Download AACN Critical Care Registered Nurse CCRN Exam 1 Review Questions and Answers 100% Pass and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! AACN Critical Care Registered Nurse CCRN Exam 1 Review Questions and Answers 100% Pass Which of the following professional organizations best supports critical care nursing practice? a. American Association of Critical-Care Nurses b. American Heart Association c. American Nurses Association d. Society of Critical Care Medicine - Answer>> a. American Association of Critical-Care Nurses A nurse has been working as a staff nurse in the surgical intensive care unit for 2 years and is interested in certification. Which credential would be most applicable for the nurse to seek? a. ACNPC-AG b. CNML c. CCRN d. PCCN - Answer>> c. CCRN The main purpose of certification is to a. assure the consumer that you will not make a mistake. b. prepare for graduate school. c. promote magnet status for your facility. d. validate knowledge of critical care nursing. - Answer>> d. validate knowledge of critical care nursing. The synergy model of practice focuses on a. allowing unrestricted visiting for the patient 24 hours a day. b. holistic and alternative therapies. c. the needs of patients and their families, which drive nursing competency. d. patients' needs for energy and support. - Answer>> c. the needs of patients and their families, which drive nursing competency. The family of your critically ill patient tells you that they have not spoken with the physician in over 24 hours and that they have some questions they want clarified. During morning rounds, you convey this concern to the attending intensivist and arrange a meeting with the family at 4:00 PM. Which competency of critical care nursing does this represent? a. Advocacy and moral agency in solving ethical issues b. Clinical judgment and clinical reasoning skills c. Collaboration with patients, families, and team members d. Facilitation of learning for patients, families, and team members - Answer>> c. Collaboration with patients, families, and team members The AACN Standards for Acute and Critical Care Nursing Practice use what framework to guide critical care nursing practice? a. Evidence-based practice b. Healthy work environment c. National Patient Safety Goals d. Nursing process - Answer>> d. Nursing process The charge nurse is responsible for making the patient assignments on the critical care unit. An experienced, certified nurse is assigned to care for the acutely ill patient with sepsis who also requires continuous renal replacement therapy and mechanical ventilation. The nurse with less than 1 year of experience is assigned to two patients who are more stable. This assignment reflects implementation of the a. crew resource management model. b. National Patient Safety Goals. c. Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN) model. b. clinical practice guideline. c. patient safety goal. d. quality improvement initiative. - Answer>> a. bundle of care. You work in an intermediate care unit and have asked to be involved in developing new guidelines to prevent pressure ulcers in your patient population. The nurse manager tells you that you do not yet have enough experience to be on the prevention task force and that your ideas will be rejected by others. This situation is an example of a. a barrier to handoff communication. b. a work environment that is unhealthy. c. ineffective decision making. d. nursing practice that is not evidence-based. - Answer>> b. a work environment that is unhealthy. Which of the following statements describes the core concept of the synergy model of practice? a. All nurses must be certified in order to have the synergy model implemented. b. Family members must be included in daily interdisciplinary rounds. c. Nurses and physicians must work collaboratively and synergistically to influence care. d. Unique needs of patients and their families influence nursing competencies. - Answer>> d. Unique needs of patients and their families influence nursing competencies. A nurse who plans care based on the patient's gender, ethnicity, spirituality, and lifestyle is said to a. be a moral advocate. b. facilitate learning. c. respond to diversity. d. use clinical judgment. - Answer>> c. respond to diversity. Which of the following is a National Patient Safety Goal? (Select all that apply.) a. Accurately identify patients. b. Eliminate the use of patient restraints. c. Reconcile medications across the continuum of care. d. Reduce risks of health care-acquired infection. e. Reduce costs associated with hospitalization. - Answer>> a. Accurately identify patients. c. Reconcile medications across the continuum of care. d. Reduce risks of health care-acquired infection. Which of the following is (are) official journal(s) of the American Association of Critical-Care Nurses? (Select all that apply.) a. American Journal of Critical Care b. Critical Care Clinics of North America c. Critical Care Nurse d. Critical Care Nursing Quarterly e. Critical Care Nursing Management - Answer>> a. American Journal of Critical Care c. Critical Care Nurse The first critical care units were (Select all that apply.) a. burn units. b. coronary care units. c. recovery rooms. d. neonatal intensive care units. e. high-risk OB units. - Answer>> b. coronary care units. c. recovery rooms. Which of the following nursing activities demonstrates implementation of the AACN Standards of Professional Performance? (Select all that apply.) a. Attending a meeting of the local chapter of the American Association of Critical-Care Nurses in which a continuing education program on sepsis is being taught b. Collaborating with a pastoral services colleague to assist in meeting spiritual needs of the patient and family c. Participating on the unit's nurse practice council d. Posting an article from Critical Care Nurse on the management of venous thromboembolism for your colleagues to read e. Using evidence-based strategies to prevent ventilator- associated pneumonia - Answer>> a. Attending a meeting of the local chapter of the American Association of Critical-Care Nurses in which a continuing education program on sepsis is being taught b. Collaborating with a pastoral services colleague to assist in meeting spiritual needs of the patient and family c. Participating on the unit's nurse practice council d. Posting an article from Critical Care Nurse on the management of venous thromboembolism for your colleagues to read e. Using evidence-based strategies to prevent ventilator- associated pneumonia Which scenarios contribute to effective handoff communication at change of shift? (Select all that apply.) a. The nephrology consultant physician is making rounds and asks you for an update on the patient's status and to assist in placing a central line for hemodialysis. b. The noise level is high because twice as many staff members are present and everyone is giving report in the nurses' station. c. The unit has decided to use a standardized checklist/tool for change-of-shift reports and patient transfers. d. You and the oncoming nurse conduct a standardized report at the patient's bedside and review key assessment findings. e. The off-going nurse is giving the patient medications at the same time as giving handoff report to the oncoming nurse. - Answer>> c. The unit has decided to use a standardized checklist/tool for change-of-shift reports and patient transfers. d. You and the oncoming nurse conduct a standardized report at the patient's bedside and review key assessment findings. a. Ask a family member to help you bathe the patient, and discuss the family structure with the family member during the procedure. b. Because the patient is unconscious, complete care as quickly and quietly as possible. c. Tell the patient the day and time, and that you are providing a bath. Reassure the patient that you are there. d. Turn the television on to the evening news so that you and the patient can be updated to current events. - Answer>> c. Tell the patient the day and time, and that you are providing a bath. Reassure the patient that you are there. Sleep often is disrupted for critically ill patients. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to promote sleep and rest? a. Consult with the pharmacist to adjust medication times to allow periods of sleep or rest between intervals. b. Encourage family members to talk with the patient whenever they are present in the room. c. Keep the television on to provide white noise and distraction. d. Leave the lights on in the room so that the patient is not frightened of his or her surroundings. - Answer>> a. Consult with the pharmacist to adjust medication times to allow periods of sleep or rest between intervals. Family assessment is essential to meet family needs. Which of the following must be assessed first to assist the nurse in providing family-centered care? a. Assessment of patient and family's developmental stages and needs b. Description of the patient's home environment c. Identification of immediate family, extended family, and decision makers d. Observation and assessment of how family members function with each other - Answer>> c. Identification of immediate family, extended family, and decision makers Critical illness often results in family conflicts. Which scenario is most likely to result in the greatest conflict? a. A 21-year-old college student of divorced parents hospitalized with multiple trauma. She resides with her mother. The parents are amicable with each other and have similar values. The father blames the daughter's boyfriend for causing the accident. b. A 36-year-old male admitted for a ruptured cerebral aneurysm. He has been living with his 34-year-old girlfriend for 8 years, and they have a 4-year-old daughter. He does not have a written advance directive. His parents arrive from out-of-state and are asked to make decisions about his health care. He has not seen them in over a year. c. A 58-year-old male admitted for coronary artery bypass surgery. He has been living with his same-sex partner for 20 years in a committed relationship. He has designated his sister, a registered nurse, as his health c - Answer>> b. A 36-year-old male admitted for a ruptured cerebral aneurysm. He has been living with his 34-year-old girlfriend for 8 years, and they have a 4- year-old daughter. He does not have a written advance directive. His parents arrive from out-of-state and are asked to make decisions about his health care. He has not seen them in over a year. Which nursing interventions would best support the family of a critically ill patient? a. Encourage family members to stay all night in case the patient needs them. b. Give a condition update each morning and whenever changes occur. c. Limit visitation from children into the critical care unit. d. Provide beverages and snacks in the waiting room. - Answer>> b. Give a condition update each morning and whenever changes occur. Which intervention is appropriate to assist the patient in coping with admission to the critical care unit? a. Allowing unrestricted visiting by several family members at one time b. Explaining all procedures in easy-to-understand terms c. Providing back massage and mouth care d. Turning down the alarm volume on the cardiac monitor - Answer>> b. Explaining all procedures in easy-to-understand terms The constant noise of a ventilator, monitor alarms, and infusion pumps predisposes the patient to: a. anxiety. b. pain. c. powerlessness. d. sensory overload. - Answer>> d. sensory overload. Which of the following statements about family assessment is false? a. Assessment of structure (who comprises the family) is the last step in assessment. b. Interaction among family members is assessed. c. It is important to assess communication among family members to understand roles. d. Ongoing assessment is important, because family functioning may change during the course of illness. - Answer>> a. Assessment of structure (who comprises the family) is the last step in assessment. Which intervention about visitation in the critical care unit is true? a. The majority of critical care nurses implement restricted visiting hours to allow the patient to rest. b. Children should never be permitted to visit a critically ill family member. d. Use the patient's 8-year-old child who is fluent in both English and the native language to translate for you. - Answer>> b. Contact the hospital's interpreter service for someone to translate Family assessment can be challenging, and each nurse may obtain additional information regarding family structure and dynamics. What is the best way to share this information from shift to shift? a. Create an informal family information sheet that is kept on the bedside clipboard. That way, everyone can review it quickly when needed. b. Develop a standardized reporting form for family information that is incorporated into the patient's medical record and updated as needed. c. Require that the charge nurse have a detailed list of information about each patient and family member. Thus, someone on the unit is always knowledgeable about potential issues. d. Try to remember to discuss family structure and dynamics as part of the change-of-shift report. - Answer>> b. Develop a standardized reporting form for family information that is incorporated into the patient's medical record and updated as needed. The spouse of a patient who is hospitalized in the critical care unit following resuscitation for a sudden cardiac arrest at work demands to meet with the nursing manager. The spouse demands, "I want you to reassign us to another nurse. His current nurse is not in the room enough to make sure everything is okay." The nurse recognizes that this response most likely is due to the spouse's a. desire to pursue a lawsuit if the assignment is not changed. b. inability to participate in the husband's care. c. lack of prior experience in a critical care setting. d. sense of loss of control of the situation. - Answer>> d. sense of loss of control of the situation Open visitation policies are expected by many professional organizations. Which statement reflects adherence to current recommendations? a. Allow animals on the unit; however, these can only be "therapy" animals through the hospital's pet therapy program. b. Allow family visitation throughout the day except at change of shift and during rounds. c. Determine, in collaboration with the patient and family, who can visit and when. Facilitate open visitation policies. d. Permit open visitation by adults 18 years of age and older; limit visits of children to 1 hour. - Answer>> c. Determine, in collaboration with the patient and family, who can visit and when. Facilitate open visitation policies. The VALUE mnemonic is a helpful strategy to enhance communication with family members of critically ill patients. Which of the following statements describes a VALUE strategy? a. View the family as guests on the unit. b. Acknowledge family emotions. c. Learn as much as you can about family structure and function. d. Use a trained interpreter if the family does not speak English. - Answer>> b. Acknowledge family emotions. The VALUE mnemonic includes the following: V—Value what the family tells you. A—Acknowledge family emotions. L—Listen to the family members. U—Understand the patient as a person. E—Elicit (ask) questions of family members. Changing visitation policies can be challenging. The nurse manager recognizes which of the following as an effective strategy for promoting changes in practice? a. Ask the clinical nurse specialist to lead a journal club on open visitation after each nurse is tasked to read one research article about visitation. b. Discuss the pros and cons of open visitation at the next staff meeting. c. Invite the nurses with the most experience to develop a revised policy. d. Task the unit-based nurse practice council to invite volunteers to serve on the council to revise the current policy toward more liberal visitation. - Answer>> d. Task the unit-based nurse practice council to invite volunteers to serve on the council to revise the current policy toward more liberal visitation. Nursing strategies to help families cope with the stress of critical illness include: (Select all that apply.) a. asking the family to leave during the morning bath to promote the patient's privacy. b. encouraging family members to make notes of questions they have for the physician during family rounds. c. if possible, providing continuity of nursing care. d. providing a daily update of the patient's condition to the family spokesperson. e. ensuring that a waiting room stocked with snacks is nearby. - Answer>> b. encouraging family members to make notes of questions they have for the physician during family rounds. c. if possible, providing continuity of nursing care. d. providing a daily update of the patient's condition to the family spokesperson. Family presence is encouraged during resuscitation and invasive procedures. Which findings about this practice have been reported in the literature? (Select all that apply.) a. Families benefit by witnessing that everything possible was done. d. invite the nurse who will be assuming the patient's care to meet with the patient and family in the critical care unit prior to transfer. e. help the patient and family focus on the positive meaning of a transfer. The critical care environment is stressful to the patient. Which interventions assist in reducing this stress? (Select all that apply.) a. Adjust lighting to promote normal sleep-wake cycles. b. Provide clocks, calendars, and personal photos in the patient's room. c. Talk to the patient about other patients you are caring for on the unit. d. Tell the patient the day and time when you are providing routine nursing interventions. e. Allow unlimited visitation tailored to the patient's individual needs. - Answer>> a. Adjust lighting to promote normal sleep- wake cycles. b. Provide clocks, calendars, and personal photos in the patient's room. e. Allow unlimited visitation tailored to the patient's individual needs. Ideally, an advance directive should be developed by the a. family if the patient is in critical condition. b. patient as part of the hospital admission process. c. patient before hospitalization. d. patient's health care surrogate. - Answer>> c. patient before hospitalization. A critically ill patient has a living will in the chart. The patient's condition has deteriorated, but the spouse wants "everything done," regardless of the patient's wishes. Which ethical principle is the spouse violating? a. Autonomy b. Beneficence c. Justice d. Nonmaleficence - Answer>> a. Autonomy Which statement regarding ethical concepts is true? a. A living will is the same as a health care proxy. b. A signed donor card ensures that organ donation will occur in the event of brain death. c. A surrogate is a competent adult designated by a person to make health care decisions in the event the person is incapacitated. d. A persistent vegetative state is the same as brain death in most states. - Answer>> c. A surrogate is a competent adult designated by a person to make health care decisions in the event the person is incapacitated. Which of the following statements about resuscitation is true? a. Family members should never be present during resuscitation. b. It is not necessary for a physician to write "do not resuscitate" orders in the chart if a patient has a health care surrogate. c. "Slow codes" are ethical and should be considered in futile situations if advanced directives are unavailable. d. Withholding "extraordinary" resuscitation is legal and ethical if specified in advance directives and physician orders. - Answer>> d. Withholding "extraordinary" resuscitation is legal and ethical if specified in advance directives and physician orders. The nurse is caring for an elderly patient who is in cardiogenic shock. The patient has failed to respond to medical treatment. The intensivist in charge of the patient conducts a conference to explain that treatment options have been exhausted and to suggest that the patient be given a "do not resuscitate" status. This scenario illustrates the concept of a. brain death. b. futility. c. incompetence. d. life-prolonging procedures. - Answer>> b. futility. The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with a traumatic brain injury following a motor vehicle crash. Several weeks later, the patient is still ventilator dependent and unresponsive to stimulation but occasionally takes a spontaneous breath. The physician explains to the family that the patient has severe neurological impairment and is not expected to recover consciousness. The nurse recognizes that this patient is a. an organ donor. b. brain dead. c. in a persistent vegetative state. d. terminally ill. - Answer>> c. in a persistent vegetative state. A nurse caring for a patient with neurological impairment often must use painful stimuli to elicit the patient's response. The nurse uses subtle measures of painful stimuli, such as nailbed pressure. She neither slaps the patient nor pinches the nipple to elicit a response to pain. In this scenario, the nurse is exemplifying the ethical principle of a. beneficence. b. fidelity. c. nonmaleficence. d. veracity. - Answer>> c. nonmaleficence. Which of the following organizations requires a mechanism for addressing ethical issues? a. American Association of Critical-Care Nurses b. American Hospital Association c. Society of Critical Care Medicine d. The Joint Commission - Answer>> d. The Joint Commission The nurse is caring for a patient who is not responding to medical treatment. The intensivist holds a conference with the family, and a decision is made to withdraw life support. The nurse's religious c. The patient has told you what quality of life means and his or her wishes. d. The physician considers care to be futile in a given situation. - Answer>> c. The patient has told you what quality of life means and his or her wishes A specific request made by a competent person that directs medical care related to life-prolonging procedures in the event that person loses capacity to make decisions is called a a. "do not resuscitate" order. b. health care proxy. c. informed consent. d. living will. - Answer>> d. living will. The American Nurses Credential Center Magnet Recognition Program supports many actions to ensure that nurses are engaged and empowered to participate in ethical decision making. Which of the following would assist nurses in being involved in research studies? a. Education on protection of human subjects b. Participation of staff nurses on ethics committees c. Written descriptions of how nurses participate in ethics programs d. Written policies and procedures related to response to ethical issues - Answer>> a. Education on protection of human subjects The critical care nurse wants a better understanding of when to initiate an ethics consult. After attending an educational program, the nurse understands that the following situation would require an ethics consultation: a. Conflict has occurred between the physician and family regarding treatment decisions. A family conference is held, and the family and physician agree to a treatment plan that includes aggressive treatment for 24 hours followed by reevaluation. b. Family members disagree as to a patient's course of treatment. The patient has designated a health care proxy and has a written advance directive. c. Patient postoperative coronary artery bypass surgery who sustained a cardiopulmonary arrest in the operating room. He was successfully resuscitated, but now is not responding to treatment. He has a written advance directive, and his wife is present. d. Patient with multiple trauma and is not responding to tr - Answer>> d. Patient with multiple trauma and is not responding to treatment. No family members are known, and the health care team is debating if care is futile. The nurse knows that which of the following statements about organ donation is true? a. Anyone who is comfortable approaching the family should discuss the option of organ donation. b. Brain death determination is required before organs can be retrieved for transplant. c. Donation of selected organs after cardiac death is ethically acceptable. d. Family members should consider the withdrawal of life support so that the patient can become an organ donor. - Answer>> c. Donation of selected organs after cardiac death is ethically acceptable. Warning signs that can assist the critical care nurse in recognizing that an ethical dilemma may exist include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Family members are confused about what is happening to the patient. b. Family members are in conflict as to the best treatment options. They disagree with one another and cannot come to consensus. c. The family asks that the patient not be told of treatment plans. d. The patient's condition has changed dramatically for the worse and is not responding to conventional treatment. e. The physician is considering the use of a medication that is not approved to treat the patient's condition. - Answer>> a. Family members are confused about what is happening to the patient. b. Family members are in conflict as to the best treatment options. They disagree with one another and cannot come to consensus. c. The family asks that the patient not be told of treatment plans. d. The patient's condition has changed dramatically for the worse and is not responding to conventional treatment. e. The physician is considering the use of a medication that is not approved to treat the patient's condition. The nurse is caring for a patient whose condition has deteriorated and who is not responding to standard treatment. The physician calls for an ethical consultation with the family to discuss potential withdrawal of treatment versus aggressive treatment. The nurse understands that applying a model for ethical decision making involves which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Burden versus benefit b. Family's wishes c. Patient's wishes d. Potential outcomes of treatment options e. Cost savings of withdrawing treatment - Answer>> a. Burden versus benefit c. Patient's wishes d. Potential outcomes of treatment options The nurse utilizes which of the following strategies when encountering an ethical dilemma in practice? (Select all that apply.) a. Change-of-shift report updates b. Ethics consultation services c. Formal multiprofessional ethics committees d. Pastoral care services e. Social work consultation - Answer>> b. Ethics consultation services c. Obtain a stat chest x-ray film to verify proper catheter placement. d. Zero reference and level the catheter at the phlebostatic axis. - Answer>> d. Zero reference and level the catheter at the phlebostatic axis. A patient is admitted to the hospital with multiple trauma and extensive blood loss. The nurse assesses vital signs to be BP 80/50 mm Hg, heart rate 135 beats/min, respirations 36 breaths/min, cardiac output (CO) of 2 L/min, systemic vascular resistance of 3000 dynes/sec/cm-5, and a hematocrit of 20%. The nurse anticipates administration of which the following therapies or medications? a. Blood transfusion b. Furosemide c. Dobutamine infusion d. Dopamine hydrochloride infusion - Answer>> a. Blood transfusion After pulmonary artery catheter insertion, the nurse assesses a pulmonary artery pressure of 45/25 mm Hg, a pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP) of 20 mm Hg, a cardiac output of 2.6 L/min and a cardiac index of 1.9 L/min/m2. Which provider order is of the highest priority? a. Apply 50% oxygen via Venturi mask. b. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter. c. Begin a dobutamine infusion. d. Obtain stat cardiac enzymes and troponin. - Answer>> c. Begin a dobutamine infusion. The nurse is caring for a patient with a left subclavian central venous catheter (CVC) and a left radial arterial line. Which assessment finding by the nurse requires immediate action? a. A dampened arterial line waveform b. Numbness and tingling in the left hand c. Slight bloody drainage at subclavian insertion site d. Slight redness at subclavian insertion site - Answer>> b. Numbness and tingling in the left hand The provider writes an order to discontinue a patient's left radial arterial line. When discontinuing the patient's invasive line, what is the priority nursing action? a. Apply an air occlusion dressing to insertion site. b. Apply pressure to the insertion site for 5 minutes. c. Elevate the affected limb on pillows for 24 hours. d. Keep the patient's wrist in a neutral position. - Answer>> b. Apply pressure to the insertion site for 5 minutes Following insertion of a central venous catheter, the nurse obtains a stat chest x-ray film to verify proper catheter placement. The radiologist reports to the nurse: "The tip of the catheter is located in the superior vena cava." What is the best interpretation of these results by the nurse? a. The catheter is not positioned correctly and should be removed. b. The catheter position increases the risk of ventricular dysrhythmias. c. The distal tip of the catheter is in the appropriate position. d. The physician should be called to advance the catheter into the pulmonary artery. - Answer>> c. The distal tip of the catheter is in the appropriate position. While inflating the balloon of a pulmonary artery catheter (PAC) with 1.0 mL of air to obtain a pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP), the nurse encounters resistance. What is the best nursing action? a. Add an additional 0.5 mL of air to the balloon and repeat the procedure. b. Advance the catheter with the balloon deflated and repeat the procedure. c. Deflate the balloon and obtain a chest x-ray study to determine line placement. d. Lock the balloon in the inflated position, and flush the distal port of the PAC with normal saline. - Answer>> c. Deflate the balloon and obtain a chest x-ray study to determine line placement. The nurse is caring for a patient following insertion of a left subclavian central venous catheter (CVC). Which assessment finding 2 hours after insertion by the nurse warrants immediate action? a. Diminished breath sounds over left lung field b. Localized pain at catheter insertion site c. Measured central venous pressure of 5 mm Hg d. Slight bloody drainage around insertion site - Answer>> a. Diminished breath sounds over left lung field The nurse is caring for a mechanically ventilated patient with a pulmonary artery catheter who is receiving continuous enteral tube feedings. When obtaining continuous hemodynamic monitoring measurements, what is the best nursing action? a. Do not document hemodynamic values until the patient can be placed in the supine position. b. Level and zero reference the air-fluid interface of the transducer with the patient in the supine position and record hemodynamic values. c. Level and zero reference the air-fluid interface of the transducer with the patient's head of bed elevated to 30 degrees and record hemodynamic values. d. Level and zero reference the air-fluid interface of the transducer with the patient supine in the side-lying position and record hemodynamic values. - Answer>> c. Level and zero reference the air-fluid interface of the transducer with the patient's head of bed elevated to 30 degrees and record hemodynamic values. Following insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter (PAC), the provider requests the nurse obtain a blood sample for mixed venous oxygen saturation (SvO2). Which action by the nurse best ensures the obtained value is accurate? a. Zero referencing the transducer at the level of the phlebostatic axis following insertion b. Calibrating the system with a central venous blood sample and arterial blood gas value c. Ensuring patency of the catheter using a 0.9% normal saline solution pressurized at 300 mm Hg d. Using noncompliant pressure tubing that is no longer than 36 to 48 inches and has minimal stopcocks - Answer>> b. Calibrating the system with a central venous blood sample and arterial blood gas value The nurse is caring for a 70-kg patient in septic shock with a pulmonary artery catheter. Which hemodynamic value indicates an appropriate response to therapy aimed at enhancing oxygen delivery to the organs and tissues? a. Arterial lactate level of 1.0 mEq/L b. Cardiac output of 2.5 L/min c. Mixed venous (SvO2) of 40% d. Cardiac index of 1.5 L/min/m2 - Answer>> a. Arterial lactate level of 1.0 mEq/L The nurse is caring for a patient with a pulmonary artery catheter. Assessment findings include a blood pressure of 85/40 mm Hg, heart rate of 125 beats/min, respiratory rate 35 breaths/min, and arterial oxygen saturation (SpO2) of 90% on a 50% Venturi mask. Hemodynamic values include a cardiac output (CO) of 1.0 L/min, central venous pressure (CVP) of 1 mm Hg, and a pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP) of 3 mm Hg. The nurse questions which of the following physician's orders? a. Titrate supplemental oxygen to achieve a SpO2 94%. b. Infuse 500 mL 0.9% normal saline over 1 hour. c. Obtain arterial blood gas and serum electrolytes. d. Administer furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg intravenously. - Answer>> d. Administer furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg intravenously. The charge nurse has a pulse contour cardiac output monitoring system available for use in the surgical intensive care unit. For which patient is use of this device most appropriate? a. A patient with a history of aortic insufficiency admitted with a postoperative myocardial infarction b. A mechanically ventilated patient with cardiogenic shock being treated with an intraaortic balloon pump c. A patient with a history of atrial fibrillation having frequent episodes of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia d. A mechanically ventilated patient admitted following repair of an acute bowel obstruction - Answer>> d. A mechanically ventilated patient admitted following repair of an acute bowel obstruction The provider prescribes a pulmonary artery occlusive pressure reading (PAOP) for a patient being monitored with a pulmonary artery catheter. Immediately after obtaining an occlusive pressure, the nurse notes the change in waveform indicated on the strip below. What are the best actions by the nurse? Figure from Geiter H, Jr.: Swan-Ganz Catheters. http://www.nurse411.com. Accessed April 2012. a. Turn the patient to the left side; obtain a stat portable chest x- ray. b. Place the patient supine; repeat zero referencing of the system. c. Document the wedge pressure; continue to monitor the patient. d. Perform an immediate dynamic response test; obtain a chest x- ray. - Answer>> c. Document the wedge pressure; continue to monitor the patient. The nurse is caring for a patient with an arterial monitoring system. The nurse assesses the patient's noninvasive cuff blood pressure to be 70/40 mm Hg. The arterial blood pressure measurement via an intraarterial catheter in the same arm is assessed by the nurse to be 108/70 mm Hg. What is the best action by the nurse? a. Activate the rapid response system. b. Place the patient in Trendelenburg position. c. Assess the cuff for proper arm size. d. Administer 0.9% normal saline bolus. - Answer>> c. Assess the cuff for proper arm size. The nurse is caring for a patient with an admitting diagnosis of congestive heart failure. While attempting to obtain a pulmonary artery occlusion pressure in the supine position, the patient becomes anxious and tachypneic. What is the best action by the nurse? a. Limit the patient's supine position to no more than 10 seconds. b. Administer antianxiety medications while recording the pressure. c. Encourage the patient to take slow, deep breaths while supine. d. Elevate the head of the bed 45 degrees while recording pressures. - Answer>> d. Elevate the head of the bed 45 degrees while recording pressures. The nurse returns from the cardiac catheterization laboratory with a patient following insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter and assists in transferring the patient from the stretcher to the bed. Before obtaining a cardiac output, which action is most important for the nurse to complete? a. Document a pulmonary artery catheter occlusion pressure. b. Zero reference the transducer system at the phlebostatic axis. c. Inflate the pulmonary artery catheter balloon with 1 mL air. c. Maintain the balloon in the inflated position for 8 hours following insertion. d. Zero reference and level the air-fluid interface of the transducer at the level of the phlebostatic axis. e. Inflate and deflate the balloon on an hourly schedule - Answer>> a. Inflate the balloon for no more than 8 to 10 seconds while noting the waveform change. b. Inflate the balloon with air, recording the volume necessary to obtain a reading d. Zero reference and level the air-fluid interface of the transducer at the level of the phlebostatic axis The nurse is preparing to obtain a right atrial pressure (RAP/CVP) reading. What are the most appropriate nursing actions? (Select all that apply.) a. Compare measured pressures with other physiological parameters. b. Flush the central venous catheter with 20 mL of sterile saline. c. Inflate the balloon with 3 mL of air and record the pressure tracing. d. Obtain the right atrial pressure measurement during end exhalation. e. Zero reference the transducer system at the level of the phlebostatic axis. - Answer>> a. Compare measured pressures with other physiological parameters. d. Obtain the right atrial pressure measurement during end exhalation. e. Zero reference the transducer system at the level of the phlebostatic axis. The nurse is preparing for insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter (PAC). During insertion of the catheter, what are the priority nursing actions? (Select all that apply.) a. Allay the patient's anxiety by providing information about the procedure. b. Ensure that a sterile field is maintained during the insertion procedure. c. Inflate the balloon during the procedure when indicated by the provider. d. Monitor the patient's cardiac rhythm throughout the procedure. e. Obtain informed consent by informing the patient of procedural risks. - Answer>> a. Allay the patient's anxiety by providing information about the procedure. b. Ensure that a sterile field is maintained during the insertion procedure. c. Inflate the balloon during the procedure when indicated by the provider. d. Monitor the patient's cardiac rhythm throughout the procedure. Which nursing actions are most important for a patient with a right radial arterial line? (Select all that apply.) a. Checking the circulation to the right hand every 2 hours b. Maintaining a pressurized flush solution to the arterial line setup c. Monitoring the waveform on the monitor for dampening d. Restraining all four extremities with soft limb restraints e. Ensuring all junctions remain tightly connected - Answer>> a. Checking the circulation to the right hand every 2 hours b. Maintaining a pressurized flush solution to the arterial line setup c. Monitoring the waveform on the monitor for dampening e. Ensuring all junctions remain tightly connected Which of the following situations may result in a low cardiac output and low cardiac index? (Select all that apply.) a. Exercise b. Hypovolemia c. Myocardial infarction d. Shock e. Fever - Answer>> b. Hypovolemia c. Myocardial infarction d. Shock A patient has coronary artery bypass graft surgery and is transported to the surgical intensive care unit at noon and is placed on mechanical ventilation. Interpret the initial arterial blood gas levels pH: 7.31 PaCO2: 48 mm Hg Bicarbonate: 22 mEq/L PaO2: 115 mm Hg O2 saturation: 99% a. Normal arterial blood gas levels with a high oxygen level b. Partly compensated respiratory acidosis; normal oxygen c. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis with high oxygen levels d. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis; hyperoxygenated - Answer>> d. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis; hyperoxygenated The provider orders the following mechanical ventilation settings for a patient who weighs 75 kg. The patient's spontaneous respiratory rate is 22 breaths/min. Which arterial blood gas abnormality may occur if the patient continues to be tachypneic at these ventilator settings? Settings: Tidal volume: 600 mL (8 mL per kg) FiO2: 0.5 Respiratory rate: 14 breaths/min Mode assist/control Positive end-expiratory pressure: 10 cm H2O a. Metabolic acidosis b. Metabolic alkalosis c. Respiratory acidosis d. Respiratory alkalosis - Answer>> d. Respiratory alkalosis One of the early signs of hypoxemia on the nervous system is a. cyanosis. b. restlessness. c. agitation. d. tachypnea. - Answer>> b. restlessness The amount of effort needed to maintain a given level of ventilation is termed a. compliance. b. resistance. c. tidal volume. d. work of breathing. - Answer>> d. work of breathing. Which of the following devices is best suited to deliver 65% oxygen to a patient who is spontaneously breathing? a. Face mask with non-rebreathing reservoir b. Low-flow nasal cannula c. Simple face mask d. Venturi mask - Answer>> a. Face mask with non-rebreathing reservoir A patient is being mechanically ventilated in the synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation mode at a rate of 4 breaths/min. His spontaneous respirations are 12 breaths/min. He receives a dose of morphine sulfate, and his spontaneous respirations decrease to 4 breaths/min. Which acid-base disturbance will likely occur? a. Metabolic acidosis b. Metabolic alkalosis c. Respiratory acidosis d. Respiratory alkalosis - Answer>> c. Respiratory acidosis A patient is being mechanically ventilated in the synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation mode at a rate of 4 breaths/min. His spontaneous respirations are 12 breaths/min. He receives a dose of morphine sulfate, and his respirations decrease to 4 breaths/min. What adjustments may need to be made to the patient's ventilator settings? a. Add positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP). b. Add pressure support. c. Change to assist/control ventilation at a rate of 4 breaths/min. d. Increase the synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation respiratory rate. - Answer>> d. Increase the synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation respiratory rate. Current guidelines recommend the oral route for endotracheal intubation. The rationale for this recommendation is that nasotracheal intubation is associated with a greater risk for a. basilar skull fracture. b. cervical hyperextension. c. impaired ability to "mouth" words. d. sinusitis and infection. - Answer>> d. sinusitis and infection. Oxygen saturation (SaO2) represents a. alveolar oxygen tension. b. oxygen that is chemically combined with hemoglobin. c. oxygen that is physically dissolved in plasma. d. total oxygen consumption. - Answer>> b. oxygen that is chemically combined with hemoglobin. Pulse oximetry measures a. arterial blood gases. b. hemoglobin values. c. oxygen consumption. d. oxygen saturation. - Answer>> d. oxygen saturation. A PaCO2 of 48 mm Hg is associated with a. hyperventilation. b. hypoventilation. c. increased absorption of O2. d. increased excretion of HCO3. - Answer>> b. hypoventilation. The nurse notes that the patient's arterial blood gas levels indicate hypoxemia. The patient is not intubated and has a respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min. The nurse's first intervention to relieve hypoxemia is to: a. call the provider for an emergency intubation procedure. b. obtain an order for bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPAP). c. notify the provider of values and obtain a prescription for oxygen. d. suction secretions from the oropharynx. - Answer>> c. notify the provider of values and obtain a prescription for oxygen. A patient presents to the emergency department demonstrating agitation and complaining of numbness and tingling in his fingers. His arterial blood gas levels reveal the following: pH 7.51, PaCO2 25, HCO3 25. The nurse interprets these blood gas values as: a. compensated metabolic alkalosis. b. normal values. c. uncompensated respiratory acidosis. d. uncompensated respiratory alkalosis. - Answer>> d. uncompensated respiratory alkalosis. Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is a mode of ventilatory assistance that produces the following condition: a. Each time the patient initiates a breath, the ventilator delivers a full preset tidal volume. b. For each spontaneous breath taken by the patient, the tidal volume is determined by the patient's ability to generate negative pressure. c. The patient must have a respiratory drive, or no breaths will be delivered. d. There is pressure remaining in the lungs at the end of expiration that is measured in cm H2O. - Answer>> d. There is intensive care unit at 4 PM, the patient has stable vital signs and normal arterial blood gases (ABGs), and is placed on a T-piece for ventilatory weaning. The following information pertains to the 1900 assessment. Assessments and Vital Signs Nursing Action Restless Performs complete assessment Increased to 110 beats/min Suctions patient for pink, frothy secretions Respirations 36 breaths/min Obtains prescriptions from provider for ABGs, electrolyte levels, and portable chest x-ray Blood pressure 156/98 mm Hg Sinus tachycardia 10 PVCs/min Elevated pulmonary artery pressure Loud crackles throughout New ABGs: pH: 7.28 PaCO2: 46 mm Hg Bicarbonate: 22 mEq/L PaO2: 58 mm Hg O2 saturation: 88% What interdisciplinary staff member does the nurse notify to assist in the care of this patien - Answer>> a. Respiratory therapist to adjust ventilator The nurse is caring for a mechanically ventilated patient and notes the high pressure alarm sounding. The nurse cannot quickly identify the cause of the alarm and notes the patient's oxygen saturation is decreasing and heart rate and respiratory rate are increasing. The nurse's priority action is to a. ask the respiratory therapist to get a new ventilator. b. call the rapid response team to assess the patient. c. continue to find the cause of the alarm and fix it. d. manually ventilate the patient while calling for a respiratory therapist. - Answer>> d. manually ventilate the patient while calling for a respiratory therapist. The nurse is caring for a patient whose ventilator settings include 15 cm H2O of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP). What complication does the nurse assess the patient for? a. Fluid overload secondary to decreased venous return b. High cardiac index secondary to more efficient ventricular function c. Hypoxemia secondary to prolonged positive pressure at expiration d. Low cardiac output secondary to increased intrathoracic pressure - Answer>> d. Low cardiac output secondary to increased intrathoracic pressure When assessing the patient for hypoxemia, the nurse recognizes that an early sign of the effect of hypoxemia on the cardiovascular system is a. heart block. b. restlessness. c. tachycardia. d. tachypnea. - Answer>> c. tachycardia. The nurse is caring for a mechanically ventilated patient. The providers are considering performing a tracheostomy because the patient is having difficulty weaning from mechanical ventilation. Related to tracheostomy, the nurse understands which of the following? a. Patient outcomes are better if the tracheostomy is done within a week of intubation. b. Percutaneous tracheostomy can be done safely at the bedside by the respiratory therapist. c. Procedures performed in the operating room are associated with fewer complications. d. The greatest risk after a percutaneous tracheostomy is accidental decannulation. - Answer>> d. The greatest risk after a percutaneous tracheostomy is accidental decannulation. The nurse is assessing the exhaled tidal volume (EVT) in a mechanically ventilated patient. The rationale for this assessment is to a. assess for tension pneumothorax. b. assess the level of positive end-expiratory pressure. c. compare the tidal volume delivered with the tidal volume prescribed. d. determine the patient's work of breathing. - Answer>> c. compare the tidal volume delivered with the tidal volume prescribed. The nurse is caring for a mechanically ventilated patient and responds to a high inspiratory pressure alarm. Recognizing possible causes for the alarm, the nurse assesses for which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Coughing or attempting to talk b. Disconnection from the ventilator c. Kinks in the ventilator tubing d. Need for suctioning e. Spontaneous breathing - Answer>> a. Coughing or attempting to talk c. Kinks in the ventilator tubing d. Need for suctioning Select all of the factors that may predispose the patient to respiratory acidosis. (Select all that apply.) a. Anxiety and fear b. Central nervous system depression c. Diabetic ketoacidosis d. Nasogastric suctioning d. Respiratory acidosis associated with hyperventilation - Answer>> a. Decreasing PaO2 levels despite increased FiO2 administration The nurse assesses a patient who is admitted for an overdose of sedatives. The nurse expects to find which acid-base alteration? a. Hyperventilation and respiratory acidosis b. Hypoventilation and respiratory acidosis c. Hypoventilation and respiratory alkalosis d. Respiratory acidosis and normal oxygen levels - Answer>> b. Hypoventilation and respiratory acidosis Intrapulmonary shunting refers to a. alveoli that are not perfused. b. blood that is shunted from the left side of the heart to the right and causes heart failure. c. blood that is shunted from the right side of the heart to the left without oxygenation. d. shunting of blood supply to only one lung. - Answer>> c. blood that is shunted from the right side of the heart to the left without oxygenation. When fluid is present in the alveoli, a. alveoli collapse, and atelectasis occurs. b. diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide is impaired. c. hypoventilation occurs. d. the patient is in heart failure. - Answer>> b. diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide is impaired. In assessing a patient, the nurse understands that an early sign of hypoxemia is a. clubbing of nail beds. b. cyanosis. c. hypotension. d. restlessness. - Answer>> d. restlessness. The basic underlying pathophysiology of acute respiratory distress syndrome results in a. a decrease in the number of white blood cells available. b. damage to the right mainstem bronchus. c. damage to the type II pneumocytes, which produce surfactant. d. decreased capillary permeability. - Answer>> c. damage to the type II pneumocytes, which produce surfactant. The nurse is caring for a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome who is hypoxemic despite mechanical ventilation. The provider prescribes a nontraditional ventilator mode as part of treatment. Despite sedation and analgesia, the patient remains restless and appears to be in discomfort. The nurse informs the provider of this assessment and anticipates an order for a. continuous lateral rotation therapy. b. guided imagery. c. neuromuscular blockade. d. prone positioning. - Answer>> c. neuromuscular blockade. A patient presents to the emergency department in acute respiratory failure secondary to community-acquired pneumonia. The patient has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The nurse anticipates which treatment to facilitate ventilation? a. Emergency tracheostomy and mechanical ventilation b. Mechanical ventilation via an endotracheal tube c. Noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation (NPPV) d. Oxygen at 100% via bag-valve-mask device - Answer>> c. Noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation (NPPV) Which of the following acid-base disturbances commonly occurs with the hyperventilation and impaired gas exchange seen in severe exacerbation of asthma? a. Metabolic acidosis b. Metabolic alkalosis c. Respiratory acidosis d. Respiratory alkalosis - Answer>> c. Respiratory acidosis An acute exacerbation of asthma is treated with which of the following? a. Corticosteroids and theophylline by mouth b. Inhaled bronchodilators and intravenous corticosteroids c. Prone positioning or continuous lateral rotation d. Sedation and inhaled bronchodilators - Answer>> b. Inhaled bronchodilators and intravenous corticosteroids The nurse is discharging a patient home following treatment for community-acquired pneumonia. As part of the discharge teaching, the nurse instructs, a. "If you get the pneumococcal vaccine, you'll never get pneumonia again." b. "It is important for you to get an annual influenza shot to reduce your risk of pneumonia." c. "Stay away from cold, drafty places because that increases your risk of pneumonia when you get home." d. "Since you have been treated for pneumonia, you now have immunity from getting it in the future." - Answer>> b. "It is important for you to get an annual influenza shot to reduce your risk of pneumonia." The nurse is discharging a patient with asthma. As part of the discharge instruction, the nurse instructs the patient to prevent exacerbation by: a. obtaining an appointment for follow-up pulmonary function studies 1 week after discharge. b. limiting activity until the patient is able to climb two flights of stairs. c. taking all asthma medications as prescribed. a. Aspirin b. Embolectomy c. Heparin d. Thrombolytics - Answer>> d. Thrombolytics The nurse is assessing a patient. Which assessment would cue the nurse to the potential of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? a. Increased oxygen saturation via pulse oximetry b. Increased peak inspiratory pressure on the ventilator c. Normal chest radiograph with enlarged cardiac structures d. PaO2/FiO2 ratio >300 - Answer>> b. Increased peak inspiratory pressure on the ventilator The nurse calculates the PaO2/FiO2 ratio for the following values: PaO2 is 78 mm Hg; FiO2 is 0.6 (60%). a. 46.8; meets criteria for ARDS b. 130; meets criteria for ARDS c. 468; normal lung function d. Not enough data to compute the ratio - Answer>> b. 130; meets criteria for ARDS The nurse is assessing a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome. An expected assessment is a. cardiac output of 10 L/min and low systemic vascular resistance. b. PAOP of 10 mm Hg and PaO2 of 55. c. PAOP of 20 mm Hg and cardiac output of 3 L/min. d. PAOP of 5 mm Hg and high systemic vascular resistance. - Answer>> b. PAOP of 10 mm Hg and PaO2 of 55. The nurse is caring for a patient who is being turned prone as part of treatment for acute respiratory distress syndrome. The nurse understands that the priority nursing concern for this patient is which of the following? a. Management and protection of the airway b. Prevention of gastric aspiration c. Prevention of skin breakdown and nerve damage d. Psychological support to patient and family - Answer>> a. Management and protection of the airway During rounds, the provider alerts the team that proning is being considered for a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome. The nurse understands that proning is a. an optional treatment to improve ventilation. b. less of a risk for skin breakdown because the patient is face down. c. possible with minimal help from coworkers. d. used to provide continuous lateral rotational turning. - Answer>> a. an optional treatment to improve ventilation. The etiology of noncardiogenic pulmonary edema in acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is related to damage to the a. alveolar-capillary membrane. b. left ventricle. c. mainstem bronchus. d. trachea. - Answer>> a. alveolar-capillary membrane. Identify diagnostic criteria for ARDS. (Select all that apply.) a. Bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray study b. Decreased cardiac output c. PaO2/ FiO2 ratio of less than 200 d. Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP) of more than 18 mm Hg e. PAOP less than 18 mm Hg - Answer>> a. Bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray study c. PaO2/ FiO2 ratio of less than 200 Which of the following statements is true regarding oral care for the prevention of ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)? (Select all that apply.) a. Tooth brushing is performed every 2 hours for the greatest effect. b. Implementing a comprehensive oral care program is an intervention for preventing VAP. c. Oral care protocols should include oral suctioning and brushing teeth. d. Protocols that include chlorhexidine gluconate have been effective in preventing VAP. e. Using oral swabs or toothettes are just as effective as brushing the teeth. - Answer>> b. Implementing a comprehensive oral care program is an intervention for preventing VAP. c. Oral care protocols should include oral suctioning and brushing teeth. d. Protocols that include chlorhexidine gluconate have been effective in preventing VAP. Which of the following are physiological effects of positive end- expiratory pressure (PEEP) used in the treatment of ARDS? (Select all that apply.) a. Increases functional residual capacity b. Prevents collapse of unstable alveoli c. Improves arterial oxygenation d. Opens collapsed alveoli e. Improves carbon dioxide retention - Answer>> a. Increases functional residual capacity b. Prevents collapse of unstable alveoli c. Improves arterial oxygenation d. Opens collapsed alveoli Which of the following are components of the Institute for Healthcare Improvement's (IHI's) ventilator bundle? (Select all that apply.)