Medical Terminology Exam Questions and Answers, Exams of Nutrition and Aging

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DO NOT COPY 4N051 SSgt WAPS - Full SKT Exam Questions and Answers Latest Update 2023 GRADED A+ 1) Anterograde (Posttraumatic) Amnesia - correct answer ✅Inability to remember events after an injury. 2) Basilar Skull Fractures - correct answer ✅Usually occur following diffuse impact to the head (such as falls, motor vehicle crashes); generally, result from extension of a linear fracture to the base of the skull and can be difficult to diagnose with a radiograph (x-ray). 3) Battle's Sign - correct answer ✅Bruising behind an ear over the mastoid process that may indicate a skull fracture. 4) Cerebral Edema - correct answer ✅Swelling of the brain. 5) Closed Head Injury - correct answer ✅Injury in which the brain ahs been injured but the skin has not been broken and there is no obvious bleeding. 6) Concussion - correct answer ✅A temporary loss or alteration of part of all of the brain's abilities to function without actual physical damage to the brain. 7) Connecting Nerves - correct answer ✅Nerves in the spinal cord that connect the motor and sensory nerves. 8) Coup-Contrecoup Injury - correct answer ✅Dual impacting of the brain into the skull; coup injury occurs at the point of impact; Contrecoup injury occurs on the opposite side of impact, as the brain rebounds. 9) Distraction - correct answer ✅the action of pulling the spine along its length. P a g e 1 | 110 10) Epidural Hematoma - correct answer ✅An accumulation of blood between the skull and the dura mater. 11) Eyes-Forward Position - correct answer ✅A head position in which the patient's eyes are looking straight ahead and the head and torso are in line. 12) Four-Person Log Roll - correct answer ✅The recommended procedure for moving a patient with a suspected spinal injury from the ground to a long backboard. 13) Intervertebral Disk - correct answer ✅The cushion that lies between two vertebrae. 14) Intracerebral Hematoma - correct answer ✅Bleeding within the brain tissue (parenchyma) itself; also referred to as an intraparenchymal hematoma. 15) ICP - correct answer ✅Intracranial Pressure. 16) Intracranial Pressure (ICP) - correct answer ✅The pressure within the cranial vault. 17) Involuntary Activities - correct answer ✅Actions of the body that are not under a person's conscious control. 18) Linear Skull Fractures - correct answer ✅Account for 80% of skull fractures; also referred to as nondisplaced skull fractures; commonly occur P a g e 2 | 110 34) these are the characteristics of a developmentally disabled patient - correct answer ✅may appear slow to understand, limited vocabulary 35) immature behavior 36) characteristics of autism - correct answer ✅severe behavioral problems, repetitive motor activities, 37) impairment in verbal and nonverbal skills, difficulty making eye contact, has trouble answering open ended questions and monotone speech 38) these are the most common forms of hearing loss - correct answer ✅sensorineural deafness and conductive hearing loss 39) sensorineural deafness - correct answer ✅a permanent lack of hearing caused by a lesion or damage of the inner ear 40) conductive hearing loss - correct answer ✅hearing loss caused by a faulty transmission of sounds waves. can be caused by an accumulation of wax within the ear canal or a perforated eardrum 41) tracheostomy tube - correct answer ✅a plastic tube placed within the tracheostomy site (stoma) 42) ventilator malfunction - correct answer ✅if this malfunction occurs, remove the patient from this devise and begin bag-valve-mask ventilations via the tracheostomy hole 43) internal cardiac pacemaker - correct answer ✅this is a device implanted under the patients skin to regulate the heart rate. (document the type of pacemaker) P a g e 5 | 110 44) left ventricular assist devices (LVAD) - correct answer ✅this is a special piece of medical equipment that takes over the function of one or both heart ventricles. it is used as a bridge to heart transplantation while a donor heart is located. may be difficult to palpate a pulse in patients who have this 45) central venous catheter - correct answer ✅a catheter that has its tip placed in the vena cavato and provides venous access (pick-line) used for home care patients, chemotherapy, long term antibiotic or pain management, total parental nutrition (TPN) hemodialysis, or high concentration glucose solutions. common locations - chest, upper arm, subclavicular 46) gastrostomy tubes - correct answer ✅these may be placed into the stomach for patients who cannot ingest fluids, food or medication by mouth. 47) this transport position should be used for patients with gastric tubes and difficulty breathing - correct answer ✅sitting or lying on the right side with the head elevated 30 degrees 48) shunts - correct answer ✅tubes that drain excess cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the brain to another part of the body outside of the brain such as the abdomen; lowers pressure in the brain. used for patients with chronic neurologic conditions. located beneath the skin on the side of the head behind the ear. 49) signs/symptoms of distress for kids with shunts - correct answer ✅bulging fontanelles (infants) headache, projectile vomiting, AMS, irritability, high pitched cry, fever, nausea, difficulty walking, blurred vision, seizures, redness along the shunt track, bradycardia, and heart arrhythmias P a g e 6 | 110 50) vagal nerve stimulator - correct answer ✅this is a treatment used for seizures that are not controlled with medication. it stimulates the vagus nerve at predetermined intervals to prevent seizure activity. surgical implant used in children over 12. located under the patients skin about the size of a silver dollar. 51) colostomy - correct answer ✅a surgical procedure to create an opening (stoma) between the small or large intestine and the surface of the body 52) caregiver - correct answer ✅interaction with the ___________ is important because they are 53) experts on caring for the patient and can help determine baseline behavior for the patient 54) urostomy - correct answer ✅a surgical procedure to create an opening (stoma) which connects the urinary system to the surface of the skin and allows urine to drain through the abdominal wall instead of through the urethra 55) tracheostomy - correct answer ✅a surgical procedure to create an opening (stoma) into the trachea; a stoma in the neck connects the trachea directly to the skin 56) stoma - correct answer ✅an opening through the skin and into an organ or other structure 57) spina bifida - correct answer ✅a development defect in which a portion of the spinal cord or meninges may protrude outside of the vertebrae and possible even outside of the body usually at the lower third of the spine in the lumbar area. this is a birth defect caused by incomplete closure of the spinal column during embryonic or fetal development P a g e 7 | 110 74) hyperesthesia - correct answer ✅increased sensitivity is called 75) facial paralysis - correct answer ✅This can also cause communication challenges 76) sever obesity - correct answer ✅this is when a person is 2-3 times over the ideal weight 77) these are associated health problems with obesity - correct answer ✅mobility difficulties, diabetes, hypertension, heart disease, stroke 78) tracheal stoma - correct answer ✅this provides a path between the surface of the neck and the trachea. passes from the neck directly into the major airway and bypasses the nose and mouth 79) D.O.P.E. - correct answer ✅D - displacement, dislodged or damaged tube  - obstruction of tube (secretions, blood, mucus, vomitus) 80) P - pneumothorax 81) E - equipment failure (kinked tubing, ventilator malfunction, empty oxygen supply) 82) mechanical ventilators - correct answer ✅these are used when patients cannot breath without assistance. 83) apnea monitors - correct answer ✅these are used for infants who are premature and have severe gastroesophageal reflux that causes choking episodes. have a family history of SIDS, have experienced an apparent life- threatening event (ALTE) used 2 weeks - 2 months after birth. an alarm will sound if an infant experiences bradycardia or apnea P a g e 10 | 110 84) automated implanted cardioverter defibrillator - correct answer ✅a pacemaker may also include this to monitor heart rhythm 85) non-stop pacemaker - correct answer ✅this is set at a non-stop pace of 70 bpm 86) demand pacemaker - correct answer ✅this sends a pacer spike under a set rate as needed 87) external defibrillator vest - correct answer ✅this is a vest with built in monitoring electrodes and defibrillation pads which is worn by the patient under their clothing. 88) ventricular peritoneum shunt - correct answer ✅this drains excess fluid from the ventricles of the brain into the peritoneum of the abdomen 89) ventricular atrium shunt - correct answer ✅this drains excess fluid from the ventricles of the brain into the right atrium of the heart. 90) palliative care - correct answer ✅this is the type of care used with pain medications 91) obese - correct answer ✅This term is used when someone is 30% or more over their ideal body weight 92) possible causes of cerebral palsy - correct answer ✅this can stem from the following; damage to the developing fetal brain while in utero, oxygen deprivation at birth, or traumatic brain injury at birth P a g e 11 | 110 93) the sign for SICK - correct answer ✅when a complete hearing impaired patient uses sign language and puts their hand on there head and stomach this means? 94) the sign for HURT - correct answer ✅when a complete hearing impaired patient uses sign language and extends the index fingers of both hands, brings the fingers toward each other twice using a jabbing or twisting movement, this means? 95) abruptio placenta - correct answer ✅a premature separation of the placenta from the wall of the uterus 96) amniotic sac - correct answer ✅The fluid-filled, baglike membrane in which the fetus develops. 97) apgar score - correct answer ✅A scoring system for assessing the status of a newborn that assigns a number value to each of five areas of assessment. 98) birth canal - correct answer ✅The vagina and cervix 99) bloody show - correct answer ✅A small amount of blood at the vagina that appears at the beginning of labor and my include a plug of pink-tinged mucus that is discharged when the cervix begins to dilate. 100) breech presentation - correct answer ✅A delivery in which buttocks come out first. P a g e 12 | 110 119) preeclampsia - correct answer ✅A condition of late pregnancy that involves headache, visual changes, and swelling of the hands and feet; also called pregnancy-induced hypertension. 120) pregnancy-induced hypertension - correct answer ✅A condition of late pregnancy that involves headache, visual changes, and swelling of the hands and feet; also called preeclampsia. 121) presentation - correct answer ✅The position in which an infant is born; the part of the infant that appears first. 122) primigravida - correct answer ✅A woman who is experiencing her first pregnancy 123) prolapse of the umbilical cord - correct answer ✅A situation in which the umbilical cord comes out of the vagina before the infant. 124) spina bifida - correct answer ✅A development defect in which a portion of the spinal cord or meninges may protrude outside of the vertebrae and possibly even outside of the body, usually at the lower third of the spine in the lumbar area. 125) supine hypotensive syndrome - correct answer ✅Low blood pressure resulting from compression of the inferior vena cava by the weight of the pregnant uterus when the mother is supine. 126) umbilical cord - correct answer ✅The conduit connecting the mother to infant via the placenta; contains two arteries and one vein. P a g e 15 | 110 127) vertex presentation - correct answer ✅A delivery in which the head comes out first. 128) If a patient's mechanical ventilator malfunctions, you should remove the patient from the ventilator and: A) place the patient on a nasal cannula. B) place the patient on a nonrebreathing mask. C) begin ventilations with a bag-valve mask. D) contact medical control. - correct answer ✅C) begin ventilations with a bag-valve mask. 129) irway management can be challenging in patients with Down syndrome because their: A) teeth are misaligned and they have a large tongue. B) occiput is round, which causes flexion of the neck. C) tongue is relatively small and falls back in the throat. D) mandible is large, which inhibits a mask-to-face seal. - correct answer ✅A) teeth are misaligned and they have a large tongue. 130) When assessing or providing care to a patient with an intellectual disability, you should: A) explain procedures while in the process of performing them. B) be observant for signs of fear or reluctance from the patient. C) move swiftly and deliberately to quickly accomplish the task. D) frequently reassure him or her that everything will be okay. - correct answer ✅B) be observant for signs of fear or reluctance from the patient. 131) General techniques for communicating with hearing-impaired patients include: A) exaggerating your lip movements to ensure the patient understands. P a g e 16 | 110 B) speaking directly into the patient's ear with an increased voice pitch. C) removing any hearing aids and using pen and paper to ask questions. D) positioning yourself approximately 18 inches directly in front of the patient. - correct answer ✅D) positioning yourself approximately 18 inches directly in front of the patient. 132) When enlisting the help of an interpreter who signs, it is important for you to ask the interpreter to: A) report exactly what the patient signs and not to add any commentary. B) voice what he or she is signing while communicating with the patient. C) document the answers to the questions that the patient has responded to. D) avoid any kind of lip movement while he or she is signing with the patient. - correct answer ✅A) report exactly what the patient signs and not to add any commentary. 133) Cerebral palsy is a condition that results from damage or injury to the: A) brain. B) spinal cord. C) voluntary muscles. D) peripheral nervous system. - correct answer ✅A) brain. 134) When caring for patients with cerebral palsy, it is important to remember that: A) they are unable to walk and are totally dependent upon you. B) their limbs are often underdeveloped and are prone to injury. C) hearing aids are usually ineffective for patients with hearing loss. P a g e 17 | 110 D) speaking with the patient and family to establish what is considered normal for the patient. - correct answer ✅D) speaking with the patient and family to establish what is considered normal for the patient. 143) When caring for a patient who is visually impaired, it is important to: A) allow a service dog to remain with the patient at all times, even if the patient is critically ill. B) stand to the side of the patient when speaking if his or her peripheral vision is impaired. C) leave items such as canes and walkers at the residence if the patient will be carried on a gurney. D) tell him or her what is happening, identify noises, and describe the situation and surroundings. - correct answer ✅D) tell him or her what is happening, identify noises, and describe the situation and surroundings. 144) abrasion - correct answer ✅Loss or damage of the superficial layer of skin as a result of a body part rubbing or scraping across a rough or hard surface. 145) amputation - correct answer ✅An injury in which part of the body is completely severed. 146) avulsion - correct answer ✅An injury in which soft tissue is torn completely loose or is hanging as a flap. 147) burns - correct answer ✅Injuries in which soft-tissue damage occurs as a result from thermal heat, frictional heat, toxic chemicals, electricity, or nuclear radiation. P a g e 20 | 110 148) closed injuries - correct answer ✅Injuries in which damage occurs beneath the skin or mucous membrane but the surface remains intact. 149) compartment syndrome - correct answer ✅Swelling in a confined space that produces dangerous pressure; may cut off blood flow or damage sensitive tissue. 150) contact burn - correct answer ✅A burn caused by direct contact with a hot object. 151) contamination - correct answer ✅The presence of infectious organisms or foreign bodies on or in objects such as dressings, water, food, needles, wounds, or a patient's body. 152) contusion - correct answer ✅A bruise from an injury that causes bleeding beneath the skin without breaking the skin. 153) crush syndrome - correct answer ✅Significant metabolic derangement that develops when crushed extremities or body parts remain trapped for prolonged periods. This can lead to renal failure and death. 154) crushing injury - correct answer ✅An injury that occurs when a great amount of force is applied to the body. 155) dermis - correct answer ✅The inner layer of the skin, containing hair follicles, sweat glands, nerve endings, and blood vessels. 156) ecchymosis - correct answer ✅Bruising or discoloration associated with bleeding within or under the skin. P a g e 21 | 110 157) epidermis - correct answer ✅The outer layer of skin that acts as a watertight protective covering. 158) evisceration - correct answer ✅The displacement of organs outside of the body. 159) fascia - correct answer ✅The fiberlike connective tissue that covers arteries, veins, tendons, and ligaments. 160) flame burn - correct answer ✅A burn caused by an open flame. 161) flash burn - correct answer ✅A burn caused by exposure to very intense heat, such as in an explosion. 162) full-thickness (third-degree) burns - correct answer ✅Burns that affects all skin layers and may affect the subcutaneous layers, muscle, bone, and internal organs, leaving the area dry, leathery, and white, dark brown, or charred. 163) hematoma - correct answer ✅A mass of blood in the soft tissues beneath the skin. 164) incision - correct answer ✅A sharp, smooth cut. 165) laceration - correct answer ✅A jagged, open wound. P a g e 22 | 110 183) Spiral (fracture) - correct answer ✅a fracture caused by a twisting force, causing an oblique fracture around the bone and through the bone. This is often the result of abuse in very young children. 184) Incomplete (fracture) - correct answer ✅a fracture that does not run completely through the bone; a non-displaced partial crack. 185) significant forces required to cause fractures or dislocations may be: - correct answer ✅-direct blows 186) -indirect forces 187) -twisting forces 188) -high energy injuries 189) Musculoskeletal Injury Grading System / Minor Injuries: - correct answer ✅-minor sprains 190) -fractures or dislocations of digits 191) Musculoskeletal Injury Grading System / Moderate Injuries: - correct answer ✅-open fractures of digits 192) -non-displaced long-bone fractures 193) -non-displaced pelvic fractures 194) -major sprains of a major joint 195) Musculoskeletal Injury Grading System / Serious Injuries: - correct answer ✅-displaced long-bone fractures 196) -multiple hand and foot fractures 197) -open long-bone fractures 198) -displaced pelvic fractures 199) -dislocations of major joints 200) -multiple digit amputations 201) -laceration of major nerves or blood vessels P a g e 25 | 110 202) Musculoskeletal Injury Grading System / Severe, Life-Threatening Injuries (survival is probable): - correct answer ✅-multiple closed fractures 203) -limb amputations 204) -fractures of both long bones of the legs (bilateral femur fractures) 205) Musculoskeletal Injury Grading System / Critical Injuries (survival is uncertain): - correct answer ✅-multiple open fractures of the limbs 206) -suspected pelvic fractures with hemodynamic instablility 207) Do not use Traction Splints for any of these conditions: - correct answer ✅-injuries of the upper extremity 208) -injuries close to or involving the knee 209) -injuries of the hip 210) -injuries of the pelvis 211) -partial amputations or avulsions with bone separation 212) -lower leg, foot, or ankle injury 213) Do not use the PASG (pneumatic antishock garment) if these conditions exist: - correct answer ✅-pregnancy 214) -pulmonary edema 215) -acute heart failure 216) -penetrating chest injuries 217) -groin injuries 218) -major head injuries 219) -a transport time of less than 30 minutes 220) acromioclavicular (AC) joint - correct answer ✅A simple joint where the bony projections of the scapula and the clavicle meet at the top of the shoulder. P a g e 26 | 110 221) articular cartilage - correct answer ✅A pearly layer of specialized cartilage covering the articular surfaces (contact surfaces on the ends) of bones in synovial joints. 222) calcaneus - correct answer ✅The heel bone. 223) closed fracture - correct answer ✅A fracture in which the skin is not broken. 224) compartment syndrome - correct answer ✅Swelling in a confined space that produces dangerous pressure; may cut off blood flow or damage sensitive tissue. 225) crepitus - correct answer ✅A grating or grinding sensation caused by fractured bone ends or joints rubbing together; also air bubbles under the skin that produce a crackling sound or crinkly feeling. 226) dislocation - correct answer ✅Disruption of a joint in which ligaments are damaged and the bone ends are completely displaced. 227) displaced fracture - correct answer ✅A fracture in which bone fragments are separated from one another and not in anatomic alignment. 228) ecchymosis - correct answer ✅Bruising or discoloration associated with bleeding within or under the skin. 229) fibula - correct answer ✅The outer and smaller bone of the two bones of the lower leg. P a g e 27 | 110 249) tourniquet - correct answer ✅The bleeding control method used when a wound continues to bleed despite the use of direct pressure and elevation; useful if a patient is bleeding severely from a partial or complete amputation. 250) traction - correct answer ✅Longitudinal force applied to a structure. 251) zone of injury - correct answer ✅The area of potentially damaged soft tissue, adjacent nerves, and blood vessels surrounding an injury to a bone or a joint. 252) Which Air Force Doctrine Document (AFFD) is the primary guide used by the Air Force Medical Service commanders to accomplish their mission? (001) - correct answer ✅AFDD 4-02, Medical Operations. 253) Why is Medical Doctrine necessary? (001) - correct answer ✅Guides commanders in using assets. 254) What type of doctrine guides organization and employment of forces within distinct objective, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment? (001) - correct answer ✅Operational 255) Tactical doctrine can be explained best by which of the following examples? (001) - correct answer ✅A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed 256) or safety factors. P a g e 30 | 110 257) What kind of change to casualty survival rates occurs when aeromedical evacuation (AE) is available? (002) - correct answer ✅Significantly increase 258) Which Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) increment has no beds? (002) - correct answer ✅EMEDS Basic. 259) Who is qualified to perform a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD)? (002) - correct answer ✅Mental Health personnel and Aerospace Med Specialist with additional training. 260) Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) Basic requires both routine aeromedical evacuation (AE) support and urgent AE support within how many hours of notification? (002) - correct answer ✅24 hours for routine AE support, and 12 hours for urgent AE support. 261) What is total number of personal assigned to the Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) +25? (002) - correct answer ✅86. 262) The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) has which skill level? (003) - correct answer ✅4N000 263) Who develops and maintains currency of the career field education and training plan (CFETP)? (003) - correct answer ✅Air Force career field manager 264) What figure in an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies career grouping? (004) - correct answer ✅First P a g e 31 | 110 265) Who may request a 4N0X1 Job Inventory? (005) - correct answer ✅Career field manager 266) How often is the 4N0xx Job Inventory normally completed? (005) - correct answer ✅Every 3 years 267) Who is responsible for completing the graduate Assessment Survey (GAS)? (005) - correct answer ✅Supervisor 268) Why is it required for 4N0X1 personnel to complete sustainment training? (006) - correct answer ✅Maintain skills. 269) Required Specialty Verification Program (RSVP) is designed to sustain Air Force specialty code (AFSC) training in what location? (006) - correct answer ✅Deployed setting. 270) What timeframe is best to conduct inservice training within your unit? (007) - correct answer ✅On training days 271) The Master Training Plan (MTP) is used to outline? (008) - correct answer ✅training goals and milestones for enlisted within the assigned area 272) Duty section job description and the upgrade training plan is kept in the? (008) - correct answer ✅Master Training Plan (MTP). 273) Your first step for creating and editing an Master Training Plan (MTP) in your Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is to select with option from AFTR Data/MTP menu? (008) - correct answer ✅Create/Edit MTP. P a g e 32 | 110 292) After achieving training and knowledge, what is the last question you should ask yourself to determine proficiency level? (016) - correct answer ✅Can I do the complete task quickly and accurately? Can tell or show others how to do the task? 293) The Air Force training record (AFTR), AF Form 623, AF Form 803, and training critiques or surveys are used to document? (017) - correct answer ✅training effectiveness. 294) If training is effective, what should trainees remember? (017) - correct answer ✅The requirements to successfully complete the job. 295) What is one of the methods used to develop and evaluate training effectiveness? (017) - correct answer ✅Analyze if everyone actively participated in training process 296) Name one of the three shred-outs of the 4N0X1 career field? (018) - correct answer ✅Neurology technician. 297) Your first step in successful recommendation for formal training begins? (019) - correct answer ✅with meeting the requirements in the Enlisted Classification Directory, Education and Training 298) Course Announcements (ETCA), and AFI 36-2626 299) What educational and training steps must be completed to apply for technical training instructor? (019) - correct answer ✅National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) certification; QTPs for 300) assigned position; complete all duty position training requirements P a g e 35 | 110 301) What must you meet prior to applying for retraining? (019) - correct answer ✅Eligibility requirements. 302) What is one criterion used by the Quality Retraining Program (QRP) board to rank Airmen applying for retraining? (019) - correct answer ✅Last three EPRs. 303) The overall objective of taking advantage of retraining opportunities is to balance the? (019) - correct answer ✅career force of each Air Force speciality code (AFSC) as needed 304) To access your electronic training record in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR), log into the Advanced Distributive Learning System (ADLS), the click on? (020) - correct answer ✅Training Records. 305) The procedures to update the User Location for MACJCOM, Base, Unit, or Work center is preformed by clicking? (021) - correct answer ✅My Profile and editing Root and Sub Organizations 306) If training status code changes, whom do you contact to update the code in the user training information? (021) - correct answer ✅Unit training manager. 307) What section is used in Air Force Training Record (AFTR) to update career development course (CDC) start and complete dates? (022) - correct answer ✅AF 623 Part II 308) The Training Type drop down menu is used to view the entire training Record and? (022) - correct answer ✅Qualification Training P a g e 36 | 110 309) What's the first button trainee's click to sign off 623A entries in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR)? (023) - correct answer ✅USER 310) What is the first step trainees make in searching for 1098 items to update the Air Force Form 1098? (024) - correct answer ✅Click the SEARCH RECORD button. 311) What is the first step trainees use to sign off a task as a trainee on Job Qualifications Standard (JQS) if a task already has a start date? (025) - correct answer ✅. Select a task and click the TRAINEE button 312) Which form is used to access Job Qualification Standard (JQS) continuation items? (026) - correct answer ✅AF Form 797. 313) The purpose of an AF Form 803 involves what two evaluation steps? (026) - correct answer ✅Conduct and document completion of task evaluations during training 314) What button do you click to add new file information to the Air Force Training Record (AFTR) User File? (027) - correct answer ✅ADD FILE 315) What system is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget and other important resource allocation decisions for medical personnel? (028) - correct answer ✅Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System. 316) Who approves or disapproves an Authorization Change Request? (029) - correct answer ✅Major command (MAJCOM). 317) Who is responsible to lead their teams and establish clear standards for the Work Centers? (030) - correct answer ✅Supervisors P a g e 37 | 110 335) Who should you contact to obtain the most current procedures and local policy for medical or nonmedical equipment problems or concerns? (037) - correct answer ✅Biomedical equipment repair technician 336) Which are the two primary categories of items that require report of survey (ROS) documentation if lost, damaged, or destroyed? (038) - correct answer ✅Supply system stocks and property record items 337) Pecuniary liability is generally limited to a maximum of one-month's base pay of? (038) - correct answer ✅a person who lost or damaged property. 338) A report of survey (ROS) is referred to the legal office for review when? (038) - correct answer ✅. financial responsibility is assessed. 339) What form is used when an individual admits pecuniary liability and wants to make a cash payment? (038) - correct answer ✅DD Form 1131. 340) Which of the following defines nonmaleficence? (039) - correct answer ✅The duty to do no harm. 341) Each medical treatment facility (MTF) must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for which of the following responsibilities? (039) - correct answer ✅Chaperone 342) Which category of personnel does the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) affect? (040) - correct answer ✅Anyone handling patient information. P a g e 40 | 110 343) For general guidance regarding the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) use? (040) - correct answer ✅DOD Regulation 6025.18-R 344) Which is an appropriate way to help relieve a patient's stress? (041) - correct answer ✅Remain honest and in control to decrease the patient's anxiety 345) Which procedure is not a useful social media tip when Airmen and their families are communicating online? (042) - correct answer ✅No precautions are taken while off-duty. 346) Which model is the correct type for Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH)? (043) - correct answer ✅Team-based model. 347) What is the purpose of Team Huddles and how often do they occur within a Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH)? (043) - correct answer ✅Intended for problem solving and updating the team's work plan; daily. 348) What updates are completed nightly by CarePoint? (043) - correct answer ✅Lab and screening tests with updates to both action lists and patient counts 349) Enrollment information from the Defense Enrollment and Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) is sent to the medical treatment facility (MTF) at least? (044) - correct answer ✅quarterly 350) If you are trying to determine the deployment status of a unit, what system should you use that will support Force Health Protection, Population P a g e 41 | 110 Health, and Military Health System (MHS) optimization? (044) - correct answer ✅. Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application 351) When patient care is not documented what can be assumed about the patient's treatment? (044) - correct answer ✅No care or treatment was accomplished. 352) What step does a medical technician provide in the workflow process? (045) - correct answer ✅Uses a common AIM form to enter data into AHLTA. 353) Who starts the Tri-Service workflow form documentation? (045) - correct answer ✅The patient signs in and data is entered in an encounter worksheet or SF600 overprint. 354) What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when used in International Classification of Diseases (ICD-9)? (046) - correct answer ✅Not elsewhere classified. 355) When do Preventive Health Assessment (PHA) member's status turn yellow in Aeromedical Services Information Management System (ASIMS)? (047) - correct answer ✅When PHA is due within 3 months 356) When do Preventive Health Assessment (PHA) status turns red and what items may be overdue? (047) - correct answer ✅Member needs to complete immunizations, PHAs, dental, and deployment health assessments 357) (DHAs). It turns red on day 456. 358) What are the principles of population health management? (048) - correct answer ✅Support the DOD and our nation's security. P a g e 42 | 110 377) what substance ensures the eyeball maintains its round shape? - correct answer ✅Vitreous humor 378) the auditory ossicles are located in the ? - correct answer ✅middle ear 379) in the ear, movement of the stapes causes stimulation of fluid within the ? - correct answer ✅cochlea 380) which of the following is a nasal air passageway? - correct answer ✅middle meatus 381) odors are describes as belonging to which of these groups? - correct answer ✅7 primary odors, combination of at least 2 of them 382) what are the enlarged smell receptors that extend into the nasal cavity? - correct answer ✅olfactory bulbs 383) the layer of the epidermis that is next to the deepest layer is the - correct answer ✅stratum spinosum 384) the white area at the base of a finger or toe nail is called the - correct answer ✅lunula 385) what substance is secreted by the sebaceous gland - correct answer ✅sebum 386) in which function of the integumentary system would blood vessels constrict? - correct answer ✅body temp regulation P a g e 45 | 110 387) pigmentation is attributed to? - correct answer ✅melanin 388) where would you find very little compact bone in the skeletal system? - correct answer ✅bone ends 389) where are nerves and blood vessels contained in the bone? - correct answer ✅medullary cavity 390) what bones are usually located within tendons where pressure is frequently applied? - correct answer ✅sesamoid 391) what is the name of the triangular shaped bone that lies over the anterior portion of the knee joint? - correct answer ✅patella 392) what type of muscle is the skeletal muscle - correct answer ✅voluntary ;striated 393) the muscle layer that lies just below the epimysium is the ??? - correct answer ✅perimysium 394) what attaches skeletal muscle to the bone? - correct answer ✅tendons 395) what type of joint joins the distal end of the tibia and fibula? - correct answer ✅syndesmosis P a g e 46 | 110 396) what type of joint connects the sternum and first rib? - correct answer ✅synchondrosis 397) what fluid acts as a joint lubricant and a nutrient supplier for cartilage within the joint? - correct answer ✅synovial 398) what is the process that forms blood cells called? - correct answer ✅Hematopoiesis 399) the valve that leads from the right atrium to the right ventricle is the ? - correct answer ✅tricuspid valve 400) what is the term for thick muscular portion of the heart? - correct answer ✅myocardium 401) what is the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle? - correct answer ✅mitral 402) what cells are responsible for the clotting action in blood? - correct answer ✅platelets 403) the pressure in the blood vessels when the heart is at rest between contractions is the ? - correct answer ✅diastolic 404) oxygenated blood travels from the lungs back to the heart through the ? - correct answer ✅pulmonary vein 405) what vein returns blood back to the heart from the lower body? - correct answer ✅inferior vena cava P a g e 47 | 110 424) what cranial nerve is responsible for the sensation of sight? - correct answer ✅optic 425) what cranial nerve controls the lateral rectus eye muscle? - correct answer ✅abducent 426) the fight or flight reaction is controlled by the ? - correct answer ✅sympathetic nervous system 427) what part of the peripheral nervous system is responsible for involuntary body functions? - correct answer ✅autonomic 428) the layer of the alimentary canal that is responsible for movement of substances through the canal is the ? - correct answer ✅muscular 429) the ileocecal valve in the small intestine connects to the? - correct answer ✅cecum 430) what is the mucous membrane that attaches the tongue to the floor of the mouth? - correct answer ✅frenulum 431) what is the difference of primary teeth and the number of permanent teeth a person will keep ? - correct answer ✅12 432) where will undigested chyme go after leaving the ileum? - correct answer ✅cecum P a g e 50 | 110 433) which organ absorbs beneficial water for use by the body? - correct answer ✅colon 434) what liquid is produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder? - correct answer ✅Bile 435) kidneys are in the posterior abdominal cavity and extent from the ? - correct answer ✅thoracic to the lumbar spinal region 436) approximately how many nephrons are within each kidney? - correct answer ✅1 million 437) how many inches long would you expect the ureter to be in a 30 yr old male? - correct answer ✅10 438) backflow of urine into the ureters is prevented by the ? - correct answer ✅flap of mucous membrane 439) the urge to urinate is usually first experienced when the bladder contains approximately how many millimeters of urine? - correct answer ✅250 440) what part of the kidney filters blood to remove waste and regulate water and electrolyte concentrations? - correct answer ✅nephron 441) the testes ate 2 oval shaped structures that are made of ? - correct answer ✅connective tissue P a g e 51 | 110 442) what is the tubule that leads from the urinary bladder to the exterior of the body? - correct answer ✅urethra 443) growth of body hair on a male is a? - correct answer ✅secondary sex characteristic 444) where ae the sperm cells produced? - correct answer ✅testes 445) fluid is secreted from the seminal vesicles to help carry sperm through the? - correct answer ✅ejaculatery duct 446) the lower third of the uterus is called? - correct answer ✅cervix 447) what happens to the ovum after a sperm fertilizes it? - correct answer ✅travels to uterus and attaches to endometrium 448) the second phase of the menstrual cycle begins when? - correct answer ✅ovum is released from one of the ovaries 449) what is the term used to describe the first menstrual cycle that occurs once the puberty is reached? - correct answer ✅menarche 450) the pituitary gland is divided into what 2 sections called? - correct answer ✅anterior lobe and the posterior lobe 451) which organ secretes the adrenotropic hormone? - correct answer ✅anterior lobe of the pituitary gland P a g e 52 | 110 470) What is the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-life method? - correct answer ✅When package integrity is compromised 471) Which is not a commonly used disinfecting agent? - correct answer ✅Hydrochloric acid 472) What is the temperature range of the sterilization cycle in a peracetic acid sterilizer? - correct answer ✅Between 122-131 degrees F 473) Which item may not be placed in a hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizer? - correct answer ✅Count sheets 474) What are the standard identifiers associated with the Nation Patient Safety Guidelines? - correct answer ✅Patient's full name and date of birth 475) What are the foundations of safe and effective healthcare? - correct answer ✅Proactive risk identification, assessment, and control 476) The very low-density lipoproteins transport - correct answer ✅Triglycerides that are synthesized in the liver from carbohydrates to adipose cells 477) Nursing actions that facilitate self-actualization is pertinent during which aspect of the nursing care? - correct answer ✅Rehabilitation 478) A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at - correct answer ✅24 months P a g e 55 | 110 479) Which is a characteristic of late adulthood? - correct answer ✅Muscle atrophy 480) What controllable factor did Florence Nightingale link with health and the environment? - correct answer ✅Pure water 481) Which of the following is most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program? - correct answer ✅Blood pressure screenings 482) A good source of protein is - correct answer ✅Poultry 483) Clinical signs of B12 deficiency are first noted by - correct answer ✅Pernicious anemia 484) Pregnant women who overdose on B6 may have caused newborns to be born with - correct answer ✅Seizures 485) Vitamin C can be found naturally in all of the following foods except - correct answer ✅Cheese 486) A sign of vitamin A deficiency include - correct answer ✅night blindness 487) Which ailment is not treated by vitamin K? - correct answer ✅Heparin overdose 488) What percentage of the body's weight are minerals responsible for? - correct answer ✅4 P a g e 56 | 110 489) Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen - correct answer ✅Through an excessive amount of fluid loss 490) When administering potassium intravenously, you should - correct answer ✅mix the potassium thoroughly before administration 491) Calcium can be found in all of the following sources except - correct answer ✅pork 492) Which route is injectable iron administered? - correct answer ✅Z- track 493) Electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called - correct answer ✅acids 494) What symptoms may occur with blood pH alkalosis? - correct answer ✅Dizzy and agitated 495) Complex carbohydrates are called - correct answer ✅polysaccharides 496) What organ is primarily responsible for controlling lipid metabolism? - correct answer ✅Liver 497) Amino acids are the small molecular building blocks of - correct answer ✅Proteins P a g e 57 | 110 516) What steps should you take if you identify a small object while straining urine? - correct answer ✅Place it in a sterile urine cup and notify the nurse 517) After obtaining a blood sample, instruct the patient to maintain pressure over the venipuncture site for - correct answer ✅2 to 3 minutes 518) What should be done prior to operating a glucose meter? - correct answer ✅Read the operating instructions 519) In the objective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify that patient's - correct answer ✅pulse rate 520) A proctoscopy is an inspection of the - correct answer ✅rectum 521) When educating the patient with pseudofolliculitis barbae on proper shaving methods, you should instruct the patient to avoid all of the following except shaving - correct answer ✅In the direction of hair growth 522) The eye can generally see wavelengths between - correct answer ✅400 and 750 nm 523) At what ages is visual acuity at its best? - correct answer ✅15-20 524) When performing a pulmonary function test on a patient, according to Air Force standards, abnormal functions are present if the predicted forces expiratory volume at once second (FEV1) or forced vital capacity (FVC) percentage is less than? - correct answer ✅80 P a g e 60 | 110 525) During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of practice attempts and acceptable tracings an examinee must perform are - correct answer ✅2; 3 526) Any artificial products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called - correct answer ✅Artifacts 527) What term is used to describe any variance in the normal electrical rate or sequence of cardiac activities discovered on electrocardiogram tracings? - correct answer ✅Arrhythmia 528) If you are performing an electrocardiogram on someone who is rated, a copy of that electrocardiogram must be sent to the - correct answer ✅US Air Force Central Electrocardiographic Library 529) What is another term for orthostatic hypotension? - correct answer ✅Postural Hypotension 530) Notify the nurse or physician immediately if the patient's oxygen saturation (SaO2) falls below - correct answer ✅97 percent 531) When can the minor surgery procedure begin? - correct answer ✅After the consent form is signed 532) When cutting through thick muscular skin of the back, a provider would most likely use a - correct answer ✅Mayo scissors P a g e 61 | 110 533) When cleaning a two inch laceration on a healthy active duty male's right forearm, you notice some foreign material in the wound, what would be the next step? - correct answer ✅Flush the wound 534) After you have applied a topical anesthetic to a wound that requires treatment, what should you do next? - correct answer ✅Assess sensory awareness 535) How much vacuum must suction units provide when the tube clamped? - correct answer ✅300 mm Hg 536) When performing a crash cart check, what should you do after ensuring the defibrillator or cardiac monitor operate? - correct answer ✅Annotate date and time on a rhythm strip 537) When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, what information should not be broadcast? - correct answer ✅Name 538) In the Air Force, you can use lights and sirens on an ambulance call only - correct answer ✅when local protocol authorizes it 539) The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the emergency medical technician is called - correct answer ✅scene size-up 540) When there is an apparent vehicle fire, how many feet should the ambulance be parked from the affected vehicle? - correct answer ✅100 P a g e 62 | 110 blood which results in a condition called - correct answer ✅Respiratory acidosis 557) Which individual is not authorized to see and treat patients? - correct answer ✅Registered nurses 558) What considerations determine the steps in the routine admission process? - correct answer ✅Patient's condition and the facility policy 559) What would be the responsibility of the medical technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit? - correct answer ✅Obtain patient's vital sighs, height, and weight 560) Which statement allows a patient to depart from the medical facility for a short period of time, usually between 24 and 48 hours? - correct answer ✅Pass 561) How many pounds of baggage are allowed for a patient being aeromedically evacuated to another facility? - correct answer ✅66 562) A patient who is authorized to live outside the hospital while still receiving treatment is considered - correct answer ✅Subsisting out 563) If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every four hours was blank for the day, you would assume the - correct answer ✅Vital signs were not completed 564) What is the proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD Form 792, Intake and Output Worksheet? - correct answer ✅Circle the last accumulated total P a g e 65 | 110 565) Which nursing activity is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnoses? - correct answer ✅Planning 566) Relative to the nursing process, what is a client goal? - correct answer ✅A realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in patient behavior 567) What is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery? - correct answer ✅Preoperative teaching 568) What has a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment? - correct answer ✅Professionalism and caring attitude of staff 569) What is the best reason for prepping the skin prior to surgery? - correct answer ✅Reduces the chance of infection 570) Without provider approval, what is the maximum number of minutes antiembolism stocking may be removed? - correct answer ✅30 571) What precaution is taken for a postoperative patient who received a radioisotope implant? - correct answer ✅Isolation is necessary 572) Which position is the bed placed in preparation to receive a postoperative surgical patient? - correct answer ✅High 573) Which exercise is not commonly used for postoperative patients? - correct answer ✅Standing hamstring stretches P a g e 66 | 110 574) Which form is used to document a patient's blood transfusion? - correct answer ✅Standard Form 518 575) How is whole blood normally supplied? - correct answer ✅450cc units 576) What is the guideline for the maximum minutes of time from pickup to the transfusion start of blood products? - correct answer ✅30 minutes 577) If a patient you are monitoring is receiving a blood transfusion and you notice distended neck and veins and dyspnea. What should you do first? - correct answer ✅Stop the transfusion 578) Which pain management method must be closely monitored because it can result in a depressed respiratory system? - correct answer ✅Administration of narcotics 579) Ideally, in what position is a patient placed before performing oropharyngeal suctioning? - correct answer ✅Semi-sitting 580) Orthopedic deformities, such as clubfoot or wryneck, are categorized as - correct answer ✅Congenital 581) A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called - correct answer ✅Pathologic 582) The semi-recumbent position should be avoided over long periods of time in patients with orthopedic disorders because it - correct answer ✅promotes flexion deformities of the hip P a g e 67 | 110 602) Which psychiatric term defines a mood disorder identified by feelings of elation and well-being, flight of ideas, and physical over-activity? - correct answer ✅Mania 603) Your behavior or actions in the presence of a patient who is anxious should be - correct answer ✅consistent 604) A patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt displays a behavior of - correct answer ✅Withdrawal 605) When does the rehabilitation process begin with a mentally ill patient? - correct answer ✅As soon as the patient is admitted 606) What is the primary rehabilitation need of a mentally ill patient? - correct answer ✅Strengthening the patient's defenses 607) When observing and reporting on mentally ill patients, the most important factor to consider is - correct answer ✅behavior 608) Psychotherapy usually includes all of the following treatments except - correct answer ✅Electroconvulsive therapy 609) What action, if any, should you take if you notice a child shows signs of abuse, such as burns and bruises? - correct answer ✅Report the suspected abuse 610) What occurs in the third and final phase of spousal abuse? - correct answer ✅Spouse states it will never happen again P a g e 70 | 110 611) Which drug classification causes euphoria, excitement, dilated pupils, diaphoresis, tachycardia, and rapid breathing? - correct answer ✅Stimulant 612) What is the priority when providing care to a patient that has abused a substance? - correct answer ✅Monitor vital signs and sustain life 613) For patients who suffer from pain, the best way to ensure a successful exercise activity program is to - correct answer ✅begin the program early in the patient's hospital stay 614) When planning activities for patients with psychological problems, your primary goal should be to - correct answer ✅develop a good rapport 615) What should you do to help patients who become angry and hostile? - correct answer ✅Allow them to channel their hostility through verbal expression 616) To aid in preventing decubitus ulcers, patient positioning should be changed every - correct answer ✅Two hours 617) Why should your feet be parallel when you are standing? - correct answer ✅Maintain balance and prevent back, hip, and leg strain 618) To use the internal girdle of support, you must - correct answer ✅simultaneously contract abdominal and buttocks muscles 619) Which factors determine the technique you will use to move the patient up in bed? - correct answer ✅Size and capabilities of the patient P a g e 71 | 110 620) When turning a patient, what is the most important precaution to take whether you are pushing or pulling a patient? - correct answer ✅Raise the far siderail 621) The person in charge of a bed to stretcher transfer should be positioned - correct answer ✅At the head of the bed on the stretcher side 622) Which devices can be used to slide a patient from the bed to a stretcher? - correct answer ✅Drawsheet and roller board 623) When helping a patient to ambulate, how should you stand and where should you place your hands? - correct answer ✅Bedside and a little behind the patient with one hand on the patient's waist and one hand under the patient's near arm 624) Which is a safe, stable gait that can be used by patients who can bear some weight on both legs? - correct answer ✅Four-point 625) Which type of patient exercise is provided for patients who are either unable or not allowed to exercise? - correct answer ✅Passive 626) Care must be taken to ensure patients do not strain while holding their breath when performing isometric exercises as that may cause - correct answer ✅heart attack 627) What diet is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty chewing or swallowing or need to alter the amount of residue in the digestive tract? - correct answer ✅Liquid P a g e 72 | 110 646) As a minimum, how many minutes should you irrigate a patient's eye with chemical burns? - correct answer ✅20 minutes 647) How are corneal abrasions detected? - correct answer ✅Fluorescein stain 648) There is a high rate of success if a dentist carries out a tooth replacement procedure within how many minutes of the accident? - correct answer ✅30 minutes 649) Damage to the epidermis with possible damage to the dermis and its appendages is classified as what type of burn? - correct answer ✅Partial thickness 650) A burn is classified as moderate if it involves - correct answer ✅full- thickness burns that involve 2 to 10 percent of the body surface 651) When caring for a patient with electrical burns at a facility, your first priority is - correct answer ✅management of the patient's airway 652) How would you apply a dressing with the intention of debriding a wound? - correct answer ✅Wet to dry 653) What is the proper sequence for cleaning a wound? - correct answer ✅Remove old dressing, don sterile gloves, wipe from the wound out P a g e 75 | 110 654) What reflex action would be caused if you leave a heat treatment in place for a prolonged period of time? - correct answer ✅Reflex vasoconstriction 655) How do you apply moist heat? - correct answer ✅Moisten a towel and place between heat application and patient 656) A specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drug is best defined as a - correct answer ✅Clinical pharmacist 657) Out of the several names given each medication, which of these drug names is given by the manufacturer? - correct answer ✅Trade name 658) Which statement is true regarding the role of a medical service technician in medication administration? - correct answer ✅Technicians are permitted to administer medications under the supervision of a nurse or physician 659) Which statement is not considered one of the patients' legal and ethical rights? - correct answer ✅Choose the method of administration 660) What form should be filled out when reporting a medication error? - correct answer ✅AF Form 765 661) How many ways can a provider initiate a drug order? - correct answer ✅Two 662) What do many medical treatment facilities use to avoid errors when copying a drug order? - correct answer ✅Computer-generated product P a g e 76 | 110 663) Drug administration is controlled primarily by - correct answer ✅federal law 664) Narcotics, such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines, which have a high potential for abuse, but have acceptable medical uses are classified as - correct answer ✅Schedule 2 665) What law requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances? - correct answer ✅Controlled Substances Act 666) As a minimum, how often should controlled temperature drug storage areas be monitored? - correct answer ✅Once per day 667) Penicillin administered to treat an infection is an example of what category of drugs? - correct answer ✅Curative 668) The process by which a drug is transported from the site of entry to the circulatory system is known as - correct answer ✅Absorption 669) A patient's weight is a factor in drug action due to - correct answer ✅body fat absorption 670) Why are oral medications that are taken before meals generally faster acting? - correct answer ✅Lower digestive system content 671) Which statement is true regarding how ambient temperature can affect drug action? - correct answer ✅Warmer temperatures increase circulation and cause rapid drug action P a g e 77 | 110 689) When administering a vaginal douche, how high above the patient's vagina do you hang the bag? - correct answer ✅12 to 18 inches 690) Which medication's primary action is pain relief? - correct answer ✅Analgesics, sedatives and hypnotics 691) Opioid antagonists are used in the treatment of - correct answer ✅opioid overdose 692) Nonopioid analgesics are available - correct answer ✅over the counter 693) Anti-inflammatory actions are associated with - correct answer ✅preventing the formation of prostaglandins 694) A common side effect of sedatives and hypnotic medications is - correct answer ✅a depressed state of rapid eye movement phase of sleep 695) Which over the counter central nervous system stimulant is frequently taken in prolonged high doses producing habituation and psychological dependence? - correct answer ✅Caffeine 696) What is not a side effects of tricyclics? - correct answer ✅pupil constriction 697) Antianxiety medications are prescribed for - correct answer ✅the treatment of insomnia P a g e 80 | 110 698) Antipsychotic medications are categorized as - correct answer ✅major tranquilizers 699) Extrapyramidal side effects common to typical phenothiazine antipsychotic medication is a result of - correct answer ✅blocking dopamine receptors 700) Which pulse point should be checked before administration of digitalis? - correct answer ✅Apical 701) Toxic side effects of digitalis include the following except - correct answer ✅tachycardia 702) Adrenergic blockers are used in low doses for patients with - correct answer ✅lung conditions that cause bronchospasms 703) Calcium channel blockers should not be taken with - correct answer ✅grapefruit juice 704) The drug of choice when treating premature ventricular contractions associated with a myocardial infarction is - correct answer ✅Lidocaine 705) Quinidine is used primarily as prophylactic therapy to - correct answer ✅maintain normal rhythm after cardioversion 706) What is the most common side effect of antihypertensives? - correct answer ✅Postural hypotension P a g e 81 | 110 707) Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors are taken in conjunction with diuretics or vasodilators, what affect is produced? - correct answer ✅Potentiate hypotension 708) Central-acting alpha-adrenergic inhibitors are usually combined with - correct answer ✅diuretics 709) What is the primary side effect of central-acting alpha-adrenergic inhibitors? - correct answer ✅Sodium and water retention 710) What antidote is administered for serious bleeding complications while under coumarin (Coumadin) therapy? - correct answer ✅Vitamin K 711) Mr. Johnson has undergone a hip replacement and is receiving heparin treatment. Mr. Johnson's daughter has received education from the nurse at the hospital regarding the heparin treatment. What patient education instructions would Mr. Johnson's daughter receive in regards to the site of the heparin injection? - correct answer ✅Do not aspirate 712) While undergoing heparin treatment, Mr. Johnson's diet should be monitored closely for foods rich in vitamin - correct answer ✅K 713) The most serious complication of thrombolytic therapy is - correct answer ✅bleeding 714) Antacids containing aluminum or calcium carbonate have the common side effect of? - correct answer ✅Constipation 715) What is a potential side when antacids are taken concurrently with coumarin derivatives? - correct answer ✅Increase bleeding time P a g e 82 | 110 734) What vaccines are given to individuals deploying to Africa? - correct answer ✅Yellow fever and typhoid 735) Which childhood disease was nearly eradicated worldwide by 1972 and in the early 2000s the vaccine was reintroduced as a mobility vaccine for military personnel? - correct answer ✅Small pox 736) Which viral disease do mosquitoes transmit? - correct answer ✅Yellow fever 737) What type of medication would be prescribed for a patient with allergies to grass and tree pollen? - correct answer ✅Antihistamines 738) What patient-education would be appropriate for a patient who has been prescribed Tessalon perles to help stop coughing? - correct answer ✅Do not chew the capsule 739) What food or drink is known for its high potential to change intestinal tract enzymes and interfere with the effectiveness of certain antibiotics, antifungals, antihistamines and sedative-hypnotic drugs? - correct answer ✅Grapefruit juice 740) During catheterization of a male patient, at what angle is the penis held, and how many inches is the catheter inserted? - correct answer ✅90 degrees, 6 to 10 inches 741) Opioids are contraindicated with - correct answer ✅head injury treatment P a g e 85 | 110 742) Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors lower blood pressure by - correct answer ✅Decreasing vasoconstriction 743) accessory muscles - correct answer ✅The secondary muscles of respiration. They include the neck muscles (sternocleidomastoids), the chest pectoralis major muscles, and the abdominal muscles. 744) auscultate - correct answer ✅To listen to sounds within an organ with a stethoscope. 745) AVPU scale - correct answer ✅A method of assessing the level of consciousness by determining whether the patient is awake and alert, responsive to verbal stimuli or pain, or unresponsive; used principally early in the assessment process. 746) blood pressure - correct answer ✅the pressure that is exerted by the blood against the walls of blood vessels 747) Bradycardia - correct answer ✅slow heart rate (less than 60 bpm) 748) breath sounds - correct answer ✅An indication of air movement in the lungs, usually assessed with a stethoscope. 749) capillary refill - correct answer ✅A test that evaluates distal circulatory system function by squeezing (blanching) blood from an area such as a nail bed and watching the speed of its return after releasing the pressure. 750) capnography - correct answer ✅A noninvasive method to quickly and efficiently provide information on a patient's ventilatory status, circulation, P a g e 86 | 110 and metabolism; effectively measures the concentration of carbon dioxide in expired air over time. 751) carbon dioxide - correct answer ✅Carbon dioxide is a component of air and typically makes up 0.3% of air at sea level; also a waste product exhaled during expiration by the respiratory system. 752) chief complaint - correct answer ✅The reason a patient called for help; also, the patient's response to questions such as "What's wrong?" or "What happened?" 753) coagulate - correct answer ✅To form a clot to plug an opening in an injured blood vessel and stop bleeding. 754) colorimetric devices - correct answer ✅Capnometer or end-tidal carbon dioxide detectors are devices that use a chemical reaction to detect the amount of carbon dioxide present in expired gases by changing colors (qualitative measurement rather than quantitative). 755) conjuctiva - correct answer ✅The delicate membrane that lines the eyelids and covers the exposed surface of the eye. 756) crepitus - correct answer ✅A grating or grinding sensation caused by fractured bone ends or joints rubbing together; also air bubbles under the skin that produce a crackling sound or crinkly feeling. 757) cyanosis - correct answer ✅a bluish discoloration of the skin resulting from poor circulation or inadequate oxygenation of the blood. P a g e 87 | 110 774) labored breathing - correct answer ✅The use of muscles of the chest, back, and abdomen to assist in expanding the chest; occurs when air movement is impaired. 775) mechanism of injury - correct answer ✅a force or forces that may have caused injury 776) nasal flaring - correct answer ✅Flaring out of the nostrils, indicating that there is an airway obstruction. 777) nature of illness - correct answer ✅The general type of illness a patient is experiencing. 778) OPQRST - correct answer ✅Onset, Provocation, Quality, Region/Radiation, Severity, Timing. 779) orientation - correct answer ✅The mental status of a patient as measured by memory of person (name), place (current location), time (current year, month, and approximate date), and event (what happened). 780) palpate - correct answer ✅to examine by touch 781) paradoxical motion - correct answer ✅The motion of the chest wall section that is detached in a flail chest; the motion is exactly the opposite of normal motion during breathing (ie, in during inhalation, out during exhalation). 782) perfusion - correct answer ✅circulation of blood within an organ or tissue P a g e 90 | 110 783) Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) - correct answer ✅Clothing or specialized equipment that provides protection to the wearer. 784) pertinent negatives - correct answer ✅Negative findings that warrant no care or intervention. 785) Primary Assessment - correct answer ✅A step within the patient assessment process that identifies and initiates treatment of immediate and potential life threats. 786) pulse - correct answer ✅The pressure wave that occurs as each heartbeat causes a surge in the blood circulating through the arteries. 787) rales - correct answer ✅A crackling, rattling breath sound that signals fluid in the air spaces of the lungs; also called crackles. 788) Reassessment - correct answer ✅A step within the patient assessment process that is performed at regular intervals to identify and treat changes in a patient's condition, A patient in unstable condition should be reassessed every 5 minutes, whereas a patient in stable condition should be reassessed every 15 minutes 789) responsiveness - correct answer ✅the way in which a patient responds to external stimuli, including verbal stimuli, tactile stimuli, and pain stimuli 790) retractions - correct answer ✅Movement in which the skin pulls in around the ribs during inspiration P a g e 91 | 110 791) rhonchi - correct answer ✅Coarse, low-pitched breath sounds heard in patients with chronic mucus in the upper airways. 792) SAMPLE history - correct answer ✅A brief history of a patient's condition to determine signs and symptoms, allergies, medications, pertinent past history, last oral intake, and events leading to the injury or illness. 793) scene size-up - correct answer ✅A step within the patient assessment process that involves a quick assessment of the scene and the surroundings to provide information about scene safety and the mechanism of injury or nature of illness before you enter and begin patient care. 794) sclera - correct answer ✅The white portion of the eye; the tough outer coat that gives protection to the delicate, light-sensitive inner layer. 795) Secondary Assessment - correct answer ✅A step within the patient assessment process in which a systematic physical examination of the patient is performed. The examination may be a systematic full-body scan or a systematic assessment that focuses on a certain area or region of the body, often determined through the chief complaint. 796) shallow respirations - correct answer ✅Respirations that are charcterized by little movement of the chest wall (reduced tidal volume) or poor chest excursion 797) sign - correct answer ✅Objective findings that can be seen, heard, felt, smelled, or measured. 798) sniffling position - correct answer ✅an upright position in which the patient's head and chin are thrust slightly forward to keep the airway open P a g e 92 | 110 815) Anterior - correct answer ✅The front surface of the body; the side facing you in the standard anatomic position. 816) *aorta - correct answer ✅the main artery, which receives blood from the left ventricle and delivers it to all the other arteries that carry blood to the tissues of the body 817) aortic aneurysm - correct answer ✅A weakness in the wall of the aorta that makes it susceptible to rupture. 818) aortic valve - correct answer ✅The one-way valve that lies between the left ventricle and the aorta and keeps blood from flowing back into the left ventricle after the left ventricle ejects its blood into the aorta; one of four heart valves. 819) *arrhythmia - correct answer ✅An irregular or abnormal heart rhythm. 820) *Asystole - correct answer ✅absence of contractions of the heart 821) Atherosclerosis - correct answer ✅A disorder in which cholesterol and calcium build up inside the walls of the blood vessels, forming plaque, which eventually leads to partial or complete blockage of blood flow. 822) *atrium - correct answer ✅one of two upper chambers of the heart The right atrium receives blood from the vena cava and delivers it to the right ventricle. The left atrium receives blood from the pulmonary veins and delivers it to the left ventricle P a g e 95 | 110 823) *auotomaticity - correct answer ✅the ability of cardiac cells to contract without stimulation from the nervous system 824) autonomic nervous system - correct answer ✅part of the nervous system that controls the involuntary activities of the body such as the heart rate, blood pressure, and digestion of food 825) *bradycardia - correct answer ✅slow heart rate (less than 60 bpm) 826) cardiac arrest - correct answer ✅a state in which the heart fails to generate effective and detectable blood flow; pulses are not palpable and cardiac arrest, even if muscular and electrical activity continues in the heart. 827) cardiogenic shcok - correct answer ✅a state in which not enough oxygen is delivered to the tissues of the body, caused by low output of blood from the heart. It can be a severe complication of a large acute myocardial infarction, as well as other conditions 828) *cardiac output - correct answer ✅A measure of the volume of blood circulated by the heart in 1 minute, calculated by multiplying the stroke volume by the heart rate. 829) congestive heart failure (CHF) - correct answer ✅A disorder in which the heart loses part of its ability to effectively pump blood, usually as a result of damage to the heart muscle and usually resulting in a backup of fluid into the lungs. 830) *coronary arteries - correct answer ✅The blood vessels that carry blood and nutrients to the heart muscle. P a g e 96 | 110 831) *defribrillate - correct answer ✅to shock a fibrillating (chaotic beating) heart with specialized electrical current in an attempt to restore a normal, rhythmic beat. 832) dependent edema - correct answer ✅Swelling in the part of the body closest to the ground, caused by collection of fluid in the tissues; a possible sign of congestive heart failure. 833) *dilation - correct answer ✅Widening of a tubular structure such as a coronary artery. 834) dissecting aneurysm - correct answer ✅A condition in which the inner layers of an artery, such as the aorta, become separated, allowing blood (at high pressures) to flow between the layers. 835) hypertensive emergency - correct answer ✅An emergency situation created by excessively high blood pressure, which can lead to serious complications such as stroke or aneurysm. 836) *infarction - correct answer ✅death of a body tissue, usually caused by interruption of its blood supply 837) infererior - correct answer ✅the part of the body or any body part closer to the ground 838) *ischemia - correct answer ✅A lack of oxygen that deprives tissues of necessary nutrients, resulting from partial or complete blockage of blood flow; potentially reversible because permanent injury has not yet occurred. 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