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AAAE ACE Operations Module 3 Exam Questions and Answers (Verified Answers) Latest Update 2023
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Ground vehicles on movement areas should be limited to what types of operations? - Correct Answers ✅Airport self-inspections, maintenance and emergencies Do part 139 restrictions governing ground vehicle and pedestrian activity apply to non-movement areas? - Correct Answers ✅No The FAA suggests what four planning meetings to discuss specifics of ground vehicular movements? - Correct Answers ✅Airside construction, emergency response, snow and ice removal, low visibility Aircraft safety is endangered by what four principle ground vehicle causes? - Correct Answers ✅increased traffic, non-standard vehicle patterns, vehicles without radios or markings, untrained operators Airports must have one of three different control mechanisms for ground vehicles at ATCT controlled airports, what are they? - Correct Answers ✅two-way radio communication is preferred; an escort with a two-way radio; method of signs, signals and/or guards
Training for personnel operating vehicles in the movement area is required how often? - Correct Answers ✅At least annually. How long are movement area driver training records kept? - Correct Answers ✅initial and recurrent training records for 24 months, although should be kept as long as a person is authorized to operate at the airport How long are movement area vehicular accident or incident records retained? - Correct Answers ✅12 months Consequences of violating any ground vehicle rules or procedures should be spelled out in the Airport Certification Manual (T/F). - Correct Answers ✅True What is the term used to describe any occurrence at an aerodrome involving the incorrect presence of an aircraft, vehicle, or person on the protected area of a surface designated for the landing and takeoff of aircraft? - Correct Answers ✅Runway incursion
Ground communications and procedures are normally outlined in an LOA between the airport and FAA; at an airport without an ATCT where can this information be found? - Correct Answers ✅Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) What frequency should ground vehicle operators monitor/use at non-ATCT airports? - Correct Answers ✅the airport's common traffic advisory frequency (CTAF) At what point does the departure leg of a normal airport traffic pattern terminate? - Correct Answers ✅At least 1/2 mile beyond the departure end of the runway and within 300ft of the traffic pattern altitude Which direction of turns is standard in an airport traffic pattern? - Correct Answers ✅Left turns What is a segmented circle and when is an airport required to have one? - Correct Answers ✅A ground marking visible to pilots that depicts the landing runway, landing direction, and traffic pattern, with a wind cone (lighted if night carrier ops) and mandated for use at certificated airports that don't have an operating ATCT.
What is the direction of turn for aircraft in a holding pattern, how long does one turn take and how much vertical separation is there from other aircraft?
Class E airspace consists of what area(s)? - Correct Answers ✅All controlled airspace that isn't already classified as A-D, normally 14,500 - 18,000' MSL. Includes federal airways, 1,200ft AGL up to but not including 18,000ft MSL Class G airspace consists of what area(s)? - Correct Answers ✅Anything not classified as controlled airspace A-E is uncontrolled G. What is the airspace where flight activities must be confined because of their nature or where limitations are imposed on aircraft operations that are not part of those operations? - Correct Answers ✅Special-use airspace What is the airspace extending outward from 3NM of the US coast that contains activity that may be hazardous to non-participating aircraft? - Correct Answers ✅Warning area What are the three requirements for a navigational system to be considered effective? - Correct Answers ✅integrity, accuracy and availability/reliability
What weather minimums are associated with a visual approach? - Correct Answers ✅1,000ft and 3SM When is a contact approach allowed? - Correct Answers ✅With at least 1 mile visibility and the pilot uses visual references when they become available What are the decision height and visibility minimums for a Cat II ILS? - Correct Answers ✅100'DH, 1,200'RVR What category and type instrument approach allows for an auto-land capability assuming the aircraft is appropriately equipped and the pilot is qualified? - Correct Answers ✅CAT IIIC ILS Is runway visual range (RVR) equipment required for a CAT I ILS? - Correct Answers ✅No, only required for CAT II and III ILS Where are RVR(s) located on an airfield for a CAT I ILS? - Correct Answers ✅Either the runway midpoint or the aiming point
Where is the glideslope antennae typically located? - Correct Answers ✅at about 1,000ft down the runway alongside the aiming point and at least 250ft on either side of the runway What are the dimensions of the glideslope critical area? - Correct Answers ✅500ft wide by 1,200ft long in front of the antennae Where is the inner marker for an ILS located? - Correct Answers ✅1,000ft short of the threshold Where is the decision height for an ILS typically located? - Correct Answers ✅At the middle marker, which is 2,000-6,000ft short of the threshold; this places an aircraft on the glidepath at 200ft What effective range is associated a terminal VOR? Low altitude VOR? - Correct Answers ✅25 NM; 40NM What are the dimensions of the VOR protection zone? - Correct Answers ✅a radius of 750 to 1,000ft around the VOR
What equipment uses a signal transmitted from the aircraft to a ground station to determine distance from the station? - Correct Answers ✅distance measuring equipment (DME) What ground-based system augments satellite coverage to allow category I GPS instrument approaches? - Correct Answers ✅Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS) What is required to allow GPS approaches to be CAT II or III? - Correct Answers ✅A local ground-based transmitter known as a Local Area Augmentation System What is the radius of the critical area around most radars? - Correct Answers ✅1,000ft What Doppler radar system, installed at various locations on an airport, provides information on windshear type, location and intensity? - Correct Answers ✅Low Level Windshear Alert System (LLWAS)
What is considered the primary weather observing system in the U.S.? - Correct Answers ✅Automated Surface Observing System (ASOS) / Automated Weather Sensor System (AWSS) What are the basic components of an ASOS? - Correct Answers ✅sensors; data collection/processing units; and peripherals/displays What sensors are part of the ASOS suite? - Correct Answers ✅cloud height, visibility, precipitation, freezing rain, pressure, temperature, dew point, wind direction/speed, rain accumulation What has FAA and the National Weather Service determined to be Service Level D for airports? - Correct Answers ✅ASOS only What has FAA and the National Weather Service determined to be Service Level C for airports? - Correct Answers ✅An ASOS with a human observer augmenting that ASOS data
What has FAA and the National Weather Service determined to be Service Level B for airports? - Correct Answers ✅Level C plus augmented data beyond ASOS capability What has FAA and the National Weather Service determined to be Service Level A for airports? - Correct Answers ✅Level B plus additional specified requirements According to FAA what must occur if something is determined to be an obstruction to air navigation? - Correct Answers ✅it must be removed, marked or lighted When does proposed alterations or construction require notice to the FAA using Form 7460-1? - Correct Answers ✅greater than 200ft AGL; near or on a public or military airport, heliport or seaplane base; a traverse way that exceeds standards; requested by the FAA When is an object considered near a public use airport with a runway longer than 3,200ft? - Correct Answers ✅within 20,000ft; notice required if it exceeds a slope of 100:
What surface starts at the perimeter of the horizontal surface and continues upward at a slope of 20:1 for a horizontal distance of 4,000ft? - Correct Answers ✅The conical surface What conclusions may FAA draw from a Part 77 study? - Correct Answers ✅obstruction is a hazard to air navigation; the object or activity is objectionable; the need exists to alter, remove or light the object; the plan is approved; the proposal would have an adverse impact on the safe and efficient use of navigable airspace; a change in operational procedure is feasible or required Does the FAA have the authority to stop construction or alteration? - Correct Answers ✅No. That right is reserved for local authorities. However the FAA may choose to change airspace or approach minimums based on the activity or obstacle.