AAAE CERTIFIED MEMBER EXAM 2024-2025 ACTUAL EXAM 200 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWER, Exams of Business Administration

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AAAE CERTIFIED MEMBER EXAM 2024-2025 ACTUAL EXAM 200 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (VERIFIED ANSWERS) The AAAE Certified Member Modules are materials airport managers can use as... - Airport regulation - Airport case Law - Final authoritative documents - A daily reference and field guide A daily reference and field guide Which statement is False? - Each Airport has its own unique geography - it is impossible to accurately capture how each public-use airport in the US operates at all levels of its position - When you've seen one airport, you've seen one airport - Each airport has the same operating characteristics Each airport has the same operating characteristics When using the term "Airport Sponsor", the authors of the AAAE modules are referring to the... - Airport director - Governing body - Federal Aviation Administration - Airport management Governing body An airport has many customers, however, the airport must serve the... - Community - Stakeholders - Pilot - Airlines Pilot In 1970, The Airport and Airway Development Act brought about all except the following - Airport and Airway Trust Fund - Planning Grant Program (PGP) - Airport Development Aid Program (ADAP) - National Plan of Integrated Airport Systems (NPIAS) National Plan of Integrated Airport Systems (NPIAS) (T/F) The FAA does not include in its planning or funding decision-making any private airports unless they are publicly accessible or military airports that do not host any civilian operations. True The National Plan of integrated Airport Systems (NPIAS) identifies 3,345 public-use airports that are important to the national air transportation system and eligible to receive grant funds under the FAA Airport Improvement Program (AIP). An airport can be included in the NPIAS for all of the following reasons except... - GA reliever airport - Serving a community that is at least 15 minutes from the nearest NIPIAS airport - Publicly owned - Part of a State Airport System Serving a community that is at least 15 minutes from the nearest NPIAS airport Commercial service airports are grouped into two major categories - National and Regional - Civilian and Military Can be viewed as another department of the City/County The debate over the status of the airport as either a public entity or a business enterprise will likely continue for decades, but the simplest understanding is that... - An airport is a government entity run by elected officials - An airport is a Department of Transportation sub-organization - An airport is a public entity that is run like a business - An airport is an enterprise fund with many departments An airport is a public entity that is run like a business The most common positions at an airport that are outside of the vertical structure are the - Finance and administration personnel - Operations and maintenance positions - Legal counsel and auditor - Certification inspector and regulator Legal counsel and auditor The terrorist attacks of Sept. 11, 2001 resulted in the Aviation and Transportation Security Act of 2001 moving the airport and aircraft operator security regulations from the FAA to the newly created - Transportation Security Administration - Civil Aviation Office - Dept. of Homeland Security - National Transportation Security Board Transportation Security Administration As a new airport manager trying to inventory all applicable airport laws, and regulations, he or she be careful not to omit which form of hidden regulation? - FARs - FAA orders - Cert. Alerts - Grant Assurances Grant Assurances The Flight Standards District Office, commonly known as FSDO, is responsible for - Food safety on the concourses - Flow of air traffic and NAVAID maintenance - Enforcing laws for aircraft and pilot certification and licensing - Regulating all aviation safety in the US Enforcing laws for aircraft and pilot certification and licensing Federal Grant Assurances require the airport operator to do all of the following except: - Operate the airport in the public interest - Use specific lands approved by the FAA for non-aeronautical use to generate revenue to support the airport's aviation needs - Grant exclusive rights for aeronautical purposes or uses - Maintain the airport in good and serviceable condition Grant exclusive rights for aeronautical purposes or uses If the FAA or an aeronautical user believes that the airport is in violation of its Grant Assurances, it may file a complaint with the FAA through the Part 13 or Part 16 process. Part 13 complaints are... - Considered informal - Handled with definitive timelines - submitted straight to FAA headquarters - Typically used for Grant Assurance Violations Considered Informal (T/F) The Federal government has complete authority over airspace and aircraft operations. True Airport land use is critical component of airport management. Grant Assurance 5. Preserving Rights and Powers prevents an airport Sponsor from taking any action that may deprive the Airport Sponsor of its rights to - Charge fees consistent with the sustainability rule - Create jobs and payroll - Direct and control airport development - Regulate interstate commerce Direct and control airport development (T/F) The FAA Grant Assurances require the Airport Executive to attempt to prevent both incompatible land use and obstructions to the navigable airspace around the airport even it it's beyond the airports property boundaries True The airport property map does all of the following except - Show funding source used to acquire tracts - Show proposed airport development - Indicate use of land - Indicate how tracts were acquired Show proposed airport development Defending the airport from incompatible off-airport land use starts with which document? - Airport Master Plan - ALD Drawing - Airport Rules and Regulations - "Exhibit A" Property Map Airport Master Plan While the FAA has traditionally opposed residential land use on and around airports, all of the following are allowable except - Aircraft rescue and fire fighting facilities with 24-hour coverage requirement - Finance manager sleeping room during single-audit - Temporary pilot or crew rest facilities - Air ambulance operations Finance manager sleeping room during single-audit Kansas State University's Polytechnic Campus is an "off-airport" entity and is a perfect example of a - Non-aeronautical user - Through-the-fence-operator The Airport and Airway Improvement Act of 1982 requires airports to be as self-sustaining as possible. Self-sustaining means - The airport has built up large revenue surpluses - The airport does not accept federal or state grant monies for capital projects - The airport fees are fair and reasonable - The airport relies only on its revenue streams for operational expenses The airport relies only on its revenue streams for operational expenses The FAA's Rates and Charges Policy provides comprehensive guidance on the legal requirement that airport fees be (select all that apply) - Not unjustly discriminatory - Reasonable - Sweetheart deal - Fair Not unjustly discriminatory, Reasonable, Fair Fair market fees for use of the airport are required for non-aeronautical use of the airport and are - Required for non-airfield aeronautical use - Optional for non-airfield aeronautical use Optional for non-airfield aeronautical use The Airport Sponsor would not need to recieve Fair Market Value (FMV) if it leased property to which of the following - Corporation - Limited Liability Company - Angel Flights - Sole Propietorship Angel Flights The residual method of rates and charges setting can best be described as - The airport applies excess non-aeronautical revenue to the airfield costs to reduce air carrier fees. - A hybrid between a compensatory and rate-based method - The airport is required to make sure the expenses do not exceed the revenue received - The airport assumes all liability for airport costs and retains all airport revenue and the user is charged only for the cost of the aeronautical facility The airport applies excess non-aeronautical revenue to the airfield costs to reduce air carrier fees. (T/F) The FAA will not allow airport improvement program grant funding to be used for Value Engineered projects False There are many IT systems at airports. All the systems below are examples of common IT systems at airports except - Airfield lighting - Flight information Displays - Majority-of-interest (MII) - Property and Asset Management Systems Majority-of-interest (MII) Most will agree that a __________ year lease, is a life-time lease - 75 - 99 - 65 - 35 99 A current trend in airport concessions at medium to large-hub airports are the - Duty-free shops - Local Mom & Pop Shops - Self-serve coffee shops - Shopping center and/or brand-name concessions Shopping center and/or brand-name concessions All of the following are common types of lease agreements except - Modified gross - Straight - Revaluation - Graduated - Percentage Modified gross There are 3 basic approaches to leasing concession space. Under the standard approach, the airport management directly leases and manages the space. With this method - Does not benefit from larger share of revenues if successful - Assumes no risk - The airport assumes the risk and will benefit from a larger portion of the revenue if the concession is successful - Shares the risk equally with a development company The airport assumes the risk and will benefit from a larger portion of the revenue if the concession is successful Airports are capital intensive facilities. Select all the most common ways airport sponsors can generate monies for capital projects - PFC's - Customer Facility Charges - Bonds - Bank operating loan PFC's, Customer Facility Charges, Bonds Passenger Facility Charges are - Unlimited ticket taxes set by each airport - Levied on commercial airline tickets - Collected by the airport FBO - Collected by charter operators and remitted to the airport sponsors Levied on commercial airline tickets A common activity on airport is "self-fueling". This process means the aircraft owner - Uses a fuel from renewable energy source - Operates an FBO - Does not have to pay the airport sponsor a fuel flowage fee _ Obtains and uses fuel from the source of his/her preference Which of the following are the primary areas of an airport (check all that apply) - Roadside - Landside - Terminal - Airside Landside, Terminal, Airside Grant Assurance #29 (Airport Layout Plan) requires that the Airport Sponsor keep the Airport Layout Plan updated at all times. The primary functions of the ALP include all the following except - Blueprint for airport development - Necessary for the airport to receive AIP funding - Public document that serves as a record of aeronautical requirements - Depicts aviation forecast demands Depicts aviation forecast demands (T/F) A standard Airport Layout Plan is comprised of one or two sketches. False The ALP becomes a legal document after it is approved and signed by the - Transportation Security Administration - Airport Sponsor governing body - Federal Aviation Administration - State Department of Transportation Federal Aviation Administration The FAA ADO office can make the following type of changes on the ALP if they are minor in scope. - Draft watermarked - Pen-and-Ink - Penciled in - Preliminary Pen-and-Ink The FAA provides for which three levels of ALP approval (select all three) - Unqualified - Unconditional - Conditional - Mixed Unconditional, Conditional, Mixed The FAA defines "near-term" as a project that is - Ripe for decision - Shovel-ready - Is designed with plans on the shelf - Ready within 1 year Ripe for decision Airport sponsors keep pilots up-to-date on airport data and information using the following means (check all that apply) - 7460-1 - NPIAS - NOTAMs - Airport Facility Directory NOTAMs, Airport Facility Directory The projects listed in the NPIAS fall into which three general categories of work. (Select all 3) - Physical Component - Purpose - Airspace - Type of work Type of work, Physical Component, Purpose (T/F) The Airport Master Plan can set forth the direction of the airport for one to two decades. True (T/F) An Airport Sponsor completed a Master Plan 6 years ago and has been following the program, including the capital improvement projects as outlined in the plan. A new opportunity emerged that is not in the Master Plan or on the approved ALP. The Sponsor should not be surprised when the project is not immediately eligible for AIP funding. True The FAA _____________ the Forecast and Airport Layout Plan as part of the Airport Master Plan. - Produces - Approves - Drafts - Accepts Approves When planning improvements to an airport, it is necessary to select one or more "Design Aircraft". Generally, the Design Aircraft is a composite aircraft representing a collection of aircraft classified by which three parameters? (Select all 3) - Airplane Design Group (ADG) - Taxiway Edge Safety Margin (TESM) - Taxiway Design Group (TDG) - Aircraft Approach Category (AAC) Airplane Design Group (ADG), Taxiway Design Group (TDG), Aircraft Approach Category (AAC) Airports can be divided into 3 major areas. Which is not considered a major area? - Terminal - Landside - Airside - Movement Area Movement Area (T/F) The Movement Area generally corresponds to those areas that are under the positive control of ATCT. True All of the following are basic types of approaches except - Precision - Missed - Non-precision - Visual Select the three categories of passengers - Non-revenue passengers - Leisure travelers - Business travelers - International travelers Leisure travelers, Business travelers, International travelers Airports can be classified by the dominant type of passenger traffic. Origination / Destination (O&D) airports can best be described as having - An average of 30-60 minutes of aircraft ground servicing time - A low requirement for departure lounge space, curb frontage, ticketing, security, and baggage handling facilities - 70-90% of passengers beginning or ending their travel at the airport and requiring maximum handling services for checking and claiming baggage - A high percentage of originating passengers combined with a low percentage of originating flights 70-90% of passengers beginning or ending their travel at the airport and requiring maximum handling services for checking and claiming baggage Non-point (NPS) pollution is commonly associated with runoff from - Aircraft de-icing operations - ARFF used in aircraft rescue and firefighting - Agriculture - Airport vehicle maintenance Agriculture Short-term parking at commercial service airports is typically classified as - 1 hour or less and accounts for 30% of traffic - 30 minutes or less and accounts for 75% of traffic - Three hours or less and may account for 80% of traffic - 20 minutes or less and accounts for 80% of traffic Three hours or less and may account for 80% of traffic All of the following are types of ticket and baggage check-in facilities except - Pre-check - Pass-through - Linear - Island Pre-check The primary disadvantage of a pier layout is - Reduced vehicle curb space - Minimal use of airside space to construct gates - Decentralized passenger processing - Longer walking distances for passengers Longer walking distances for passengers The best way to characterize wayfinding signage in an airport environment is - It's a self-guided journey - It's reliant on airport employee participation - A non-critical component in the passenger experience - The hunger games It's a self-guided journey The consequences of failing to comply with environmental law on an airport can range from delayed construction to - Criminal charges - Grant assurance violations - Loss of part 139 certification - Reduced AIP participation Criminal charges The FAA has determined that some projects, by their very nature will not, or very unlikely to have an environmental impact. These projects are considered ____________________________as it relates to the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA). - Categorically excluded - unable to meet environmental law obligations - To be approved without further documentation - Immaterial to the project as a whole Categorically excluded Should a sponsor no longer need a parcel of land located within the federally obligated portions of the airport and on the Exhibit A property map, the sponsor will be required to obtain - An FAA release - A Categorical exclusion - A VALE credit - An approval for non-aeronautical use An FAA release (T/F) Airport owners and operators can be forced to assume liability for cleanup of contamination on the property returned to them through a tenant bankruptcy. True The FIS system employed at most international airports which provides separate immigration and customs checkpoints is the - Red-green - Custom Accelerated Passenger Inspection Services (CAPIS) - One-stop - Federal Inspection Services Custom Accelerated Passenger Inspection Services (CAPIS) The government has established airways that are divided into which two types? (Above and Below 18,000') - Restricted - Victor Airways - Jet Routes - Unrestricted Victor Airways, Jet Routes "Close calls" between aircraft flying on instrument flight plans and aircraft flying using VFRs led to the creation of - Alert Areas - Transition areas - VOR - GPS - Glideslope - Localizer VOR The major shift with NextGen includes a migration from radar to - Satellite-based Tracking - ADSB Separation - Radio Tracking - Beacon Tracking Satellite-based Tracking When analyzing airfield capacity, an airport manager should be familiar with both terms commonly used when defining capacity. - Practical - Differential - Throughput - Peak-hour Practical, Throughput __________________________is designed to match the arrival of an aircraft to the ability of the airport to handle the volume. - Spacing - Sequencing - Metering - Slotting Metering After the FAA approves the sponsor's Airport Certification Manual (ACM), it becomes - Guidance - Operation's manual - Maintenance planner - Regulation Regulation If an airfield discrepancy is identified, which of the following must occur? - Airport operations must conduct a special inspection - Discrepancy resolves before any aircraft operations occur. - Noncompliance reported to the FAA ADO office - Discrepancy reported to FAA Part 139 inspector Discrepancy resolved before any aircraft operations occur. Aircraft accidents investigate by the NTSB generally show that the accident occurred because of a... - Chain of events - Pavement issue - FAR Part 139 violation - Single preventable event Chain of events The Implementation of a _______________________ program aids in the management of safety risk through a systematic process of procedures, practices and polices. - ACN/PCN - Safety Management Program - NPRM - Airport Certification Safety Management Program A class IV airport under the classification for airport certification is defined as - Scheduled operations of small air carrier and unscheduled operations of large air carrier - Small air carrier aircraft only - Serving unschedule large air carrier aircraft - All types of scheduled operations Serving unscheduled large air carrier aircraft Airports that are operated by the military and allow commercial air carrier operations in addition to military operations are considered - Exceptions to Part 139 - Shared-use - Military base - Joint-use Shared-use For exemptions to ARFF requirements under FAR Part 139, the airport must enplane - Less than 2,500 annual enplanements - Less than 10,000 annual enplanements - < 4% of total US annual enplanements - < 1/4% of total US annual enplanements < 1/4% of total annual enplanements During an airport emergency, an airport sponsor may be in a situation whereby they break a Part 139 regulation. This is referred to as a - Discrepancy - Exemption - Violation - Deviation Deviation (T/F) Inspections for FAR 139 purposes can be assigned to individual air carriers or tenants of the sponsor. True A successful self-inspection program should include all of the following components (Select all that apply) - Periodic condition inspections - Regularly scheduled inspections - NOTAM inspections - Special inspections - Continuous Surveillance inspections Periodic condition inspections, Regularly scheduled inspections, Special inspections, Continuous surveillance inspections The longest air carrier aircraft with an average of five or more daily departures An airport's Aircraft Rescue and Firefighting capability is referred to as an - Index - Class - Code - Alert level Index There are 4 categories of runway incursions. Category A is considered a serious incident as a result of - Ample time to avoid collision - A near collision - Incorrect presence of vehicle in the movement area - A critical evasive response A near collision (T/F) All Part 139 airports must conduct a Wildlife Hazard Assessment (WHA) True Wildlife control is based on which two approaches - Monitoring and harassment - Harassment and lethal force - Habitat modification and active control - Lethal and non-lethal force Habitat modification and active control The effectiveness of an airport emergency plan is highly dependent on three critical elements. (Select all 3) - Protective Actions - Control - Command - Communication Control, Command, Communication Exceptional events that require actions and/or capabilities beyond those considered unusual by an airport operator are referred to as - Irregular operations - Discrepancies - Deviations - Diversions Irregular operations A key role of terminal operations is to keep passengers moving safely and efficiently towards their destination. However, airports should also strive to make sure their passengers have a pleasant experience at the airport. Research shows that happy customers - Spend more money at the airport, thus increasing nonaeronautical revenue - Improve the airline's bottom line by enrolling in frequent flier programs - Are compliant and can increase the overall flow of passengers - Influence friends and family to utilize the airport Spend more money at the airport, thus increasing non-aeronautical revenue As airport executives consider the customer experience, they must take into account which two primary types of customers? - Domestic and Foreign - External and Internal - Airline and Concessionaire - Airline and Rental Car External and Internal The FAA now classifies drones weighing ______ lbs or less and used by a hobbyist as "model aircraft". - 55 - 500 - 75 - 100 55 (T/F) The terms Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV) and Unmanned Aerial System (UAS) have the same meaning when referring to vehicles that are remotely piloted. False Title 14 FAR Part 107 Operation and Certification of Small Unmanned Aircraft Systems outlines the requirements for small unmanned aircraft in the NAS. Part 107 will allow operations of small drones without a COA provided the operator has a - UAS License - Remote Pilot Airmen Certificate - ATP - Private pilot's license Remote Pilot Airmen Certificate To operate a large UAV in civil airspace a Certificate of Authorization (COA) is required by the FAA. In most circumstances, the COA will require the following three people (select all three). - Air Traffic Controller - Pilot-in-Command - Visual Observer - Ground Control Operator Pilot-in-Command, Visual Observer, Ground Control Operator All commercial service airports in the US must designate a/an ________________________________________under Title 49 CFR Part 1542. This individual is the primary contact for the federal government for security issues at the airport. - Federal Security Director - Trusted Agent - Airport Security Coordinator - Transportation Security Officer Airport Security Coordinator The _________________________________ is to airport security as the Airport Certification Manual is to airfield operations. - Playbook - Airport Emergency Plan ___________________ provided the basis for noise abatement planning at airports. - AICUZ - The Airport Safety and Noise Abatement Act (ASNA) of 1979 - FAR Part 161 - Airport Noise Control and Land Use Compatibility Program - FAR Part 150 The Airport Safety and Noise Abatement Act (ASNA) of 1979 Under Part 150, residential land uses are considered to be compatible with noise levels less than ___________________. - 65 db DNL - 65 CNEL - 65 SENL - 65 dBA 65 db DNL Opinions differ regarding the best method for analyzing and quantifying the effects of noise on a community__________________________. - Because of the general sensitivity to noise - Because of the perceived economic importance of the noise source - Because of the subjective nature of how noise is perceived by listeners - Because of the belief that aircraft noise is preventable Because of the subjective nature of how noise is perceived by listeners If a person adjusts a stereo to 70 decibels as a comfortable and normal sound, a listener raising it to 80 decibels would perceive the sound as being - Twice as loud - Four times as loud - Ten times as loud - One hundred times as loud Twice as loud ___________________is the national standard used by airports in the preparation of Part 150 studies. - Daily DNL - Yearly DNL - Hourly DNL - Hourly SEL Yearly DNL ____________________________is most appropriate if there are significant amounts of noise- affected incompatible land use, receipt of serious noise complaints, property acquisition for buffer zones, or introduction of major changes in airport facilities or operations that are likely to shift or increase noise patterns. - A Part 150 study - Community sponsored hearings - Publication in local newspapers of proposed changes in flight paths - A class action lawsuit A Part 150 study What is the most effective control measure for reducing noise impact? - Exercising imminent domain - Soundproofing residences within the 65 DNL contour - Acquisition of noise easements for noise sensitive property - Land acquisition Land acquisition Who is responsible for carrying out the strategic policy of an airport? - Airport Board of Directors - Elected Officials - Airport Executive - Governing Body Airport Executive A ______________________is a written motion adopted by a vote of the governing body of an airport. - LOA - MOU - Resolution - Meeting Minutes Resolution (T/F) Governing bodies and airport managers must strive to find a balanced approach to public participation in policy making. Some municipalities are so open they can create an environment whereby progress is stymied to the point of stagnation. True Candidates in the AAE program can achieve the designation by completing which 3 processes? (Select all 3). - Oral interview - Management paper or proof of advance degree - 180 multiple choice exam - ACE examination Oral interview, Management paper or proof of advance degree, 180 multiple choice exam Most airport directors/managers are ______________________________, - Independent contractors - Elected - Appointed - Both a manager and part of the board Appointed An example of an item for consideration under the "Consent Agenda" might include - 10-year hangar lease - Grant agreement acceptance - Land acquisition - Meeting minutes Meeting minutes _________________________________is the nation's largest civilian clearinghouse for security threat assessments and criminal history records checks. - Airport Cooperative Research Program (ACRP) - Metropolis - Urban airport - Aerotropolis Aerotropolis (T/F) It can be expected that airport regulations currently in existence will be amplified and increased for space operations. True (T/F) Airport concession operations are permitted before and after the security checkpoint. True Under which legislative act was the Air Safety Board, Office of the Administrator, and the CAA created? - Civil Aeronautics Act of 1938 - Reorganization Act of 1940 - Federal Airports Act of 1946 - Air Commerce Act of 1926 Civil Aeronautics Act of 1938 The legislative act that increased the cap on the passenger facility charge (PFC) from $3.00 to $4.50 was the - Aviation Noise and Capacity Act of 1990 - Aviation Investment and Reform Act of the 21st Century or AIR-21 - Re-authorization Act of 1996 - Vision 100 Re-authorization Act Aviation Investment and Reform ACT of the 21st Century or AIR-21 The economic activity associated with the dollars spent at the airport and in the community by airport patrons who use the airport, and activity generated from businesses that have chosen to locate in a community because the airport is integral to their operation is referred to as... - Direct Impact - Indirect Impact - Induced Impact - Implied Impact Indirect Impact The airspace around medium size airports that extends from the surface to 4,000 feet AGL is called... - Class B Airspace - Class C Airspace - Airport Traffic Area - Terminal Control Area (TCA) Class C Airspace Airport traffic patterns are established to maintain visual separation and provide orderliness for aircraft using an airport. Which one of the following most accurately describes the normal traffic pattern? - Right-hand turns, upwind leg, crosswind leg, parallel leg, base leg, and approach leg - Left-hand turns, upwind leg, crosswind leg, downwind leg, base leg, and final leg - Right-hand turns, upwind leg, crosswind leg, downwind leg, base leg, and final leg - Left-hand turns, windward leg, crosswind leg, downwind leg, base leg, and final leg Left-hand turns, upwind leg, crosswind leg, downwind leg, base leg, and final leg The options available to airport managers to address the results of an FAR Part 77 study include all of the following except... - Raise the approach minimum decent altitude (MDA) - Relocate the runway threshold - Lower the approach minimums and visibility requirements - Remove the encroaching object Lower the approach minimums and visibility requirements The imaginary surface located 150' above runway elevation that accommodates circle to land and missed approach procedures is the_______________________________. - Conical Surface - Horizontal Surface - Primary Surface - Transitional Surface Horizontal Surface The area under the innermost portion of the approach surface is the_______________. - Runway Protection Zone (RPZ) - Protected Approach Area (PAA) - Runway Safety Area (RSA) - Runway Safety Zone (RSZ) Runway Protection Zone (RPZ) The ______________ is the primary agency responsible for the nationwide enforcement of environmental regulations, including enforcement of these regulations at airports. - Federal Office of Environmental Compliance - U.S. Army Corps of Engineers - U.S. Environmental Protection Agency - State Department of Environmental Protection U.S. Environmental Protection Agency Preparation of an Environmental Impact Statement for AIP projects undertaken at airports in accordance with the NEPA is the responsibility of ____________________. - The Federal Aviation Administration - An environmental engineering firm selected by the airport sponsor and approved by the FAA - The Environmental Protection Agency - The airport sponsor The Federal Aviation Administration ___________________ provided the basis for noise abatement planning at airports. - FAR Part 150 - Airport Noise Control and Land Use Compatibility Program - FAR Part 161 - The Airport Safety and Noise Abatement Act (ASNA) of 1979 The Airport Safety and Noise Abatement Act (ASNA) of 1979 Which of the following acts requires employers on federal construction projects to pay wages that are at, or above, the level determined by the Department of Labor to be prevalent in the geographic area? - The Copeland Anti-Kickback Act - The Davis-Bacon Act - The Contract Work Hours and Safety Standard Act - The Fair Labor Standards Act The Davis-Bacon Act A key advantage of a ___________________is that it can typically be issued at a lower interest rate than can other types of bonds, because of the community's guarantee. - Exempt facility bond - Airport revenue bond - General obligation bond - Industrial development bond General obligation bond A/An _________________ can be issued by a municipality or other governmental unit to finance facilities that are then leased to the private entity user at a rental equal to the debt service and for a term equal to the maturity of the securities. - Industrial development bond - Exempt facility bond - Airport revenue bond - General obligation bond Industrial development bond The technical expertise required to produce an Airport Master Plan is usually provided by - The FAA - The state transportation department - A consulting firm - The regional transportation authority A consulting firm On the Airport Layout Plan airport management is required to keep up-to-date the property lines; the location and nature of all existing and proposed facilities and structures and the location of all existing and proposed non-aviation areas and improvements in accordance with ____________________________. - The airport master plan - The ALP Grant Assurance 29 - FAR Part 77 - Form 7460-1 The ALP Grant Assurance 29 A _______________________ is a rectangular area off the departure end of a runway that is cleared or suitable for use in lieu of a runway to satisfy a pilot's requirement for having a specified takeoff distance for his or her aircraft. - Declared distance - Stopway - Clearway - Displaced threshold Clearway In the master planning process, the ALP becomes a legal document because_________________. - The ALP is approved and signed by the FAA - The FAA approves the master plan which contains the ALP - The airport's attorney has signed it - Non of these because the FAA does NOT approve ALP's The ALP is approved and signed by the FAA The __________________ type airport is characterized by a relatively high percentage of originating passengers combined with a low percentage of originating flights, short ground times, and the flights are justified by the addition of enplanements feeding from an originating point. - Through - Hub - Transfer - O&D Through The ________________ terminal design is characterized by a single level structure where access to aircraft is afforded by a walk across the aircraft parking apron - Simple terminal - Transporter terminal - Central terminal - Satellite terminal Simple terminal Since 1995, federal law has required airport management seeking funding for pavement rehabilitation or reconstruction to have a ____________________ in place as a grant assurance - Pavement Overlay System - Pavement Management System - Pavement Maintenance Program - Pavement Inspection Program Pavement Maintenance Program Identify the type of rigid pavement joint. - Contraction Joint - Spacer Joint - Isolation Joint - Construction Joint Isolation Joint Which legislative act was passed to promote the development and stability of commercial aviation, and provide the industry with the assistance and legal basis necessary for its growth? Air Commerce Act of 1926 Under which legislative act was the Air Safety Board, Office of the Administrator, and C.A.A. (Civil Aviation Authority) created? Civil Aeronautics Act of 1938 A pledge by the airport operator to impose fees and charges sufficient to pay all costs of operation, maintenance, and debt service and to maintain all reserve funds at their required level is known as a __________. Rate covenant Under ADAP (), _________ grants are those apportioned to commercial service airports for eligible projects according to the number of enplaning passengers at the airport. Entitlement Which of the following is NOT an eligible use of discretionary funds? Hangars and revenue producing parking lots. A __________ airport is an airport having more than 10,000 annual enplanements. Primary A document that conveys the FAA's intention to obligate AIP funds to an airport over a multi-year period, provided that congressional authorization and appropriations are made is called a __________. Letter of Intent The FAA's __________, created in 1990, is a need-based five-year plan of funding for airport planning and development projects under which airport safety and security projects are accorded the highest priority in AIP investments. ACIP () __________ specifically address an airport's responsibilities during a project and establish continuing obligations for a period of up to 20 years, or for the useful life of the facilities developed or the equipment acquired. Grant assurances Which one of the following is among the risks in using PFC solely for the backing of bond issues? The airport's failure to implement the identified project within a specified number of years resulting in the FAA's termination of the airport's PFC collection rights. The __________ is a 10-year plan continually updated and published by the FAA that lists public- use airports and their development programs and identifies needs considered to be in the national interest and eligible for federal assistance. NPIAS The __________ airport category contains the largest number of commercial service airports but accounts for only about 3 percent of all enplanements in the United States. Non-hub Linking spatial data to attribute data to give users a visual representation of the information such as schedules, budget information, site surveys, inspections results, databases and flight schedules is accomplished by using a __________. GIS With regard to consultant contracts, which one is the most often used for master planning projects? Fixed-price contract External factors included in an aviation demand forecast would consider all except: Local attitude toward airport management. Which of the following would NOT be part of an invitation to submit information (RFP or RFQ) for a consulting firm to update an Airport Master Plan? A request for preliminary estimate of costs The type of agreement between the airport operator and the consultant preparing an FAA funded master plan that is not allowed by the FAA is the __________. Cost plus percentage of cost Modifications to the NPIAS tie airport system improvements to three levels of need that do NOT include which of the following? Rehabilitate the system The Technical expertise required to produce an Airport Master Plan is usually provided by: A consulting Firm Historical operations data for United States air carrier departures at towered airports are obtained from: FAA Air Traffic Activity Reports. The criteria for inclusion in the NPIAS include all of the following except __________. That it serves a community that is at least a one hour drive from the nearest small hub or non-hub airport. All development carried out on federally obligated airports must be accomplished according to an FAA approved: Airport Layout Plan (ALP) __________, Notice of Construction, Alteration, Activation and Deactivation of Airports, requires airport owners and operators to notify the FAA 30 days in advance of any construction, alteration, deactivation or changes in use of any airport. FAR Part 157 On the Airport Layout Plan, airport management is required to keep up-to-date the property lines; the location and nature of all existing and proposed facilities and structures and the location of all existing and proposed non-aviation areas and improvements in accordance with __________ the ALP Grant Assurance (Number 29) The __________ of the ALP is to provide airport management with a plan for leasing revenue producing areas on the airport, and also provides guidance to local planning commissions for the establishment of appropriate airport-area zoning. Land-use drawing A __________ diagram shows the percentage of time the wind blows from a particular direction and at a particular speed. This information helps in identifying the orientation of runways. Windrose Airport terminal facilities are planned on the basis of forecast passenger and aircraft movement activity, which may be found in all of the following except __________. The current airport Land Use and Noise Compatibility Plan A ___________ terminal has the aircraft gates located at the end of a long concourse or connecting Automated People Mover system (APM) rather than being spaced along the concourse. Satellite Any building constructed with federal financial assistance after July 14, 1993, must be designed and constructed in accordance with FAA approved __________ standards. Seismic The __________ was issued in 1991 to ensure that buildings, facilities, and vehicles covered by the law are accessible to individuals with disabilities in terms of architecture and design, transportation, and communication. Americans with Disabilities Act accessibility guidelines Smaller commercial service airports having __________ are not required to provide boarding assistance devices for disabled passengers. Fewer than 10,000 annual enplanements The FAA has the statutory authority, originally approved by Congress in the Airport and Airways Development of 1970, to issue Airport Operating Certificates (AOCs) to airports serving certain air carriers and to establish minimum airport safety standards. This has been codified in __________ CFR 14 Part 139 All certificated airports must prepare and operate under a __________ approved by the FAA, and structured to help an airport comply with the statutory requirements. Airport Certification Manual (ACM) Although deviations are permitted in circumstances that primarily emanate from an aircraft emergency, any deviation from Federal Aviation Regulations requires that Airport Management inform the FAA not later than __________ after the occurence. 14 days Since 1995, federal law has required airport management seeking funding for pavement rehabilitation or reconstruction to have a __________ in place as a grant assurance condition. Pavement Management System Persons conducting self-Inspections of the airport must have initial and recurrent training on the self-inspection program in a number of areas. All training records for inspectors must be kept for a __________ month period. 24- The simplest means of evaluating pavement condition is __________. Records and site inspection The __________ is a numerical rating of pavement surface condition along the entire length and width of the pavement and is reported as part of the Airport Safety Data Program using FAA Form 5010, Airport Master Record. Pavement Condition Index __________ occurs when a thin film of oil, grease, dirt, rubber particles, or a smooth runway having water or other liquid on the surface make the surface more slippery preventing a tire from making positive contact with the pavement and resulting in skidding. Viscous Hydroplaning Mechanical or electrical __________ are used primarily to assess friction properties of runways during winter operations. They are normally placed or mounted inside the inspection vehicle. Decelerometers __________ is an organized effort to evaluate airport projects for the purpose of achieving the lowest life-cycle cost consistent with obtaining the required levels of safety, quality , and performance. Value Engineering Distance remaining signs are placed along the runway at intervals of __________ feet. These signs have white numbers on a black background. 1000 A series of white or yellow markers arranged in a circle, with a wind indicator inside, to help pilot identify important landing pattern and wind direction information is called a __________ Segmented circle Which congressional act required the FAA to establish performance standards for security workers at airports and to develop guidelines to reduce the high rate of employee turnover. The Aviation Security and Anti-Terrorism Act of 1996 Under ATSA, the TSA issued rules, many of which were security related and were transferred from the FARs. These were codified within Title __________ of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 49 The development and maintenance of the airport security program and corrective action when the facility is found in noncompliance with any section in Part 1542 is the responsibility of the __________ Airport security coordinator The secured area, air operations area (AOA) and SIDA are areas that must be controlled and monitored, and are defined by the TSA by the term __________ Restricted areas The __________ includes the aircraft movement area, aircraft parking areas, loading ramps, safety areas, and adjacent areas (such as GA) that are not separated by adequate security systems, measures, or procedures. Air operations area (AOA) A mandatory __________ is issued by the TAS when it determines that more security measures are needed to respond to a threat assessment or to a specific threat against civil aviation. Security Directive The term used to describe the use of communication to influence or motivate others to get the job done effectively and efficiently is __________ Leadership A/An __________ is system of computer hardware and software, data, people, organizations, institutional methods and procedures for collecting, storing, extracting, analyzing, and disseminating information on the solving of simple and complex planning and management problems. GIS The believe that employees should be encouraged to exercise independent judgment within the bounds of their delegated authority and defined jobs can be attributed to __________ Henri Fayol Intended to be the most ideal and efficient form of organization __________ is characterized by division of labor, organizational rules and procedures, impersonality of interpersonal relationships as a mode of standard operation, and employment and advancement on the basis of technical competence. Bureaucracy management theory The __________ is a computerized arrow diagram or network, developed by the DuPont Company in the mid-fifties, for the functions of planning and controlling. Critical Path Method The application of mathematical models such as statistical sampling, queuing theory, linear programming to solving problems would be characteristic of __________ The Management Science Approach Social and technical systems refer to the identification of man's social needs and the tools or techniques used to accomplish the job, and the optimization of both for effective organizational performance. This is the integrative theory developed by __________ Trist Roles are characteristics and expected social behaviors of an individual in a particular job __________ identified ten roles grouped in three categories: interpersonal, informational, and decisional when performing the five management functions. Mintzberg Crucial factors such as attractiveness, interpersonal skills, and popularity determine whether a person would be a good leader is characteristic of the __________ Leader Trait Approach A _________ organization is one that stresses individual responsibility yet combines collective decision-making, slow evaluation and promotion, long-term employment, and a holistic concern for the employee. Theory Z Equity theory, path-goal theory, and expectancy theory comprise the three main __________ theories of motivation. Process The Promise that people who are rewarded for behaving in a particular way tend to repeat that behavior is associated with __________ Skinner and Pavlov __________ communication is useful for coordination among units as well as problem-solving among operation divisions. Horizontal __________, formulated by Robert House, maintains that employees need a clearly delineated path toward a reward and that, without this path, they will become dissatisfied or frustrated. Path-Goal Theory An airport capacity analysis includes four distinct areas; airspace, airfield, terminal, and goal __________. Ground access The rate at which aircraft movements on the runway/taxiway system results in a given level of delay is called __________ Airfield Capacity __________ is a commonly used measure to evaluate the feasibility and benefit of airport development and improvement projects. PANCAP Airport delay increases gradually until it reaches its __________; then it increases exponentially. Practical Capacity Throughput Capacity and Practical Capacity describe airfield capacity. Which one of the following is true? Practical capacity is always less than throughput capacity. The __________ is a system into which the FAA personnel record aircraft that are delayed 15 or more minutes by a specific cause (weather, terminal volume, center volume, closed runways or taxiways, and National Airspace System equipment interruptions). Air Traffic Operations Management System __________ is commonly regarded as the most critical airfield characteristic that impacts the airport's ability to handle increases in capacity. Runway use configuration An air traffic management technique used as a last resort under unusual circumstances to prevent aircraft from entering the airspace system is the __________ Ground stop Which one of the following statements is NOT true regarding the slot system? Slots may not be purchased, sold, traded or leased by an owner except in the case of bankruptcy. determining baseline environmental conditions of a facility, determining potential environmental liabilities of property before making an acquisition or initiating condemnation proceedings, and identifying potential problems that could stop or delay a construction program are some of the reasons to perform an __________. Environmental audit The __________ is the primary agency responsible for the nationwide enforcement of environmental regulations, including enforcement of these regulations at airport. U.S. Environmental Protection Agency The __________ authorizes the EPA to regulate hazardous substances once they have been generated until their ultimate disposal. RCRA Preparation of an Environmental Impact Statement for AIP projects undertaken at airports in accordance with the NEPA is the responsibility of __________. The Federal Aviation Administration National Pollution Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) permits are issued in compliance with the __________. Clean Water Act The Purpose of an environmental assessment is to _________. Determine whether or not an airport project will likely have one or more significant impacts of the environment. The term "superfund" refers to ___________. The Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 (CERCLA) Whether a process, activity, or physical structure, implementation of __________ can be used to prevent or reduce the amount of pollution from any type of activity. BMP A __________ waste is one that is unstable or undergoes rapid or violent chemical reaction with water or other material. Reactive Under the __________ airport management must participate in efforts to plan a coordinated response to a serious emergency; make general disclosures to the public about the potentially hazardous chemicals the airport uses, and report to authorities certain emergency spills and other releases into the environment. EPCRA OSHA rules require an airport to provide employees with information and training on safety matters, have a communication program that encompasses written guidelines, warning labels, and __________. Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) __________ provided the basis for noise abatement planning at airports. Airport Noise Control and Land Use Compatibility Program Under Part 150, residential land uses are considered to be compatible with noise levels less than __________. 65 db DNL Opinions differ regarding the best method for analyzing and quantifying the effects of noise on a community __________. Because of the subjective nature of how noise is perceived by listeners. If a person adjusts a stereo to 70 decibels as a comfortable and normal sound, a listener raising it to 80 decibels would perceive the sound as being __________. Twice as loud __________ is the national standard used by airports in the preparation of Part 150 studies. Yearly DNL The FAA defines a significant change in noise exposure as an increase in DNL of 1.5 dB if the new DNL is above __________. 65 db DNL __________ is most appropriate if there are significant amounts of noise-affected incompatible land use, receipt of serious noise complaints, property acquisition for buffer zones, or introduction of major changes in airport facilities or operations that are likely to shift or increase noise patterns. A Part 150 Study Which of the following is NOT among the provisions for the approval of a preferential runway use system? That the system does not adversely affect areas known to be endangered species habitats __________ is the most effective control measure for reducing noise impact. Land acquisition Which specific federal regulation must an airport operator abide by when considering a Stage 3 aircraft noise and access restriction? FAR Part 161 The first clear identification of the responsibilities of the FAA, air carries, airport operators, and local communities in dealing with the problem of aircraft Noise exposure was delineated in the __________. Aviation Noise Abatement Policy The Threshold of pain for the human ear is __________. 130 db DNL Airports are unique in that they are considered to be __________ in nature at the same time. Governmental, Enterprise, and Proprietary __________, which primarily focuses on long-term capital investments and improvements, is an external function that relies on and, is affected by general economics and market conditions.