A&P II Final Exam Updated Version Portage Learning A&P II: Final Exam Latest Version 2023, Exams of Nursing

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A&P II Final Exam Updated Version Portage Learning A&P II: Final Exam Latest Version 2023- 2024

1. This is a collection of cell bodies found in the peripheral nervous system.
2. This part of the autonomic system increases digestion.
3. The ventral root of a nerve contains what type of neurons?
4. This part of a neuron conducts nerve impuls- es away from the cell body.
5. An interneuron inside the spinal cord is part of the:
6. Describe the synthesis and storage of neuro- transmitters. Ganglia Parasympathetic Motor (Efferent) Axon Central nervous system The neuron cell body manufactures neurotrans- mitters, which are stored in secretory vesicles at the end of axon terminals.
7. An afferent neuron carries information: From the peripheral to the central nervous system
8. What is the location and function of Astro- cytes?
9. A patient's left thumb was severed in a cooking accident and then reattached during surgery. Would the patient be expected to re- grow axons in their thumb? Why or why not?
10. Name and describe what is occurring in the neuron cell membrane in section 2 of the di- agram. Include the charge of the membrane during this phase. Astrocytes form the blood/brain barrier, are found in the brain, and are part of the CNS Yes; Peripheral nerves can regenerate the length of the axon through axon- al regeneration because of the growth of Schwann cells ahead of the axon. Depolarization: The sodi- um gates open and sodi- um rushes into the axon during the depolarization

Study online at https://quizlet.com/_9631ob phase of the action poten- tial. Voltage travels past zero and then on up to +40 mV.

11. At rest, a neuron plasma membrane is: - 70mV
12. Which of the following is false concerning the sodium-potassium pump?
13. True or false: A sensory neuron is signaling the body of a light touch. This means that the strength of the action potential is weaker than usual. Explain your reasoning. The overall effect is a neg- ative charge on the out- side of the membrane. False. The action potential is always the same. The frequency and number of nuerons activated change the increase in intensity.
14. Which of the following statements is false con- Ach is released from the cerning the neuromuscular junction?
15. How is a message sent from one neuron to another?
16. What neurotransmitter helps regulate emo- tional responses and muscle tone? presynaptic motor neuron to cause an action poten- tial in the muscle fiber. A signal travels from the cell body through the axon and releases neurotrans- mitters into the synapse. These nuerotransmitters bind with receptor that car- ry the message to the den- drite of the next neuron, and the process begins again. Dopamine
17. In a reflex, the neuron conducts Sensory (afferent) nerve impulses along a pathway towards the central nervous system.

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18. This part of a reflex is inside the CNS, made up of one or more synapses. The integration center
19. What is true about the stretch reflex? The muscle spindle de- tects stretch within the muscle.
20. What is true about the flexor withdrawal re- flex?
21. Your doctor taps on your patellar tendon. List out the steps, in detail, of the nervous pathway of the reflex he is testing. Include any sensory organs involved and the action of the reflex.
22. Botulism is a disease caused by a neurotox- in that interferes with the release of Acetyl- choline. Patients with this disease experience flaccid paralysis, or the inability to contract their muscles. Explain why this would occur.
23. This layer of the meninges is tightly attached to the brain. It involves excitatory in- terneurons. It involves inhibitory in- terneurons. Stretch on patellar tendon (tapping patellar tendon) Muscle spindle detects stretch Afferent (sensory) neuron through DRG Spinal cord Synapses directly on a motor neuron (efferent) Action: To muscle fiber to contract quadriceps (kick- ing foot) Acetylcholine triggers the release of sodium ions. The sodium ions reach the sarcoplasmic reticu- lum, which in turn re- lease calcium ions that be- gin muscle contraction. If acetylcholine is not able to be released, the muscle contraction would not be possible. Pia Mater

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24. The fissure separates the right and left cerebral hemispheres. transverse median
25. Describe the function of the brain ventricles. The brain ventricles are lo- cated inside the brain and produce and store cere- bral spinal fluid
26. ll the following are functions of the hypothal- amus except: Filters out unimportant sensory information
27. What is the largest portion of the brain? cerebrum
28. This region of the brain acts to coordinate multiple sources of sensory information.
29. A patient is having difficulty producing speech sounds, but other motor movements are normal. Which area of the brain is most likely damaged?
30. Describe how memories are stored and re- trieved in the brain. Include a specific brain region.
31. Which statement is false concerning the brainstem?
32. Which of the following is true concerning the cerebellum?
33. Which of the following is most likely a symp- tom of ALS?
34. Which of the following is true concerning a CVA? Association area Broca's area Memories are stored in various locations of the brain and recalled by the limbic system. The midbrain portion of the brainstem is continu- ous with the spinal cord. The anterior lobe receives information from the body trunk. Impaired ability to swallow A hemorrhagic stroke is due to a broken blood ves-

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35. A patient has decreased hand strength in her right hand. She also has numbness in her first three digits. What is most likely the cause?
36. What cranial nerve is highlighted in blue (also indicated by the arrow) in the figure below?
37. What type of nerve is the cranial nerve below and what does it control? Carpal tunnel syndrome Oculomotor Motor: Shoulder move- ment
38. The maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve: receives sensory informa- tion from the upper lip and upper gums
39. This cranial nerve receives information from the retina.
40. This cranial nerve is responsible for the sen- sation of the digestive tract. B. (Optic) J (vagus)

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41. This cranial nerve controls movement of the eye laterally.
42. This cranial nerve receives sensory informa- tion for hearing.
43. This cranial nerve is responsible for voluntar- ily moving the tongue. C (occularmotor nerve) H (Auditory/vestibulo- cochlear) I (glossopharengeal)
44. The lumbar plexus is from spinal nerves: T12-L
45. A patient is on a ventilator post a car accident. Phrenic What nerve is most likely damaged?

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46. A patient damaged the radial nerve. What ac- tion is most likely limited?
47. A patient has decreased sensation over the posterior surface of the thigh. What nerve is most likely damaged?
48. Which of the following is true concerning the lumbar plexus?
49. These contain the ganglia for the parasympa- thetic nervous system that target the intrinsic eye muscles to change the diameter of the pupil.
50. Which of the following is false concerning the sympathetic nervous system?
51. A patient comes into the ER following an acci- dent. She is scared and starting to hyperven- tilate. You talk with her in a calm, reassuring Wrist extension Sciatic There are two divisions: anterior and posterior. Ciliary ganglion It is also called the cran- iosacral division. If she is scared and hy- perventilating, the sypma- thetic division of the auto- manner as she receives medical care. You are nomic nervous system is trying to increase the activity in which division of her nervous system? Explain your answer.
52. If someone sustains an injury to the area of the spinal cord, as shown below by the blue oval, would you be more likely to see paralysis or decreased sensation? Explain your answer. likely activated. By trying to calm her down, I would be trying to increase the parasympathetic division of her autonomic nervous system in order to return her body to its normal rest- ing state. Since the dorsal area is damaged, the patient will most likely experience decreased sensation be- cause the dorsal root car- ries sensory information.

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53. One of your patients sustained an ischemic CVA. You notice that their gait is very un- steady. It almost appears as if they are intox- icated. What portion of the brain was most likely affected by the stroke? The cerebellum was most- ly impacted because that is where limb movements are coordinated. The pa- tient may have ataxia as a result of their stroke.
54. The outer fibrous layer of the eye includes the: sclera and cornea
55. The middle layer of the eye includes which regions?
56. What is the correct order of how light passes through the eye?
57. A patient is found to have blindness of the right visual field of both eyes. What part of the vision pathway was most likely damaged? Explain your response. A. Left optic nerve B. Right optic nerve C. Left LGN D. Right LGN
58. A patient has a brain tumor in the area indi- cated by the red x in the figure, below. What type of blindness is the patient most likely to incur? Explain your reasoning. A. Left eye blindness B. Right eye blindness C. Bilateral left visual field blindness D. Bilateral right visual field blindness. Ciliary body and iris Cornea, lens, vitreous flu- id, retina If the patient has blind- ness in the right visual fields of both eyes, they are most likely experienc- ing damage to the Left LGN because it supplies the nerve to the right visu- al fields. because the tumor would be effecting both nerves to the left eye, the patient would most likely experi- ence left eye blindness.

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59. True or False: All sensory information from the optic nerves cross at the optic chiasm.
60. The is controlled by the abducens nerve.
61. Your elderly patient is discussing her vision problems. She describes her vision as blurry. False Lateral rectus She most likely has ab- ducens nerve damage be- Following a visual examination, her left eye de- cause the lateral rectus viates medially when looking straight ahead. What is most likely causing the vision prob- lem? A. Cataracts B. Abducens nerve damage C. Brain tumor in the occipital lobe D. Medial rectus damage E. Superior rectus damage is not working properly, causing the eye to deviate medially.
62. Which of the following statements is true re- garding the external ear? The auricle funnels sound into the external acoustic meatus.
63. Which of the following statements is true re- garding the middle ear? It is filled with air.
64. Which of the following statements is false re- garding the inner ear? There are two semicircu- lar canals which house sensory receptors.
65. Sound waves are funneled in the Auditory Canal
66. Tympanic Membrane

Study online at https://quizlet.com/_9631ob Vibrations push against the which moves the ossicles.

67. The stapes pushes against the. Cochlear Duct
68. Movement of the causes neurons to send impulses through the to the brain.
69. A person cannot perceive tastes from the an- terior portion of the tongue. What nerve is most likely damaged?
70. A patient has lost his sense of taste follow- ing a TBI. What term should be documented should to describe his loss of taste?
71. Describe the steps in the taste pathway. Begin in the mouth and end in the specific lobe of the brain.
72. A patient sustains an injury to the malleus. What type of deafness does this patient most likely have?
73. Which layer of heart anchors it to the di- aphragm? Stereocilia Cochlear Nerve The facial nerve is most likely damaged. Agusia The circumvalate and fungiform papille on the tongue contain gustory cells that transmit taste in- formation to the facial or glossopharngeal nerves. These nerves transmit the taste information to the parietal lobe of the brain. Injury to the malleus would result in conduc- tion deafness because it is damage to the structure of the inner or middle ear, not the nerve. Pericardium
74. What is the purpose of the mitral valve? The mitral valve allows the flow of blood from the left atrium into the left ventri- cle

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75. Name the vessel in the figure below: (high- lighted in blue, also indicated by the arrow)
76. Name the vessel in the figure below: (high- lighted in blue, also indicated by the arrow)
77. Name the vessel in the figure below: (high- lighted in blue, also indicated by the arrow)
78. True or False: Arteries have high amounts of stretch with little recoil.
79. Which vessel would you expect to be the best place to feel a strong pulse?
80. What is the correct order of blood flow starting from the heart?
81. Which layer of a vessel contains the muscular layer? Anterior intraventricular artery Left coronary artery False Subclavian artery Artery ’ arteriole ’ capillary ’ venule ’ vein Tunica media

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82. A patient had a stroke in their pons portion of the brainstem. What vessel was most likely blocked?
83. These two arteries of the circle of Willis rise along both sides of the spinal cord, joining in the brainstem:
84. What is the name of the artery in the figure below (in blue also indicated by the arrow)?
85. True or False: The cell portion of blood is called formed elements.
86. True of False: Osmotic pressure is the net pressure which pushes fluid into the tissues.
87. Which statement is true concerning the events in the coagulation cascade?
88. Oxygenated blood is pumped from heart through the to the rest of the body.
89. The "pacemaker of the heart" is in what loca- tion?
90. You are reviewing your patient's results from an EKG. The findings indicate a problem with ventricular repolarization. Where should you look on the EKG to find this abnormal rhythm?
91. Your patient's EKG results indicate difficulty with left and right atrial systole. What part Basilar artery the vertebral and internal carotid Posterior cerebral artery True False Prothrombin is converted to thrombin. Left, systemic circuit Right atrium T-wave SA Node

Study online at https://quizlet.com/_9631ob of the conduction system is not functioning properly?

92. Which statement is true concerning the car- diac cycle?
93. A patient is suspected to have pulmonary ede- ma due to congestive heart failure. Which side of the heart would be in failure? Explain your answer.
94. A patient has a diagnosis of right sided heart failure. Which of the following signs/symp- toms would they most likely present with?
95. Your patient has a diagnosis of atherosclero- sis. Is your patient at a higher or lower risk for a thromboembolism? Explain your reasoning.
96. Your patient is admitted to the hospital for a coronary artery bypass. Use your own words to explain to your patient about what is going to happen in this surgery. The ventricular contrac- tion time is longer than the atrial contraction time. The left side of the heart would be in failure, be- cause pulmonary edema effects the left side, and the flow of oxygenat- ed blood from the heart would be compromised. Right side failure would lead to peripheal edema. Swollen ankles Atherosclerosis is a buildup of fats/cholesterol in the arteries. This would put a patient at greater risk for thromboembolism, since the arteries are nar- rowed by the buildup, it would be easier for a blockage to occur. This means that the pa- tient is experiencing a block in his coronary artery. In order to fix this, the surgeon is go- ing to take one of the pa- tients unblocked arteries and connect it to the aorta,

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97. Label the organ below (highlighted in blue, also indicated by the arrow):
98. Name the lymphatic vessel below (highlighted in blue, also indicated by the arrow):
99. True or False: Lymph flows from the heart out to the tissues via the lymphatic vessels.
100. True or False: Fluid inside tissues that is not returned via the veins is returned to the heart through the lymph system.
101. True or False: Lymph fluid moves in the follow- ing order: Interstitial fluid’ lymph capillaries’ Lymph vessels’ Lymphatic Duct’ Veins
102. A patient has lymphedema in his left arm. What lymph vessel would most likely be ob- structed?
103. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning lymph nodes? 104.104. thus bypassing the block- age. Thalmus Thoracic Duct False True True Thoracic Duct There are more efferent vessels than afferent ves- sels.

Study online at https://quizlet.com/_9631ob Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the spleen?

105. Blood enters the spleen via the .
106. Blood in the hepatic portal system transports blood to this organ before returning it to gen- eral circulation.
107. The tonsils contain channels called which trap bacteria.
108. The thymus produces hormones which helps these types of cells mature?
109. Which of the following is a part of the nonspe- cific immune response system?
110. Discuss how the body induces a fever. (Be sure to include the cells and regions of the body involved)
111. Interferons inhibits what type of infection agent:
112. Has granules in the nucleus and is the most abundant of the white blood cells. It has many efferent and afferent lymph vessels. Splenic Artery Liver Crypts T Cells Normal flora Cytokines Interleukins Pyrogens, which is a type of Interlueken, raise the temperature of the body. When the temperature is raised, the body can better fight off infection because some bacteria can't repro- duce under higher tem- peratures, at higher tem- peratures lysosomes re- lease digestive enzymes to help fight infection, and also more white blood cells are released. Virus Neutrophil

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113. Performs phagocytosis Neutrophil Eosinophil Basophil Macrophage Monocyte
114. Stains light pink in the cytoplasm with a mul- ti-lobed nucleus.
115. Which type of immune cell continues to pro- duce a small amount of antibody after the in- fection is over:
116. These cells contain a glycoprotein receptor as part of their cell coat:
117. These cells contain an antigen receptor as part of their cell coat: Neutrophil Memory B cells B Cells T Cells
118. What is FALSE concerning the MHC? These are antibody recep- tors found on only certain types immune cells.
119. Discuss how cell-mediated immunity defends the body against diseases. Give an example of what type of cell uses this form of immunity in the body. Cell mediated immunity is when the body uses cytokines, enzymes, and phagocytosis to fight an invader. Macrophages use cell-mediated immunity.
120. What is graft rejection and why does it occur? Graft rejection is when a person receives a trans- plant from somebody else. The MHC views the trans- plant as a foreign invad- er and fights it as it would fight a pathogen.
121. Myelin Sheath

Study online at https://quizlet.com/_9631ob Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune dis- ease where the immune cells attack the .

122. A patient is admitted to the ER with hives and difficulty breathing. What is most likely hap- pening?
123. All the following are functions of the ovaries EXCEPT:
124. Which of the following statements is true con- cerning oogenesis?
125. Ovulation occurs when an egg is released from the.
126. Name the specific region of the reproductive system highlighted in blue below (also indi- cated by the arrow). Anaphylaxis Maintaining the develop- ment of a fetus The primary oocyte di- vides to produce a sec- ondary oocyte. Ovarian Follicle Fimbriae
127. This layer of the uterus contracts during labor. Myometrium
128. Which of the following statements is false con- It secretes progesterone cerning the functions of the vagina?
129. Describe the purpose of the cervix during pregnancy. to maintain pregnancy. To begin pregnancy, the cervix produces a thick flu- id that increases the vi- ability of the sperm. The cervix provides a seal to keep foreign objects from reaching the fetus. Dur- ing labor, the uterus will contract, and the baby's head will push on the mother's cervix. When the

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130. Blood tests indicate that progesterone and es- trogen levels are both increased. Your patient is most likely in what phase of the female uterine cycle?
131. Which of the following is true concerning the organs of the male reproductive system? the mother begins push- ing and delivers the baby. Secretory Phase The testes function to pro- duce sperm.
132. The join with the vas deferens seminal vesicles to form an ejaculatory duct.
133. Seminal Vesicles Secretes vitamin C Produces prostaglandins
134. Prostate Gland Secretes alkaline fluid
135. Bulbourethral glands Secretes alkaline fluid First to secrete during ejaculation
136. Testes Produces testosterone
137. Anterior Pituitary Produces LH
138. Name and discuss the purpose of the region of sperm indicated by the arrow in the figure below.
139. Discuss in detail the action of sperm needed to fertilize an egg. This is the midpiece of the sperm. It contains mi- tochondria which helps power the sperm's move- ment. The sperm are ejected into the vagina during in- tercourse. They use their flagellum tails to travel into the fallopean tubes

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140. Which of the following is true concerning hu- man cells?
141. Discuss in detail the layers of cells (of the blastocyst) which form the embryo. to join with an egg. The sperm uses the enzymes in the acrosome head to break down the corona ra- dia around the egg. Once that is broken down, one sperm will embed into the egg, and fertilization has occured. Gamete cells are haploid cells. The ectoderm forms the epidermis and the nueral tube The endoderm forms the glands, the solid organs, and the lining of the hallow organs. The mesoderm forms the cardio vascular system
142. Eyes begin to detect light and dark: 2nd trimester
143. Heart beat begins 1st trimester
144. Fingerprints develop 2nd trimester
145. Sucking reflexes established 3rd trimester
146. Fat develops under skin 3rd trimester
147. Find the steps that correctly order neurula- tion:
148. A person sustained blunt force trauma to the Ectoderm’ convergence’ neural groove ’ neural tube ’ spinal cord Yes, the kidneys lie be- back at the L1 level, with no spinal cord injury. tween the T- 12 and L- 3

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149. Describe the consistency and purpose of the renal capsule.
150. Name the layer and the parts of the nephrons located in the region highlighted in blue, be- low. The renal capsule is a tough fibrous outer skin of the kidney which protects it from injury and infection. Renal cortex the renal pyramids jut into the cor- tex
151. These arteries feed the afferent arterioles. Interlobular
152. After filtration occurs, next blood travels into these vessels.
153. Which of the following is true about the loca- tion of the bladder?
154. Discuss two features of the bladder that allow for expansion. Efferent arteriole In females, the bladder is anterior to the vagina. The bladder is made out of elastic tissue that allos for expansion, and it also contains ruggae folds that can expand.
155. This region of the male urethra exits the body. Spongy
156. What causes the extremely high blood pres- sure in the glomerular capillaries? The afferent atrioles are larger than the efferent atrioles and the pres- sure of the blood flow- ing through causes high

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157. This is the pressure that depends upon the amount of proteins in the filtrate:
158. Describe in detail what happens during an emergency to control the rate of blood to the kidney. pressure in the glomerular capillaries. Colloid Osmotic Pressure The nervous system takes over and the afferent atri- oles narrow. This caus- es epinephrene to be re- leased which in turn regu- lates the flow of blood and the GFR.
159. Which of the following statements is false con- It responds when blood cerning the RAA system? pressure becomes too high.
160. The greatest amount of occurs in the Reabsorption cells of the PCT.
161. True or False: In the loop of Henle, water can leave the descending limb but not the ascend- ing limb.
162. Which of the following is false concerning ADH?
163. Contrast the osmolarity of the PCT and the bottom of the loop of Henle. Explain why there is such a contrast.
164. Describe how aldosterone release occurs apart from the RAA system. True When ADH is in circulation dilute urine is excreted. The osmolarity in the PCT is 300 mOsm/L, and in the bottom of the loop of Hen- le it is 1200mosm/L Aldosterone can be re- leased directly in re- sponse to high K+ levels or low Na+ ion levels in the extracellular compart- ment.

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165. Describe the action of a drug that increases the rate of flow through the nephron.
166. Which of the following is false concerning car- diovascular baroreceptors?
167. Which of the following is an abnormal solute in urine?
168. Water in the body is primarily found in what body compartment? This would be a diuretic. If blood volume rises, they cause constriction of the afferent arterioles. Bile Pigment Intracellular
169. Urine with a pH of 5.0 is: within normal range; acidic
170. The chemical buffer systems: includes the bicarbonate, phosphate and protein systems.
171. Hypoventilation is a part of what control mechanism? Explain what hypoventilation ac- complishes.
172. What control mechanism can remove acids and bases from the body?
173. Your patient was just admitted to the hospital Respiratory control- If blood pH begins to rise (become more alkaline), the respiratory center is depressed, causing hy- poventilation. During hypoventilation, the respiratory rate slows down, allowing more CO2 to accumulate, forming more hydrogen ions. The pH falls (becomes more acidic) and restores cor- rect blood pH. Renal Control (Kidneys) A. Acidosis (<7.35) with renal failure. For the following questions, B. Metabolic (HCO3-<22)

Study online at https://quizlet.com/_9631ob use the blood values of: pH =7.1, PCO2 = 30 mm, HCO3- = 20 mEq/L A. Determine if the patient is in acidosis or alkalosis. B. Is the cause respiratory or metabolic? C. Is the condition being compensated? D. If compensated, what is the body doing to compensate? C. Yes (PCO2 <35) D. Hyperventilation to in- crease CO2 elimination