - correct answer ✅an unsteady gait 93) possible causes of cerebral palsy - correct answer ✅this can stem from the following; damage to the developing fetal brain while in utero, oxygen deprivation at birth, or traumatic brain injury at birth 94) the sign for SICK - correct answer ✅when a complete hearing impaired patient uses sign language and puts their hand on there head and stomach this means? 95) the sign for HURT - correct answer ✅when a complete hearing impaired patient uses sign language and extends the index fingers of both hands, brings the fingers toward each other twice using a jabbing or twisting movement, this means? 96) abruptio placenta - correct answer ✅a premature separation of the placenta from the wall of the uterus 97) amniotic sac - correct answer ✅The fluid-filled, baglike membrane in which the fetus develops. 98) apgar score - correct answer ✅A scoring system for assessing the status of a newborn that assigns a number value to each of five areas of assessment. 99) birth canal - correct answer ✅The vagina and cervix 100) bloody show - correct answer ✅A small amount of blood at the vagina that appears at the beginning of labor and my include a plug of pink-tinged mucus that is discharged when the cervix begins to dilate. 101) breech presentation - correct answer ✅A delivery in which buttocks come out first. 102) cervix - correct answer ✅Narrowest portion of the uterus that opens into the vagina. 103) crowning - correct answer ✅The appearance of the infant's head at the vaginal opening during labor. 104) eclampsia - correct answer ✅Seizures (convulsions) resulting from severe hypertension in a pregnant woman. 105) ectopic pregnancy - correct answer ✅A pregnancy that develops outside the uterus, typically in a fallopian tube. 106) embryo - correct answer ✅The fertilized egg that is the early stages of a fetus. 107) endometrium - correct answer ✅The lining of the inside of the uterus. 108) fetal alcohol syndrome - correct answer ✅A condition of infants who are born to women who consume alcohol during pregnancy; characterized by growth and physical problems, mental retardation, and a variety of congenital abnormalities. 109) fetus - correct answer ✅The developing, unborn infant inside the uterus 110) fundus - correct answer ✅The dome-shaped top of the uterus. 111) gestational diabetes - correct answer ✅Diabetes that develops during pregnancy in women who did not have diabetes before pregnancy 112) lightening - correct answer ✅A sensation felt by a pregnant patient when the fetus positions itself for delivery. 113) limb presentation - correct answer ✅A delivery in which presenting part of a single arm, leg, or foot. 114) meconium - correct answer ✅A dark green material in the amniotic fluid that can indicate distress or disease in the newborn, the meconium can be aspirated into the infant's lungs during delivery; the infant's first bowel movement 115) miscarriage - correct answer ✅The passage of the fetus and placenta before 20 weeks; spontaneous abortion. 116) multigravida - correct answer ✅A woman who has had previous pregnancies. 117) nuchal cord - correct answer ✅an umbilical cord that is wrapped around the infant's neck 118) placenta - correct answer ✅The tissue attached to the uterine wall that nourishes the fetus through the umbilical cord 119) placenta previa - correct answer ✅A condition in which the placenta develops over and covers the cervix. 120) preeclampsia - correct answer ✅A condition of late pregnancy that involves headache, visual changes, and swelling of the hands and feet; also called pregnancy- induced hypertension. 121) pregnancy-induced hypertension - correct answer ✅A condition of late pregnancy that involves headache, visual changes, and swelling of the hands and feet; also called preeclampsia. 122) presentation - correct answer ✅The position in which an infant is born; the part of the infant that appears first. 123) primigravida - correct answer ✅A woman who is experiencing her first pregnancy 136) A tube from the brain to the abdomen that drains excessive cerebrospinal fluid is called a: A) shunt. B) G-tube. C) CS tube. D) cerebral bypass. - correct answer ✅A) shunt. 137) Which of the following does NOT usually contribute to or cause obesity? A) Rapid metabolism B) High caloric intake C) Low metabolic rate D) Genetic predisposition - correct answer ✅A) Rapid metabolism 138) General care for a patient with a tracheostomy tube includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A) ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation at all times. B) removing the tube if the area around it appears to be infected. C) suctioning the tube as needed to clear a thick mucous plug. D) maintaining the patient in a position of comfort when possible. - correct answer ✅B) removing the tube if the area around it appears to be infected. 139) Which of the following statements regarding patients with developmental disabilities is correct? A) Speaking with the patient's family is the least effective way to determine how much the patient understands. B) Patients with developmental disabilities are susceptible to the same disease processes as other patients. C) A developmental disability differs from mental retardation in that it is the result of a congenital abnormality. D) Most patients with developmental disabilities have normal cognitive function, but abnormal physical features. - correct answer ✅B) Patients with developmental disabilities are susceptible to the same disease processes as other patients. 140) Down syndrome is a genetic defect that occurs as the result of: A) an extra pair of chromosomes. B) a separation of chromosome 21. C) a triplication of chromosome 21. D) a sperm that contains 24 chromosomes. - correct answer ✅C) a triplication of chromosome 21. 141) Two thirds of children born with Down syndrome have: 142) Incorrect Response A) diabetes mellitus. B) intracranial bleeding. C) unilateral paralysis. D) congenital heart disease. - correct answer ✅D) congenital heart disease. 143) An important aspect in the assessment of a patient who experienced a previous brain injury involves: A) presuming that he or she has cognitive impairment until proven otherwise. B) contacting the patient's physician to determine the extent of the brain injury. C) recalling that most patients with a brain injury have other organ dysfunction. D) speaking with the patient and family to establish what is considered normal for the patient. - correct answer ✅D) speaking with the patient and family to establish what is considered normal for the patient. 144) When caring for a patient who is visually impaired, it is important to: A) allow a service dog to remain with the patient at all times, even if the patient is critically ill. B) stand to the side of the patient when speaking if his or her peripheral vision is impaired. C) leave items such as canes and walkers at the residence if the patient will be carried on a gurney. D) tell him or her what is happening, identify noises, and describe the situation and surroundings. - correct answer ✅D) tell him or her what is happening, identify noises, and describe the situation and surroundings. 145) abrasion - correct answer ✅Loss or damage of the superficial layer of skin as a result of a body part rubbing or scraping across a rough or hard surface. 146) amputation - correct answer ✅An injury in which part of the body is completely severed. 147) avulsion - correct answer ✅An injury in which soft tissue is torn completely loose or is hanging as a flap. 148) burns - correct answer ✅Injuries in which soft-tissue damage occurs as a result from thermal heat, frictional heat, toxic chemicals, electricity, or nuclear radiation. 149) closed injuries - correct answer ✅Injuries in which damage occurs beneath the skin or mucous membrane but the surface remains intact. 150) compartment syndrome - correct answer ✅Swelling in a confined space that produces dangerous pressure; may cut off blood flow or damage sensitive tissue. 151) contact burn - correct answer ✅A burn caused by direct contact with a hot object. 152) contamination - correct answer ✅The presence of infectious organisms or foreign bodies on or in objects such as dressings, water, food, needles, wounds, or a patient's body. 153) contusion - correct answer ✅A bruise from an injury that causes bleeding beneath the skin without breaking the skin. 154) crush syndrome - correct answer ✅Significant metabolic derangement that develops when crushed extremities or body parts remain trapped for prolonged periods. This can lead to renal failure and death. 155) crushing injury - correct answer ✅An injury that occurs when a great amount of force is applied to the body. 178) Greenstick (fracture) - correct answer ✅an incomplete fracture that passes only partway through the shaft of a bone but may still cause substantial angulation; occurs with children 179) Comminuted (fracture) - correct answer ✅a fracture in which the bone is broken into more than two fragments. 180) Pathologic (fracture) - correct answer ✅a fracture of weakened or diseased bone, seen in patients with osteoporosis or cancer, generally produced by minimal force. 181) Epiphyseal (fracture) - correct answer ✅a fracture that occurs in a growth section of a child's bone and may lead to growth abnormalities. 182) Oblique (fracture) - correct answer ✅a fracture in which the bone is broken at an angle across the bone. This is usually the result of a sharp angled blow to the bone. 183) Transverse (fracture) - correct answer ✅a fracture that occurs straight across the bone. This is usually the result of a direct blow or stress fracture caused by prolonged running. 184) Spiral (fracture) - correct answer ✅a fracture caused by a twisting force, causing an oblique fracture around the bone and through the bone. This is often the result of abuse in very young children. 185) Incomplete (fracture) - correct answer ✅a fracture that does not run completely through the bone; a non-displaced partial crack. 186) significant forces required to cause fractures or dislocations may be: - correct answer ✅-direct blows 187) -indirect forces 188) -twisting forces 189) -high energy injuries 190) Musculoskeletal Injury Grading System / Minor Injuries: - correct answer ✅- minor sprains 191) -fractures or dislocations of digits 192) Musculoskeletal Injury Grading System / Moderate Injuries: - correct answer ✅- open fractures of digits 193) -non-displaced long-bone fractures 194) -non-displaced pelvic fractures 195) -major sprains of a major joint 196) Musculoskeletal Injury Grading System / Serious Injuries: - correct answer ✅- displaced long-bone fractures 197) -multiple hand and foot fractures 198) -open long-bone fractures 199) -displaced pelvic fractures 200) -dislocations of major joints 201) -multiple digit amputations 202) -laceration of major nerves or blood vessels 203) Musculoskeletal Injury Grading System / Severe, Life-Threatening Injuries (survival is probable): - correct answer ✅-multiple closed fractures 204) -limb amputations 205) -fractures of both long bones of the legs (bilateral femur fractures) 206) Musculoskeletal Injury Grading System / Critical Injuries (survival is uncertain): - correct answer ✅-multiple open fractures of the limbs 207) -suspected pelvic fractures with hemodynamic instablility 208) Do not use Traction Splints for any of these conditions: - correct answer ✅- injuries of the upper extremity 209) -injuries close to or involving the knee 210) -injuries of the hip 211) -injuries of the pelvis 212) -partial amputations or avulsions with bone separation 213) -lower leg, foot, or ankle injury 214) Do not use the PASG (pneumatic antishock garment) if these conditions exist: - correct answer ✅-pregnancy 215) -pulmonary edema 216) -acute heart failure 217) -penetrating chest injuries 218) -groin injuries 219) -major head injuries 220) -a transport time of less than 30 minutes 221) acromioclavicular (AC) joint - correct answer ✅A simple joint where the bony projections of the scapula and the clavicle meet at the top of the shoulder. 222) articular cartilage - correct answer ✅A pearly layer of specialized cartilage covering the articular surfaces (contact surfaces on the ends) of bones in synovial joints. 223) calcaneus - correct answer ✅The heel bone. 224) closed fracture - correct answer ✅A fracture in which the skin is not broken. 225) compartment syndrome - correct answer ✅Swelling in a confined space that produces dangerous pressure; may cut off blood flow or damage sensitive tissue. 226) crepitus - correct answer ✅A grating or grinding sensation caused by fractured bone ends or joints rubbing together; also air bubbles under the skin that produce a crackling sound or crinkly feeling. 227) dislocation - correct answer ✅Disruption of a joint in which ligaments are damaged and the bone ends are completely displaced. 228) displaced fracture - correct answer ✅A fracture in which bone fragments are separated from one another and not in anatomic alignment. 251) traction - correct answer ✅Longitudinal force applied to a structure. 252) zone of injury - correct answer ✅The area of potentially damaged soft tissue, adjacent nerves, and blood vessels surrounding an injury to a bone or a joint. 253) Which Air Force Doctrine Document (AFFD) is the primary guide used by the Air Force Medical Service commanders to accomplish their mission? (001) - correct answer ✅AFDD 4-02, Medical Operations. 254) Why is Medical Doctrine necessary? (001) - correct answer ✅Guides commanders in using assets. 255) What type of doctrine guides organization and employment of forces within distinct objective, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment? (001) - correct answer ✅Operational 256) Tactical doctrine can be explained best by which of the following examples? (001) - correct answer ✅A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed 257) or safety factors. 258) What kind of change to casualty survival rates occurs when aeromedical evacuation (AE) is available? (002) - correct answer ✅Significantly increase 259) Which Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) increment has no beds? (002) - correct answer ✅EMEDS Basic. 260) Who is qualified to perform a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD)? (002) - correct answer ✅Mental Health personnel and Aerospace Med Specialist with additional training. 261) Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) Basic requires both routine aeromedical evacuation (AE) support and urgent AE support within how many hours of notification? (002) - correct answer ✅24 hours for routine AE support, and 12 hours for urgent AE support. 262) What is total number of personal assigned to the Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) +25? (002) - correct answer ✅86. 263) The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) has which skill level? (003) - correct answer ✅4N000 264) Who develops and maintains currency of the career field education and training plan (CFETP)? (003) - correct answer ✅Air Force career field manager 265) What figure in an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies career grouping? (004) - correct answer ✅First 266) Who may request a 4N0X1 Job Inventory? (005) - correct answer ✅Career field manager 267) How often is the 4N0xx Job Inventory normally completed? (005) - correct answer ✅Every 3 years 268) Who is responsible for completing the graduate Assessment Survey (GAS)? (005) - correct answer ✅Supervisor 269) Why is it required for 4N0X1 personnel to complete sustainment training? (006) - correct answer ✅Maintain skills. 270) Required Specialty Verification Program (RSVP) is designed to sustain Air Force specialty code (AFSC) training in what location? (006) - correct answer ✅Deployed setting. 271) What timeframe is best to conduct inservice training within your unit? (007) - correct answer ✅On training days 272) The Master Training Plan (MTP) is used to outline? (008) - correct answer ✅training goals and milestones for enlisted within the assigned area 273) Duty section job description and the upgrade training plan is kept in the? (008) - correct answer ✅Master Training Plan (MTP). 274) Your first step for creating and editing an Master Training Plan (MTP) in your Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is to select with option from AFTR Data/MTP menu? (008) - correct answer ✅Create/Edit MTP. 275) What is the fourth step in Air Force Training Record (AFTR) for editing an specialty training standard (STS) Master Training Plan (MTP) tasks? (008) - correct answer ✅The user must enter in a Start Month, End Month, Training Days, Training Method, Evaluation 276) Method, and Training Aid 277) What two parts divide the Master Training List (MTL) section? (009) - correct answer ✅STS on the left and MTL on the right 278) The Edit Master Training List (MTL) menu option allows which certification level requirement to be edited? (009) - correct answer ✅. MTL tasks 5 and 7. 279) The first step when creating/editing the Duty Task List (DTL) in your Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is to select the? (010) - correct answer ✅Create/Edit DTL option from the AFTR Data/Duty Position menu. 280) Some additional factors must be considered when determining training requirements. What are they? (011) - correct answer ✅Deployment requirements, AEF tasks, and other factors driving the training need must also be 281) considered when determining training requirements. 303) What is one criterion used by the Quality Retraining Program (QRP) board to rank Airmen applying for retraining? (019) - correct answer ✅Last three EPRs. 304) The overall objective of taking advantage of retraining opportunities is to balance the? (019) - correct answer ✅career force of each Air Force speciality code (AFSC) as needed 305) To access your electronic training record in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR), log into the Advanced Distributive Learning System (ADLS), the click on? (020) - correct answer ✅Training Records. 306) The procedures to update the User Location for MACJCOM, Base, Unit, or Work center is preformed by clicking? (021) - correct answer ✅My Profile and editing Root and Sub Organizations 307) If training status code changes, whom do you contact to update the code in the user training information? (021) - correct answer ✅Unit training manager. 308) What section is used in Air Force Training Record (AFTR) to update career development course (CDC) start and complete dates? (022) - correct answer ✅AF 623 Part II 309) The Training Type drop down menu is used to view the entire training Record and? (022) - correct answer ✅Qualification Training 310) What's the first button trainee's click to sign off 623A entries in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR)? (023) - correct answer ✅USER 311) What is the first step trainees make in searching for 1098 items to update the Air Force Form 1098? (024) - correct answer ✅Click the SEARCH RECORD button. 312) What is the first step trainees use to sign off a task as a trainee on Job Qualifications Standard (JQS) if a task already has a start date? (025) - correct answer ✅. Select a task and click the TRAINEE button 313) Which form is used to access Job Qualification Standard (JQS) continuation items? (026) - correct answer ✅AF Form 797. 314) The purpose of an AF Form 803 involves what two evaluation steps? (026) - correct answer ✅Conduct and document completion of task evaluations during training 315) What button do you click to add new file information to the Air Force Training Record (AFTR) User File? (027) - correct answer ✅ADD FILE 316) What system is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget and other important resource allocation decisions for medical personnel? (028) - correct answer ✅Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System. 317) Who approves or disapproves an Authorization Change Request? (029) - correct answer ✅Major command (MAJCOM). 318) Who is responsible to lead their teams and establish clear standards for the Work Centers? (030) - correct answer ✅Supervisors 319) When setting priorities, what category is used to assign an urgent priority? (031) - correct answer ✅Category A 320) What are the responsibilities of the scheduler within a unit or clinic to make sure all shifts are adequately covered? (032) - correct answer ✅Use all Air Force instructions, OIs, and local guidance to prepare a duty schedule. 321) Who is responsible for final approval of the enlisted duty schedule within a unit or clinic? (032) - correct answer ✅Nurse managers and NCOICs 322) What references and guidance does the scheduler use to prepare a duty schedule for the unit or clinic? (032) - correct answer ✅Air Force instructions (AFI), operating instructions (OI), and local guidance. 323) What duty schedule provides a continual rotation, but the least amount of flexibility? (032) - correct answer ✅Cyclical. 324) What type of information can you provide all new personnel on preparation of duty schedules? (033) - correct answer ✅Authority, responsibility, and delegation; length of cycle rotation and direction-forward, 325) backward; deadlines for posting; guidelines for changes and/or exchanging hours; reporting 326) schedule changes. 327) What mandatory formations do you keep in mind when making a schedule? (033) - correct answer ✅Mobility exercises. 328) Performance can be broken down into what types of criteria? (034) - correct answer ✅Qualitative and quantitative. 329) Who is responsible for the control, care, use, and safeguarding of public property under control of the Air Force? (035) - correct answer ✅Each individual. 330) By training new personnel on proper equipment, what is the supervisor likely to prevent? (035) - correct answer ✅Equipment damage and injury to a patient 331) What is the name of the product that is generated through the Defense Medical Logistics Support System (DMLSS) and lists information pertaining to all supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in from a section? (036) - correct answer ✅Activity issue/turn-in summary 332) What actions should the property custodian take if a backorder item is no longer needed? (036) - correct answer ✅Attempt to cancel the order through MEMO Military Health System (MHS) optimization? (044) - correct answer ✅. Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application 352) When patient care is not documented what can be assumed about the patient's treatment? (044) - correct answer ✅No care or treatment was accomplished. 353) What step does a medical technician provide in the workflow process? (045) - correct answer ✅Uses a common AIM form to enter data into AHLTA. 354) Who starts the Tri-Service workflow form documentation? (045) - correct answer ✅The patient signs in and data is entered in an encounter worksheet or SF600 overprint. 355) What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when used in International Classification of Diseases (ICD-9)? (046) - correct answer ✅Not elsewhere classified. 356) When do Preventive Health Assessment (PHA) member's status turn yellow in Aeromedical Services Information Management System (ASIMS)? (047) - correct answer ✅When PHA is due within 3 months 357) When do Preventive Health Assessment (PHA) status turns red and what items may be overdue? (047) - correct answer ✅Member needs to complete immunizations, PHAs, dental, and deployment health assessments 358) (DHAs). It turns red on day 456. 359) What are the principles of population health management? (048) - correct answer ✅Support the DOD and our nation's security. 360) What is the purpose of case management? (048) - correct answer ✅Promote quality, safe, and cost-effective care 361) What is the purpose of utilization management (UM)? (048) - correct answer ✅Identify, monitor, evaluate, and resolve issues. 362) What is the correct anatomical position of the spine as it relates to the sternum? - correct answer ✅posterior 363) line projecting at right angles to the plane of motion best describes which of the following body movements? - correct answer ✅axis of joint rotation 364) moving the forearm toward the head by bending the elbow is an example of? - correct answer ✅flexion 365) why is it important to ensure medical abbreviations, documentation and terminology are written accurately ? - correct answer ✅provide clear and concise pt info 366) you have just completed screening a pt with an appt for blurred vision right right eye. How should you document this info correctly? - correct answer ✅pt complains of blurred vision right eye 367) you would NOT find which component in the cytoplasm of a cell? - correct answer ✅Nucleus 368) What cytoplasm components are responsible for cell contraction? - correct answer ✅Microfilaments 369) what part of the cell provides the PRIMARY source for cellular energy? - correct answer ✅mitochondria 370) which phase of mitosis would signify that the nucleus is actually dividing? - correct answer ✅Anaphase 371) the complicated process responsible for the distinction of cell characteristics is known as? - correct answer ✅cell differentiation 372) what type of tissue is te major component of glands? - correct answer ✅epithelial 373) what type of tissue can change its shape? - correct answer ✅muscle 374) because of its striated appearance , which tissue is similar to skeletal muscle tissue? - correct answer ✅cardiac muscle 375) aqueous humor fills the space between the cornea and the ? - correct answer ✅iris 376) what par of the eye is largely responsible for viewing dimly lit images? - correct answer ✅rods 377) what nerve is the pathway to vision? - correct answer ✅optc 378) what substance ensures the eyeball maintains its round shape? - correct answer ✅Vitreous humor 379) the auditory ossicles are located in the ? - correct answer ✅middle ear 380) in the ear, movement of the stapes causes stimulation of fluid within the ? - correct answer ✅cochlea 381) which of the following is a nasal air passageway? - correct answer ✅middle meatus 382) odors are describes as belonging to which of these groups? - correct answer ✅7 primary odors, combination of at least 2 of them 383) what are the enlarged smell receptors that extend into the nasal cavity? - correct answer ✅olfactory bulbs 406) what vein returns blood back to the heart from the lower body? - correct answer ✅inferior vena cava 407) what is the only vein that carries oxygenated blood ? - correct answer ✅pulmonary 408) vessels that lead out of the lymph nodes are called? - correct answer ✅efferent lymphatic vessels 409) what is the largest lymphatic organ? - correct answer ✅spleen 410) what part of the lymph system acts as the filter? - correct answer ✅nodes 411) what are the 2 infection fighting organisms associated with the lymph nodes? - correct answer ✅lymphocytes and macrophages 412) where does lymph from the right lymphatic duct empty? - correct answer ✅right subclavian vein 413) once excess fluid from the body tissue enters lymphatic capillaries, it is known as? - correct answer ✅lymph 414) the superior portion of the pharynx that contains the eustachian tubes is the ? - correct answer ✅nasopharynx 415) the larynx is composed of how many cartilages ? - correct answer ✅3 single/ 3 paired 416) what part of the lower respiratory system does air travel to and from the lungs through a cylindrical tube composed of cartilage ? - correct answer ✅trachea 417) during inhalation , the intercostal muscular contraction permits the ribs to move? - correct answer ✅forward and slightly upward 418) the amount of air remaining in the lungs after the strongest possible exhalation is known as ? - correct answer ✅residual air 419) the small spaces between neurons are called the ? - correct answer ✅synapses 420) what type of neuron has one axon extending from one end of the soma and one dendrite extending from the other? - correct answer ✅bipolar 421) what is the primary function of the cerebellum other than coordinating muscular movements? - correct answer ✅control activity of the brain itself 422) the part of the brain stem that connects to the spinal cord is the? - correct answer ✅medulla oblongata 423) what is 1 of the functions of the interior of the cerebrum? - correct answer ✅storing knowledge 424) what is the name of the large intersection of the interlaced spinal nerves? - correct answer ✅plexus 425) what cranial nerve is responsible for the sensation of sight? - correct answer ✅optic 426) what cranial nerve controls the lateral rectus eye muscle? - correct answer ✅abducent 427) the fight or flight reaction is controlled by the ? - correct answer ✅sympathetic nervous system 428) what part of the peripheral nervous system is responsible for involuntary body functions? - correct answer ✅autonomic 429) the layer of the alimentary canal that is responsible for movement of substances through the canal is the ? - correct answer ✅muscular 430) the ileocecal valve in the small intestine connects to the? - correct answer ✅cecum 431) what is the mucous membrane that attaches the tongue to the floor of the mouth? - correct answer ✅frenulum 432) what is the difference of primary teeth and the number of permanent teeth a person will keep ? - correct answer ✅12 433) where will undigested chyme go after leaving the ileum? - correct answer ✅cecum 434) which organ absorbs beneficial water for use by the body? - correct answer ✅colon 435) what liquid is produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder? - correct answer ✅Bile 436) kidneys are in the posterior abdominal cavity and extent from the ? - correct answer ✅thoracic to the lumbar spinal region 437) approximately how many nephrons are within each kidney? - correct answer ✅1 million 438) how many inches long would you expect the ureter to be in a 30 yr old male? - correct answer ✅10 461) Which infectious agent includes two structural categories known as yeasts and molds? - correct answer ✅Fungi 462) What condition must be present for a virus to multiply? - correct answer ✅Susceptible tissue 463) Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease? - correct answer ✅Incubation 464) Which of the following best states the purpose of the standard precautions recommended by the CDC? - correct answer ✅Reduce the risk of transmission of microorganisms from both recognized and unrecognized sources of infection in hospitals 465) What should you do if the clothes you are wearing at work become contaminated? - correct answer ✅Change into clean clothes, bag the dirty clothes and launder them in hot soapy water 466) One of the most common and serious complications a females may develop from gonorrhea is? - correct answer ✅Pelvic inflammatory disease 467) A health care provider notifies Pubic Health of a suspected communicable disease by - correct answer ✅using the telephone or locally derived form 468) Which medical term means the absence of infection? - correct answer ✅Asepsis 469) Which substance is used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue? - correct answer ✅Antiseptic 470) When using a mask in an isolation unit, put the mask on - correct answer ✅Before entering, and take it off before leaving 471) What is the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-life method? - correct answer ✅When package integrity is compromised 472) Which is not a commonly used disinfecting agent? - correct answer ✅Hydrochloric acid 473) What is the temperature range of the sterilization cycle in a peracetic acid sterilizer? - correct answer ✅Between 122-131 degrees F 474) Which item may not be placed in a hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizer? - correct answer ✅Count sheets 475) What are the standard identifiers associated with the Nation Patient Safety Guidelines? - correct answer ✅Patient's full name and date of birth 476) What are the foundations of safe and effective healthcare? - correct answer ✅Proactive risk identification, assessment, and control 477) The very low-density lipoproteins transport - correct answer ✅Triglycerides that are synthesized in the liver from carbohydrates to adipose cells 478) Nursing actions that facilitate self-actualization is pertinent during which aspect of the nursing care? - correct answer ✅Rehabilitation 479) A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at - correct answer ✅24 months 480) Which is a characteristic of late adulthood? - correct answer ✅Muscle atrophy 481) What controllable factor did Florence Nightingale link with health and the environment? - correct answer ✅Pure water 482) Which of the following is most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program? - correct answer ✅Blood pressure screenings 483) A good source of protein is - correct answer ✅Poultry 484) Clinical signs of B12 deficiency are first noted by - correct answer ✅Pernicious anemia 485) Pregnant women who overdose on B6 may have caused newborns to be born with - correct answer ✅Seizures 486) Vitamin C can be found naturally in all of the following foods except - correct answer ✅Cheese 487) A sign of vitamin A deficiency include - correct answer ✅night blindness 488) Which ailment is not treated by vitamin K? - correct answer ✅Heparin overdose 489) What percentage of the body's weight are minerals responsible for? - correct answer ✅4 490) Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen - correct answer ✅Through an excessive amount of fluid loss 491) When administering potassium intravenously, you should - correct answer ✅mix the potassium thoroughly before administration 492) Calcium can be found in all of the following sources except - correct answer ✅pork 514) To reduce the possibility of infection and vessel damage on patients schedule for long term therapy, how often should you change a patient's intravenous site? - correct answer ✅Every 48 to 72 hours 515) In cubic centimeters, what is the slowest possible flow rate per hour you may set for an intravenous - correct answer ✅10 to 50 cc 516) Which urine test is done to determine the hydration level of the patient? - correct answer ✅Specific gravity 517) What steps should you take if you identify a small object while straining urine? - correct answer ✅Place it in a sterile urine cup and notify the nurse 518) After obtaining a blood sample, instruct the patient to maintain pressure over the venipuncture site for - correct answer ✅2 to 3 minutes 519) What should be done prior to operating a glucose meter? - correct answer ✅Read the operating instructions 520) In the objective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify that patient's - correct answer ✅pulse rate 521) A proctoscopy is an inspection of the - correct answer ✅rectum 522) When educating the patient with pseudofolliculitis barbae on proper shaving methods, you should instruct the patient to avoid all of the following except shaving - correct answer ✅In the direction of hair growth 523) The eye can generally see wavelengths between - correct answer ✅400 and 750 nm 524) At what ages is visual acuity at its best? - correct answer ✅15-20 525) When performing a pulmonary function test on a patient, according to Air Force standards, abnormal functions are present if the predicted forces expiratory volume at once second (FEV1) or forced vital capacity (FVC) percentage is less than? - correct answer ✅80 526) During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of practice attempts and acceptable tracings an examinee must perform are - correct answer ✅2; 3 527) Any artificial products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called - correct answer ✅Artifacts 528) What term is used to describe any variance in the normal electrical rate or sequence of cardiac activities discovered on electrocardiogram tracings? - correct answer ✅Arrhythmia 529) If you are performing an electrocardiogram on someone who is rated, a copy of that electrocardiogram must be sent to the - correct answer ✅US Air Force Central Electrocardiographic Library 530) What is another term for orthostatic hypotension? - correct answer ✅Postural Hypotension 531) Notify the nurse or physician immediately if the patient's oxygen saturation (SaO2) falls below - correct answer ✅97 percent 532) When can the minor surgery procedure begin? - correct answer ✅After the consent form is signed 533) When cutting through thick muscular skin of the back, a provider would most likely use a - correct answer ✅Mayo scissors 534) When cleaning a two inch laceration on a healthy active duty male's right forearm, you notice some foreign material in the wound, what would be the next step? - correct answer ✅Flush the wound 535) After you have applied a topical anesthetic to a wound that requires treatment, what should you do next? - correct answer ✅Assess sensory awareness 536) How much vacuum must suction units provide when the tube clamped? - correct answer ✅300 mm Hg 537) When performing a crash cart check, what should you do after ensuring the defibrillator or cardiac monitor operate? - correct answer ✅Annotate date and time on a rhythm strip 538) When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, what information should not be broadcast? - correct answer ✅Name 539) In the Air Force, you can use lights and sirens on an ambulance call only - correct answer ✅when local protocol authorizes it 540) The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the emergency medical technician is called - correct answer ✅scene size-up 541) When there is an apparent vehicle fire, how many feet should the ambulance be parked from the affected vehicle? - correct answer ✅100 542) When performing an initial assessment on a patient and the patient responds by spontaneously opening his or her eyes or answers clearly, how would you assess the patient's mental status? - correct answer ✅Alert 543) If the patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, provide - correct answer ✅ventilations with BVM and high-flow oxygen 564) If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every four hours was blank for the day, you would assume the - correct answer ✅Vital signs were not completed 565) What is the proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD Form 792, Intake and Output Worksheet? - correct answer ✅Circle the last accumulated total 566) Which nursing activity is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnoses? - correct answer ✅Planning 567) Relative to the nursing process, what is a client goal? - correct answer ✅A realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in patient behavior 568) What is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery? - correct answer ✅Preoperative teaching 569) What has a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment? - correct answer ✅Professionalism and caring attitude of staff 570) What is the best reason for prepping the skin prior to surgery? - correct answer ✅Reduces the chance of infection 571) Without provider approval, what is the maximum number of minutes antiembolism stocking may be removed? - correct answer ✅30 572) What precaution is taken for a postoperative patient who received a radioisotope implant? - correct answer ✅Isolation is necessary 573) Which position is the bed placed in preparation to receive a postoperative surgical patient? - correct answer ✅High 574) Which exercise is not commonly used for postoperative patients? - correct answer ✅Standing hamstring stretches 575) Which form is used to document a patient's blood transfusion? - correct answer ✅Standard Form 518 576) How is whole blood normally supplied? - correct answer ✅450cc units 577) What is the guideline for the maximum minutes of time from pickup to the transfusion start of blood products? - correct answer ✅30 minutes 578) If a patient you are monitoring is receiving a blood transfusion and you notice distended neck and veins and dyspnea. What should you do first? - correct answer ✅Stop the transfusion 579) Which pain management method must be closely monitored because it can result in a depressed respiratory system? - correct answer ✅Administration of narcotics 580) Ideally, in what position is a patient placed before performing oropharyngeal suctioning? - correct answer ✅Semi-sitting 581) Orthopedic deformities, such as clubfoot or wryneck, are categorized as - correct answer ✅Congenital 582) A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called - correct answer ✅Pathologic 583) The semi-recumbent position should be avoided over long periods of time in patients with orthopedic disorders because it - correct answer ✅promotes flexion deformities of the hip 584) Which term is used to describe the sound that bones make as they rub together? - correct answer ✅Crepitus 585) Pin care is required with what type of reduction of the bone? - correct answer ✅Open reduction, external fixation 586) What actions, if any, should you take if your patient complain that his or her short leg cast feels tight? - correct answer ✅Bivalve the cast 587) The cramping, burning, or crushing pain complained about by amputees in their missing limb is referred to as a - correct answer ✅Phantom limb pain 588) What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb? - correct answer ✅Tourniquet 589) Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause - correct answer ✅Cardiac arrest 590) Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally - correct answer ✅a lifelong process 591) The side of the body that is affected by a stroke is determined by the - correct answer ✅side of the brain that was traumatized 592) During which child development stage is separation anxiety the most stressful? - correct answer ✅Preschool 593) The normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they lose their sense of control is - correct answer ✅regression 594) When caring for a child with nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be - correct answer ✅Dehydration 617) To aid in preventing decubitus ulcers, patient positioning should be changed every - correct answer ✅Two hours 618) Why should your feet be parallel when you are standing? - correct answer ✅Maintain balance and prevent back, hip, and leg strain 619) To use the internal girdle of support, you must - correct answer ✅simultaneously contract abdominal and buttocks muscles 620) Which factors determine the technique you will use to move the patient up in bed? - correct answer ✅Size and capabilities of the patient 621) When turning a patient, what is the most important precaution to take whether you are pushing or pulling a patient? - correct answer ✅Raise the far siderail 622) The person in charge of a bed to stretcher transfer should be positioned - correct answer ✅At the head of the bed on the stretcher side 623) Which devices can be used to slide a patient from the bed to a stretcher? - correct answer ✅Drawsheet and roller board 624) When helping a patient to ambulate, how should you stand and where should you place your hands? - correct answer ✅Bedside and a little behind the patient with one hand on the patient's waist and one hand under the patient's near arm 625) Which is a safe, stable gait that can be used by patients who can bear some weight on both legs? - correct answer ✅Four-point 626) Which type of patient exercise is provided for patients who are either unable or not allowed to exercise? - correct answer ✅Passive 627) Care must be taken to ensure patients do not strain while holding their breath when performing isometric exercises as that may cause - correct answer ✅heart attack 628) What diet is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty chewing or swallowing or need to alter the amount of residue in the digestive tract? - correct answer ✅Liquid 629) The diet that is inadequate in all nutrients and should not be given for more than three days is the - correct answer ✅Clear liquid 630) Which precaution should be taken just prior to performing a procedure that uses the patient's nasogastric tube? - correct answer ✅Check for tube placement 631) What should the solution temperature be during gastric gavage? - correct answer ✅Room temperature 632) During catheterization of a patient, how inches is the catheter inserted for placement in the urinary bladder? - correct answer ✅2 to 3 633) When measuring urine output of an infant, one gram of diaper weight is equal to - correct answer ✅one milliliter 634) For administration of an enema, the patient is preferably positioned - correct answer ✅on his or her left side 635) Colostomy irrigations are performed to - correct answer ✅established fecal control 636) What is the normal arterial oxygen saturation range? - correct answer ✅95 to 98 percent 637) What condition occurs if CO2 builds up and mixes with water in the blood stream? - correct answer ✅Respiratory acidosis 638) When using an oxygen tent, how frequently should oxygen concentrations and temperature be checked? - correct answer ✅1 to 2 hours 639) For patients using a non-rebreathing mask, the inspired oxygen concentration is - correct answer ✅60 to 90 percent 640) What actions should you take when moving a patient on a venturi mask? - correct answer ✅Monitor in transport and reassess patient on arrival 641) What complications could occur to the patient following a thoracentesis? - correct answer ✅Shock, bleeding, and dyspnea 642) Closed-check drainage is a drainage system used to - correct answer ✅re- expand a collapsed lung 643) What cardiac related condition may be caused by a fall in cardiac output resulting in cerebral ischemia? - correct answer ✅Syncope 644) The physiological function that the heart sound S1 ("lub") is associated with is - correct answer ✅closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves 645) When preparing a patient for insertion of a central venous pressure line, what maneuver is taught to the patient to decrease the chance of an air embolism? - correct answer ✅Valsalva 646) What position should a patient be placed in for insertion of a central venous pressure line into a neck vein? - correct answer ✅Trendelenburg 647) As a minimum, how many minutes should you irrigate a patient's eye with chemical burns? - correct answer ✅20 minutes 670) A patient's weight is a factor in drug action due to - correct answer ✅body fat absorption 671) Why are oral medications that are taken before meals generally faster acting? - correct answer ✅Lower digestive system content 672) Which statement is true regarding how ambient temperature can affect drug action? - correct answer ✅Warmer temperatures increase circulation and cause rapid drug action 673) Which of these is a common reference source for drugs? - correct answer ✅Physician Desk Reference 674) A finely ground drug that can be used internally or used externally describes a type of medication preparation called a - correct answer ✅powder 675) What type of medication has a cleansing action that produces watery evacuation of intestinal content? - correct answer ✅Cathartics 676) Which element is not required on a medication order? - correct answer ✅Patient's age 677) Before administering any medication, you are responsible for all of the following except - correct answer ✅for ensuring A1C Jones is available for work the next day 678) How many pounds are equal to 65kg? - correct answer ✅143 679) Dr. Young has ordered Mrs. Green to receive 5mg/kg of Ancef twice a day. Mrs. Green weighs 65kg. The medication Ancef is supplied in vials 50 mg/mL. How many mLs of the Ancef will be given for each dose? - correct answer ✅6.5 680) Lt Col McNamara ordered a single dose Phenergan 12.5 mg, to be administered intramuscularly to A1C Jones for nausea and vomiting. The Phenergan is supplied in 50 mg/2mL pre-filled syringes. How many mLs would you administer? - correct answer ✅.50 681) The method of parenteral medication administration that involves injecting a drug into a muscle is - correct answer ✅intramuscular 682) Name the parts of a needle - correct answer ✅Hub, shaft, and bevel 683) What administration method delivers medication directly into a patient's digestive system? - correct answer ✅Oral 684) To prevent contamination and accidental spills, liquid medications being administered to inpatients are usually poured at what location? - correct answer ✅At the patient's bedside 685) Which statement is a disadvantage of inhalation medication? - correct answer ✅Monitoring the precise amount of drug administration is difficult 686) When administering eye medications, ensure the patient's treated eye is lower than the other in order to - correct answer ✅prevent the solution from running into the patient's unaffected eye 687) Into what body cavity are otic medications administered? - correct answer ✅External auditory canal 688) To administer ear drops in a patient under three years of age, you gently pull the earlobe - correct answer ✅down to straighten the canal 689) Vaginal suppositories are - correct answer ✅administered to combat infection 690) When administering a vaginal douche, how high above the patient's vagina do you hang the bag? - correct answer ✅12 to 18 inches 691) Which medication's primary action is pain relief? - correct answer ✅Analgesics, sedatives and hypnotics 692) Opioid antagonists are used in the treatment of - correct answer ✅opioid overdose 693) Nonopioid analgesics are available - correct answer ✅over the counter 694) Anti-inflammatory actions are associated with - correct answer ✅preventing the formation of prostaglandins 695) A common side effect of sedatives and hypnotic medications is - correct answer ✅a depressed state of rapid eye movement phase of sleep 696) Which over the counter central nervous system stimulant is frequently taken in prolonged high doses producing habituation and psychological dependence? - correct answer ✅Caffeine 697) What is not a side effects of tricyclics? - correct answer ✅pupil constriction 698) Antianxiety medications are prescribed for - correct answer ✅the treatment of insomnia 699) Antipsychotic medications are categorized as - correct answer ✅major tranquilizers 700) Extrapyramidal side effects common to typical phenothiazine antipsychotic medication is a result of - correct answer ✅blocking dopamine receptors 722) Which endocrine therapy drugs are used to prevent organ transplant rejection? - correct answer ✅Corticosteroids 723) A major contributor of young children developing type 2 diabetes is - correct answer ✅increased obesity 724) With type 1 diabetes, the pancreas - correct answer ✅in unable to produce enough insulin to control blood sugar 725) Insulin may potentiate a hypoglycemic effect when taken concomitantly with - correct answer ✅alcohol or salicylates 726) What are the actions of sulfonylurea medications? - correct answer ✅Increase the insulin production of the pancreas and better peripheral insulin activity 727) Aminoglycosides are used for - correct answer ✅short term treatment 728) Patients who are allergic to penicillin are also most likely to be allergic to - correct answer ✅cephalosporins 729) When a patient is receiving penicillin for treatment of severe strep throat, what further patient-education is appropriate if the patient is also taking oral contraceptives for birth control? - correct answer ✅Use a back up method of birth control while taking the penicillin 730) If after five days of the penicillin treatment the patient develops diarrhea, what advice would be appropriate? - correct answer ✅Add yogurt or buttermilk to her diet and monitor the number of episodes 731) Which medication can interact with quinolones to potentiate cardiac arrest? - correct answer ✅Theophyline 732) Which vaccine should not be administered to individuals allergic to eggs or egg products? - correct answer ✅Influenza 733) Hepatitis A is contracted through the transmission of - correct answer ✅contaminated food or water 734) Which vaccine do all recruits receive a booster for upon entering the Air Force? - correct answer ✅Tetanus 735) What vaccines are given to individuals deploying to Africa? - correct answer ✅Yellow fever and typhoid 736) Which childhood disease was nearly eradicated worldwide by 1972 and in the early 2000s the vaccine was reintroduced as a mobility vaccine for military personnel? - correct answer ✅Small pox 737) Which viral disease do mosquitoes transmit? - correct answer ✅Yellow fever 738) What type of medication would be prescribed for a patient with allergies to grass and tree pollen? - correct answer ✅Antihistamines 739) What patient-education would be appropriate for a patient who has been prescribed Tessalon perles to help stop coughing? - correct answer ✅Do not chew the capsule 740) What food or drink is known for its high potential to change intestinal tract enzymes and interfere with the effectiveness of certain antibiotics, antifungals, antihistamines and sedative-hypnotic drugs? - correct answer ✅Grapefruit juice 741) During catheterization of a male patient, at what angle is the penis held, and how many inches is the catheter inserted? - correct answer ✅90 degrees, 6 to 10 inches 742) Opioids are contraindicated with - correct answer ✅head injury treatment 743) Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors lower blood pressure by - correct answer ✅Decreasing vasoconstriction 744) accessory muscles - correct answer ✅The secondary muscles of respiration. They include the neck muscles (sternocleidomastoids), the chest pectoralis major muscles, and the abdominal muscles. 745) auscultate - correct answer ✅To listen to sounds within an organ with a stethoscope. 746) AVPU scale - correct answer ✅A method of assessing the level of consciousness by determining whether the patient is awake and alert, responsive to verbal stimuli or pain, or unresponsive; used principally early in the assessment process. 747) blood pressure - correct answer ✅the pressure that is exerted by the blood against the walls of blood vessels 748) Bradycardia - correct answer ✅slow heart rate (less than 60 bpm) 749) breath sounds - correct answer ✅An indication of air movement in the lungs, usually assessed with a stethoscope. 750) capillary refill - correct answer ✅A test that evaluates distal circulatory system function by squeezing (blanching) blood from an area such as a nail bed and watching the speed of its return after releasing the pressure. 751) capnography - correct answer ✅A noninvasive method to quickly and efficiently provide information on a patient's ventilatory status, circulation, and metabolism; effectively measures the concentration of carbon dioxide in expired air over time. 772) hypothermia - correct answer ✅A condition in which the internal body temperature falls below 95°F (35°C), usually as a result of prolonged exposure to cool or freezing temperatures. 773) Incident Command System - correct answer ✅A system implemented to manage disasters and mass- and multiple-casualty incidents in which section chiefs, including finance, logistics, operations, and planning, report to the incident commander. Also referred to as the incident management system. 774) jaundice - correct answer ✅Yellow skin or sclera that is caused by liver disease or dysfunction. 775) labored breathing - correct answer ✅The use of muscles of the chest, back, and abdomen to assist in expanding the chest; occurs when air movement is impaired. 776) mechanism of injury - correct answer ✅a force or forces that may have caused injury 777) nasal flaring - correct answer ✅Flaring out of the nostrils, indicating that there is an airway obstruction. 778) nature of illness - correct answer ✅The general type of illness a patient is experiencing. 779) OPQRST - correct answer ✅Onset, Provocation, Quality, Region/Radiation, Severity, Timing. 780) orientation - correct answer ✅The mental status of a patient as measured by memory of person (name), place (current location), time (current year, month, and approximate date), and event (what happened). 781) palpate - correct answer ✅to examine by touch 782) paradoxical motion - correct answer ✅The motion of the chest wall section that is detached in a flail chest; the motion is exactly the opposite of normal motion during breathing (ie, in during inhalation, out during exhalation). 783) perfusion - correct answer ✅circulation of blood within an organ or tissue 784) Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) - correct answer ✅Clothing or specialized equipment that provides protection to the wearer. 785) pertinent negatives - correct answer ✅Negative findings that warrant no care or intervention. 786) Primary Assessment - correct answer ✅A step within the patient assessment process that identifies and initiates treatment of immediate and potential life threats. 787) pulse - correct answer ✅The pressure wave that occurs as each heartbeat causes a surge in the blood circulating through the arteries. 788) rales - correct answer ✅A crackling, rattling breath sound that signals fluid in the air spaces of the lungs; also called crackles. 789) Reassessment - correct answer ✅A step within the patient assessment process that is performed at regular intervals to identify and treat changes in a patient's condition, A patient in unstable condition should be reassessed every 5 minutes, whereas a patient in stable condition should be reassessed every 15 minutes 790) responsiveness - correct answer ✅the way in which a patient responds to external stimuli, including verbal stimuli, tactile stimuli, and pain stimuli 791) retractions - correct answer ✅Movement in which the skin pulls in around the ribs during inspiration 792) rhonchi - correct answer ✅Coarse, low-pitched breath sounds heard in patients with chronic mucus in the upper airways. 793) SAMPLE history - correct answer ✅A brief history of a patient's condition to determine signs and symptoms, allergies, medications, pertinent past history, last oral intake, and events leading to the injury or illness. 794) scene size-up - correct answer ✅A step within the patient assessment process that involves a quick assessment of the scene and the surroundings to provide information about scene safety and the mechanism of injury or nature of illness before you enter and begin patient care. 795) sclera - correct answer ✅The white portion of the eye; the tough outer coat that gives protection to the delicate, light-sensitive inner layer. 796) Secondary Assessment - correct answer ✅A step within the patient assessment process in which a systematic physical examination of the patient is performed. The examination may be a systematic full-body scan or a systematic assessment that focuses on a certain area or region of the body, often determined through the chief complaint. 797) shallow respirations - correct answer ✅Respirations that are charcterized by little movement of the chest wall (reduced tidal volume) or poor chest excursion 798) sign - correct answer ✅Objective findings that can be seen, heard, felt, smelled, or measured. 799) sniffling position - correct answer ✅an upright position in which the patient's head and chin are thrust slightly forward to keep the airway open 800) spontaneous respirations - correct answer ✅Breathing that occurs with no assistance. 822) Atherosclerosis - correct answer ✅A disorder in which cholesterol and calcium build up inside the walls of the blood vessels, forming plaque, which eventually leads to partial or complete blockage of blood flow. 823) *atrium - correct answer ✅one of two upper chambers of the heart The right atrium receives blood from the vena cava and delivers it to the right ventricle. The left atrium receives blood from the pulmonary veins and delivers it to the left ventricle 824) *auotomaticity - correct answer ✅the ability of cardiac cells to contract without stimulation from the nervous system 825) autonomic nervous system - correct answer ✅part of the nervous system that controls the involuntary activities of the body such as the heart rate, blood pressure, and digestion of food 826) *bradycardia - correct answer ✅slow heart rate (less than 60 bpm) 827) cardiac arrest - correct answer ✅a state in which the heart fails to generate effective and detectable blood flow; pulses are not palpable and cardiac arrest, even if muscular and electrical activity continues in the heart. 828) cardiogenic shcok - correct answer ✅a state in which not enough oxygen is delivered to the tissues of the body, caused by low output of blood from the heart. It can be a severe complication of a large acute myocardial infarction, as well as other conditions 829) *cardiac output - correct answer ✅A measure of the volume of blood circulated by the heart in 1 minute, calculated by multiplying the stroke volume by the heart rate. 830) congestive heart failure (CHF) - correct answer ✅A disorder in which the heart loses part of its ability to effectively pump blood, usually as a result of damage to the heart muscle and usually resulting in a backup of fluid into the lungs. 831) *coronary arteries - correct answer ✅The blood vessels that carry blood and nutrients to the heart muscle. 832) *defribrillate - correct answer ✅to shock a fibrillating (chaotic beating) heart with specialized electrical current in an attempt to restore a normal, rhythmic beat. 833) dependent edema - correct answer ✅Swelling in the part of the body closest to the ground, caused by collection of fluid in the tissues; a possible sign of congestive heart failure. 834) *dilation - correct answer ✅Widening of a tubular structure such as a coronary artery. 835) dissecting aneurysm - correct answer ✅A condition in which the inner layers of an artery, such as the aorta, become separated, allowing blood (at high pressures) to flow between the layers. 836) hypertensive emergency - correct answer ✅An emergency situation created by excessively high blood pressure, which can lead to serious complications such as stroke or aneurysm. 837) *infarction - correct answer ✅death of a body tissue, usually caused by interruption of its blood supply 838) infererior - correct answer ✅the part of the body or any body part closer to the ground 839) *ischemia - correct answer ✅A lack of oxygen that deprives tissues of necessary nutrients, resulting from partial or complete blockage of blood flow; potentially reversible because permanent injury has not yet occurred. 840) *lumen - correct answer ✅The inside diameter of an artery or other hollow structure. 841) *Myocardium - correct answer ✅heart muscle 842) *occlusion - correct answer ✅A blockage, usually of a tubular structure such as a blood vessel. 843) parasympathetic nervous system - correct answer ✅the part of the autonomic nervous system that controls vegetative functions such as digestion of food and relaxation 844) *perfusion - correct answer ✅The flow of blood through body tissues and vessels. 845) Posterior (dorsal) - correct answer ✅back surface of the body 846) *stroke volume - correct answer ✅The volume of blood ejected with each ventricular contraction. 847) superior - correct answer ✅The part of the body or any body part nearer to the head. 848) sympathetic nervous system - correct answer ✅the part of the autonomic nervous system that controls active functions such as responding to fear (known as fight or flight) 849) syncope - correct answer ✅fainting 850) *tachycardia - correct answer ✅rapid heart rate over 100 beats per minute 882) -at what distance or whether the patient was struck or pulled under the vehicle 883) -evaluate the vehicle for structural damage that might indicate contact points with the patient. 884) -multisystem injuries are common 885) -ALS backup should be called for significant MOI 886) car vs bicycle - correct answer ✅-estimate the speed of the vehicle that struck the patient 887) -evaluate damage to and the position of the bicycle 888) -determine if the patient was ejected 889) -what surface did the patient land on 890) -at what distance or whether the patient was struck or pulled under the vehicle 891) -evaluate the vehicle for structural damage that might indicate contact points with the patient. 892) -multisystem injuries are common 893) -ALS backup should be called for significant MOI 894) -inspect helmet 895) -presume spinal column or spinal cord injury 896) car vs motorcycle - correct answer ✅-look for deformity of the motorcycle 897) -the side of most damage 898) -the distance of the skid in the road 899) -the deformity of stationary objects or other vehicles 900) -extent and location of deformity in the helmet 901) -presume cervical column or spinal cord injuries 902) significant fall - correct answer ✅more than 15' or 2-3 times the patient's height 903) suspect internal injuries 904) consider medical causes (sycope) 905) fall considerations - correct answer ✅height of the fall 906) type of surface 907) part of the body that hit first 908) projectiles - correct answer ✅any object propelled by force, such as a bullet by a weapon 909) trajectory - correct answer ✅the path a projectile takes once it is propelled 910) cavitation - correct answer ✅a phenomenon in which speed causes a bullet to generate pressure waves, which cause damage distant from the bullets path 911) temporary cavitation - correct answer ✅caused by the acceleration of the bullet and causes a stretching of the tissues 912) permanent cavitation - correct answer ✅caused by the bullet path and remains once the bullet has passed through the tissue 913) primary blast injuries - correct answer ✅these injuries are due entirely to the blast, damage to the body is caused by the pressure wave generated by the explosion 914) secondary blast injuries - correct answer ✅damage to the body results from being struck by flying debris, such as shrapnel from the device or from glass or splinters which have been set in motion by the explosion 915) tertiary blast injuries - correct answer ✅these injuries occur when the patient is hurled by the force of the explosion against a stationary object. 916) Quaternary blast injuries - correct answer ✅this category of miscellaneous injuries includes burns from hot gases or fires started by the blast 917) tympanic membrane - correct answer ✅the eardrum; a thin, semi-transparent membrane in the middle ear that transmits sound vibrations to the internal ear by means of auditory ossicles (ruptures at pressures of 5 to 7 pounds per square inch above atmospheric pressure 918) arterial air embolism - correct answer ✅air bubbles in the arterial blood vessels 919) injuries to the head - correct answer ✅require frequent neurologic examinations, changes in pupillary size and reactivity can take time 920) injuries to the neck and throat - correct answer ✅can result in airway problems, jugular vein distention, tracheal deviation, swelling, and crushing can cause subcutaneous creptitation 921) injuries to the chest - correct answer ✅fractured ribs or sternum, cardiac bruising, large vessel tear, lung bruising, pneumothorax, open chest would can cause air pressure problems 922) injuries to the abdomen - correct answer ✅solid organs may tear, lacerate or fracture 923) hollow organs may rupture and leak 924) platinum ten - correct answer ✅on-scene time for critically injured patients should be less than 10 minutes 925) Level I Trauma Center - correct answer ✅comprehensive regional resource capable of providing total care for every aspect of an injury, 24 in house coverage by general surgeons, University based 926) Level II Trauma Center - correct answer ✅capable of providing initial definitive care for all injuries, 24 hour immediate coverage by general surgeon 927) Level III Trauma Center - correct answer ✅provide assessment, resuscitation and stabilization, must have transfer agreement with higher level center, 24 hour immediate coverage by emergency medical physician 928) Level IV Trauma Center - correct answer ✅provide advanced trauma life support prior to transfer to a higher level trauma center 929) trauma score - correct answer ✅a score calculated from 1 to 16 with 16 being the best possible score. it relates to the likelihood of patient survival with the exception of severe head injury. it takes into account the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score, respirator rate, respiratory expansion, systolic blood pressure, and capillary refill 958) damage to the body that resulted from a pressure wave generated by an explosion is found in what type of blast - correct answer ✅primary 959) airbags decrease injury to - correct answer ✅chest, face and head 960) optimally on scene time for critically injured patients should be less than - correct answer ✅ten minutes 961) the most common life threatening event in a rollover is ____________ or partial ejection of the passenger from the vehicle - correct answer ✅ejection 962) Newton's third law - correct answer ✅"for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction" 963) patients suffering complaining of chest tightness, coughing up blood and subcutaneous emphysema following and explosion may be suffering form a - correct answer ✅pulmonary blast injury 964) patients suffering from an open wound to the neck may experience - correct answer ✅significant bleeding 965) air embolism 966) subcutaneous crepitation 967) work is defined as - correct answer ✅the force acting over distance 968) injuries to the aorta are relatively common in _____________ _______ from a motor vehicle crash - correct answer ✅lateral impacts 969) penetration or perforation to the chest wall is called an - correct answer ✅open chest wound 970) energy that is available to cause injury doubles when an objects weight doubles but __________________when its speed doubles - correct answer ✅quadruples 971) The formula for Kinetic Energy is - correct answer ✅KE= 1/2 mass x Velocity(2) 972) airbags provide the final capture point of the passengers and decrease the severity of _______________ injuries - correct answer ✅deceleration 973) solid organs - correct answer ✅liver, spleen, pancreas and kidneys 974) the _____________ ____________ __________________ uses eye opening, verbal response and motor response to rate a patients level of consciousness - correct answer ✅Glaskow Coma Scale 975) air collection between the lung tissue and the chest wall is commonly referred to as - correct answer ✅pneumothorax 976) Newton's First Law - correct answer ✅This states that an object at rest tends to stay at rest and an object in motion tends to stay in motion, unless acted on by some force. 977) three factors to consider when evaluating a fall - correct answer ✅-the height of the fall 978) -the surface struck 979) -the part of the body that hit first followed by the path of energy displacement 980) why is it important to determine the type of gun and ammunition used. - correct answer ✅the size (mass) and speed (velocity) of the projectile affect the potential danger. if the mass is doubled the potential energy doubles. if the velocity doubles the potential energy quadruples. 981) Osteoporosis - correct answer ✅a condition in which the musculoskeletal system can fail under relatively low stress because the bones are structurally weakened 982) low energy penetrations - correct answer ✅these injuries are caused by the sharp edges of the object moving through the body and are therefore close to the object's path (knives, ice pick etc.) 983) high velocity injuries - correct answer ✅these are caused by military weapons 984) Petechia - correct answer ✅pinpoint reddish-purple hemorrhages that show up on the skin, large hematomas may be found. perforation or rupture of the bowel and colon is a risk.