AAMC MCAT Practice Exam Questions with Answers and Rationales, Exams of Nursing

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Compound 1 was designed to exhibit pH-dependent self-assembly. What feature(s) of the molecule is(are) responsible for the pH dependence of aggregation (Equation 1)? A) Thiol side chains that can hydrogen bond B) Long alkyl chains that exhibit predominantly London forces C) Side chains whose net charge responds to pH D) Covalent linkages that reversibly hydrolyze - Correct Answer - C) Side chains whose net charge responds to pH The answer to this question is C because the molecule contains mainly acidic side chains that were deprotonated and negatively charged at high pH. This inhibited aggregation due to electrostatic principles. At low pH these groups are neutral and this allowed aggregation. Why is the velocity of blood flow slower in capillaries than in arteries? A) Capillary walls are more elastic than arterial walls. B) Capillaries have less resistance to blood flow than arteries. C) The total cross-sectional area of capillaries exceeds that of arteries. D) Blood pressure is higher in the capillaries than in arteries. - Correct Answer - C) The total cross- sectional area of capillaries exceeds that of arteries. A1v1 = A2v The answer to this question is C because the high number of capillaries in the body means that the total cross-sectional area of these vessels is larger than any other vessel type in the circulatory system. This causes the velocity of the blood to decrease.

D) 10 - Correct Answer - The answer to this question is A (0.20) because Rf is the ratio of the distance travelled by the analyte relative to the solvent front during a chromatographic separation. Aspartic acid Which of the following types of orbitals of the central atom is involved in bonding in octahedral compounds? A) sp B) sp C) p D) d2 sp3 - Correct Answer - D) d2 sp The answer to this question is D because octahedral compounds have six σ bonds and no lone pairs. According to valence bond theory, the central atom requires the hybridization of six atomic orbitals, d2sp3. What assumption is being made if scientists conclude that aspartic acid was formed by the prebiological synthesis in the passage? A) Aspartic acid is unstable at temperatures below 150 degrees C. B) All of the malic acid underwent the dehydration reaction to form fumaric/maleic acid. C) Compound A and cyanide were available on primitive Earth. D) The reaction between ammonia and fumaric acid was catalyzed by the presence of water. - Correct Answer - C) Compound A and cyanide were available on primitive Earth. he answer to this question is C since, in order for the experimental reaction sequence to be relevant to the primordial formation of aspartic acid, the starting materials used (Compound A and cyanide) are assumed to have been available. According to the developed chromatography plate shown below, what is the approximate Rf value of aspartic acid? aspartic acid = 2 solvent front = 10 A) 0. B) 0. C) 5

phase will determine the relative rate of migration of the various components in the sample. The answer to this question is A because the relative amount of hydrogen bonding to the stationary travelled two units, while the solvent front travelled ten units, giving an Rf of 2/10 = 0.20 for aspartic acid. In the chromatography of the reaction mixture, water absorbed on cellulose functioned as the stationary phase. What was the principal factor determining the migration of individual components in the sample? A) Hydrogen bonding B) Solute concentration C) Stationary phase concentration D) Thickness of paper - Correct Answer - A) Hydrogen bonding Which of the following statements does NOT correctly describe the dehydration of malic acid to fumaric acid and maleic acid? A) The reaction occurs most readily with tertiary alcohols. B) The reaction involves the loss of a water molecule. C) The reaction has a carbocation intermediate. D) The reaction is stereospecific. - Correct Answer - D) The reaction is stereospecific. The answer to this question is D because the fact that both fumaric and maleic acid are produced means that the dehydration of malic acid is NOT stereospecific. What type of functional group is formed when aspartic acid reacts with another amino acid to form a peptide bond? A) An amine group B) An aldehyde group C) An amide group D) A carboxyl group - Correct Answer - C) An amide group

The answer to this question is C because the functional group that forms during peptide bond formation is known as an amide group. If 2 - pentanol replaces 1 - pentanol in the reaction shown in Figure 3 (SN2), the rate of substitution is less because: A) the C-O bond in 2 - pentanol is stronger than the C-O bond in 1 - pentanol. B) there is a competing elimination reaction that slows the rate of substitution. C) there is more steric hindrance at the oxygen atom in 2 - pentanol than in 1 - pentanol, making protonation less likely. D) there is more steric hindrance at the 2-position of 2-pentanol than at the 1-position of 1-pentanol. - Correct Answer - D) there is more steric hindrance at the 2 - position of 2 - pentanol than at the 1 - position of 1-pentanol. The answer to this question is D because the rate of substitution of protonated alcohols is subject to steric hindrance. This inhibits the ability of nucleophiles to collide with the reacting electrophilic center and slows the rate of reaction. If a solution containing the compounds shown in Figure 4, is injected into a gas-liquid chromatograph, the first peak observed in the gc trace is attributable to which compound? A) Methyl- 2 - butanol B) Methyl- 2 - butene C) Chloro- 2 - methylbutane D) Bromo- 2 - mehtylbutane - Correct Answer - B) Methyl- 2 - butene The answer to this question is B because 2 - methyl- 2 - butene will exhibit the lowest molecular weight and also the weakest intermolecular forces of attraction. This substance will therefore migrate the fastest and be the first peak in the gas chromatograph (gc) trace. R vs. S stereochemistry* - Correct Answer - R = clockwise C = counter-clockwise Acetic acid and ethanol react to form an ester product as shown below.

In determining which reactant loses the - OH group, which of the following isotopic substitutions would be most useful? A) Replace the acidic H of acetic acid with D B) Replace the alcoholic H of ethanol with D. C) Replace the carbonyl oxygen of acetic acid with O-18. D) Replace the hydroxyl oxygen of ethanol with O-18. - Correct Answer - D) Replace the hydroxyl oxygen of ethanol with O-18. The answer to this question is D because this experiment involves labeling a group which does not exchange with other groups present prior to reaction and will therefore give information about the true identity of the groups, which are exchanged during the reaction. A person whose eye has a lens-to-retina distance of 2.0 cm, can only clearly see objects that are closer than 1.0 m away. What is the strength S of the person's eye lens? (Note: Use the thin lens formula 1/O + 1/I = S) A) - 50 D B) - 10 D C) 51 D D) 55 D - Correct Answer - C) 51 D The answer to this question is C because the strength of the eye lens is equal to the inverse of the focal length of the eye lens. Its numerical value is given by (1 m)-1+(0.02 m)-1=1 D+50 D=51 D. Which statement correctly describes how enzymes affect chemical reactions? Stabilization of: A) the substrate changes the free energy of the reaction. B) the transition state changes the free energy of the reaction. C) the substrate changes the activation energy of the reaction. D) the transition state changes the activation energy of the reaction. - Correct Answer - D) the transition state changes the activation energy of the reaction. The answer is D because the stabilization of the transition state, not the substrate, provides binding energy that is used to lower the activation energy.

Which of the following will decrease the percentage ionization of 1.0 M acetic acid, CH3CO2H(aq)?* A) Chlorinating the CH3 group B) Diluting the solution C) Adding concentrated HCl (aq) D) Adding a drop of basic indicator - Correct Answer - C) Adding concentrated HCl (aq) The answer to this question is C because HCl is a strong acid that will increase the amount of H+ in solution and thus decrease the percentage of CH3CO2H that ionizes. When the current in the micro-robot's circuit increases and the resistance of the circuit remains constant, the voltage of the circuit: A) decreases B) increases C) is constant D) is zero - Correct Answer - B) increases V = IR The answer to this question is B because according to Ohm's law, current is equal to voltage divided by resistance. If current increases and resistance is constant, then voltage increases as well. Knowing that the speed of light in the vitreous humor is 2.1 × 108 m/s, what is the index of refraction of the vitreous humor? (Note: The speed of light in a vacuum is 3.0 × 108 m/s.) A) 0. B) 1. C) 2. D) 3.0 - Correct Answer - B) 1. n = c/v

The answer to this question is B because the index of refraction of a medium is equal to the ratio of the speed of light in vacuum to the speed of light in the medium, thus it is equal to (3.0 x 108 m/s)/(2.1 x 108 m/s) = 1.4. The intensity of the radiation emitted by the oxygen sensor is directly proportional to the: A) propagation speed of the radiation B) wavelength of the radiation C) polarization of photons emitted D) number of photons emitted - Correct Answer - D) number of photons emitted The answer to this question is D because the energy of electromagnetic radiation is directly proportional to the number of photons, and the intensity of electromagnetic radiation is defined as energy emitted per unit time. Thus, intensity is directly proportional to the number of photons emitted. What is the energy of the photons emitted by the LED at a frequency of 610 THz? (Note: h = 6.6 × 10 - 34 J·s) A) 9.2 × 10 - 12 J B) 1.6 × 10 - 16 J C) 1.1 × 10 - 18 J D) 4.0 × 10 - 19 J - Correct Answer - D) 4.0 × 10 - 19 J The answer to this question is D because the energy of a photon of frequency 610 THz is equal to 6.6 x 10 - 34 J•s x 610 x 1012 Hz = 4 x 10-19 J. What percentage of standard atmospheric pressure is the pulse pressure of a healthy adult? The maximum and minimum blood pressures of a healthy adult are about Ps = 120 mmHg and Pd = 75 mmHg.

Pp = Ps-Pd A) 10% B) 6% C) 2% D) 1% - Correct Answer - B) 6% The answer to this question is B because the pulse pressure in a healthy adult is (120 − 75) mmHg = 45 mmHg, and so the percentage is 45 mmHg/760 mmHg = 6%. What fraction of a O- 15 sample decays in 10 min? "The location of internal organs where changes in the calcium content occur can be found by placing positron-emitting isotopes such as O-15 (with a half-life = 2 min) into the patient's bloodstream) A) 1/ B) 9/ C) 3/ D) 31/32 - Correct Answer - D) 31/ The answer to this question is D because the half-life of 15O is 2 minutes; thus, 10 minutes = 5 half-lives. Therefore, only (1/2)5 = 1/32 of the sample will be left after 10 minutes, while 31/32 of the sample will decay. Compared to micellular Compound 1, Compound 2 is structurally more rigid as a result of what type of interaction? A) Intermolecular hydrogen bonding B) Intermolecular covalent bonding

C) Intramolecular hydrogen bonding D) Intramolecular covalent bonding - Correct Answer - B) Intermolecular covalent bonding The answer to this question is B. It can be reasoned that the interaction described is intermolecular in nature, since multiple molecules of micellular Compound 1 come together to form Compound 2, which is a solid. Multiple pieces of information point to the fact that the interaction is disulfide bond formation, including the fact that an oxidant causes the formation of Compound 2, which can be reversed by the addition of a reducing agent. Which amino acid was incorporated into Compound 1 as a future site of covalent attachment to HA prior to mineralization? A) Ser B) Ala C) Tyr D) Thr - Correct Answer - A) Ser Which amino acid residues were incorporated into Compound 1 to promote the adhesion of cells on the scaffold surfaces? A) Arg and Gly B) Cys and Gly C) Cys and Asp D) Asp and Arg - Correct Answer - D) Asp and Arg The answer to this question is D. The residues that were engineered into the peptide for cell adhesion are arginine and aspartate as can be reasoned based on the structure of the peptide provided, and the description of the roles of the various residues provided in the passage. The term "ideal gas" refers to a gas for which certain assumptions have been made. Which of the following is such an assumption? A) The law PV = nRT^2 is strictly obeyed.

B) Intermolecular forces are infinitely large. C) Individual molecular volume and intermolecular forces are negligible. D) One gram-mole occupies a volume of 22.4 L at 25 degrees C and one atmosphere pressure. - Correct Answer - C) Individual molecular volume and intermolecular forces are negligible. The answer to this question is C since a property of an "ideal" gas is that it is composed of particles that have negligible volume and do not exert intermolecular forces. The production of a variety of opsins functions to: "Additional opsin based receptors are expressed in specialized cone cells" A) increase sensitivity to low light B) enable the detection of different colors C) ensure fast recovery of 11 - cis retinal after exposure D) increase refractive index of the eye lens - Correct Answer - B) enable the detection of different colors The answer to this question is B. The wavelength of light absorbed by a molecule depends on its structure, and so the production of a variety of structurally related opsins functions to enable the detection of different colors. The environment of the retinal binding site is most likely: "Rhodopsin is composed of opsin, a family of seven helix transmembrane proteins, and a covalently attached coenzyme, retinal." A) hydrophilic B) positively charged C) negatively charged D) hydrophobic - Correct Answer - D) hydrophobic

The answer to this question is D because retinal is composed of mainly carbon and hydrogen, making it largely hydrophobic. The source of the phosphate groups that are added to rhodopsin is: "Wild-type or variant rhodopsin was reconstituted with 11 - cis-retinal and phosphorylated by rhodopsin kinase in the presence of ATP before examining arrestin binding" A) arrestin B) rhodopsin kinase C) ATP D) all-trans-retinol - Correct Answer - C) ATP The answer is C because the requirement of ATP for kinase activity implies the phosphate groups come from ATP. What are the hybridization states of the carbon atoms involved in the conversion of trans to cis retinal? A) sp B) sp C) sp D) sp3d - Correct Answer - B) sp he answer to this question is B because the reacting carbon atoms are both central to AX3 systems with 3 bonded atoms and no lone pairs. The preferred geometry for such a system is trigonal planar and the hybridization scheme that facilitates this geometry is sp2. Which reaction is catalyzed by LipA? A) ATP hydrolysis

B) Peptide bond cleavage C) Hydrolysis of triacylglycerides D) Transfer of carboxyl groups - Correct Answer - C) Hydrolysis of triacylglycerides The answer is C because the fact that LipA is a lipase, which means it must hydrolyze fatty acids. Compared to the wild-type LipA, what is the change in net charge in variant XI at pH 7? R33G K112D M134D Y139C I157M A) + B) + C) - 3 D) - 4 - Correct Answer - D) - 4 The answer is D because the amino acid substitutions replace amino acids with charges of +1, +1, 0, 0, and 0 with ones that have charges of 0, −1, −1, 0, and 0 so the net charge goes from +2 to −2. The data in Figure 1 show that: A) the unfolding of LipA proteins is a non-reversible process. B) exposure to high temperature eliminates any variant protein activity. C) variation in the flexible regions of LipA decreases the temperature sensitivity of activity. D) wild-type LipA loses all activity when first heated to 50°C. - Correct Answer - C) variation in the flexible regions of LipA decreases the temperature sensitivity of activity.

The answer is C because the data show that variation of the flexible regions results in less temperature sensitivity of activity. Activity returns even when variants are exposed to high temperature. By what factor is the proton concentration increased in the experiments shown in Figure 1B from those shown in Figure 1A? Figure 1A - pH 7 Figure 1B - pH 4 A) 2 B) 10 C) 200 D) 1000 - Correct Answer - D) 1000 The answer to this question is D because the pH scale is logarithmic (pH = −log([H+]). A difference of 3 pH units corresponds to a 103 = 1000-fold difference in proton concentrations. Which type of bond is formed by glycogen synthase upon release of UDP? A) α-1,4-Glycosidic bond B) α-1,6-Glycosidic bond C) β-1,4-Glycosidic bond D) β-1,6-Glycosidic bond - Correct Answer - A) α-1,4-Glycosidic bond The answer is A because the bond that is formed by glycogen synthase is the main chain linkage of glycogen, which is an α-1,4-glycosidic bond. UDP release means that only glucose was added. Which amino acid, in addition to tryptophan, is most likely to be transported by AT1? A) Phenylalanine B) Lysine C) Arginine

D) Glutamate - Correct Answer - A) Phenylalanine The answer is A because phenylalanine is a neutral amino acid just like tryptophan and shares an aromatic structure. This means it is most likely to be recognized by the same transport machinery. Based on the information in the passage, a mature AT1 mRNA is most likely to contain a sequence coding for which genetic factor(s)? A) Signal sequence B) Introns C) Promoter D) Nuclear localization signal - Correct Answer - A) Signal sequence The answer to this question is A. The passage indicates that AT1 is a transmembrane protein. Transmembrane proteins enter the endomembrane system by docking at the rough ER. This is facilitated by using a signal sequence. Mature mRNAs are not likely to contain introns (B) or promoter sequences (C). A nuclear localization signal permits proteins to enter the nucleus. This is not likely for a transmembrane protein (D). Pellagra also results from a deficiency of nicotinamide, which is synthesized from tryptophan. Nicotinamide nucleotides are neither oxidized nor reduced during which step of cellular respiration? A) Glycolysis B) Chemiosmosis C) Citric acid cycle D) Electron transport chain - Correct Answer - B) Chemiosmosis The answer is B because NAD+ is the oxidized form, and NADH is the reduced form of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide. NAD+ is neither reduced to form NADH, nor is NADH oxidized to form NAD+ specifically during chemiosmosis. If a man with a mutant copy of Ace2 has a child with a woman that is heterozygous for the mutant Ace allele, what is the probability that the child will be a female and homozygous for the mutant Ace2 allele?

"loss-of-function mutations in the X-linked Ace2 gene" A) 0 B) 0. C) 0. D) 1 - Correct Answer - B) 0. The answer to this question is B because a cross between an affected male and an unaffected female carrier will produce an affected female approximately 25% of the time. During the initiation of muscle contraction, mysosin binds actin after troponin binds to which ion? A) H+ B) K+ C) Na+ D) Ca2+ - Correct Answer - D) Ca2+ The answer to this question is D because during the initiation of muscle contraction, free Ca2+ in the cytosol binds to troponin, which pulls tropomyosin away from actin's myosin-binding site. This allows myosin to bind to actin. The other ions are not involved in actin-myosin binding. What is the total number of fused rings present in a steroid? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 6 - Correct Answer - C) 4 The answer to this question is C because a steroid is defined by its fused 4 - ring structure. Epilepsy may result in motor seizures due to massive synchronous firing of neurons in a small area of the cerebral cortex (the epileptic focus). Excitation spreads from the focus, involving an increasingly larger

area of the cortex. A drug for the treatment of epilepsy would be most effective if it caused which of the following changes in the epileptic focus? A) An increase in the neuron-firing threshold B) An increase in extracellular Na+ concentration C) A decrease in axon-membrane permeability negative ions D) A decrease in the length of the depolarization stage - Correct Answer - A) An increase in the neuron- firing threshold A drug that would best treat epilepsy, as described, should reduce the activity of the neurons in the epileptic focus, which are excitatory neurons based on their effect throughout the cortex. The answer to this question is A because increasing the threshold required to generate an action potential would decrease the chance that individual neurons would fire, thus reducing the overall amount of excitation that spreads from the epileptic focus throughout the cortex. When concentrated urine is being produced, in which of the following regions of the kidney will the glomerular filtrate reach its highest concentration? A) Proximal convoluted tubule B) Distal convoluted tubule C) Cortical portion of the collecting duct D) Medullary portion of the collecting duct - Correct Answer - D) Medullary portion of the collecting duct The answer is D because glomerular filtrate is most concentrated in the medullary portion of the collecting duct, compared to the other kidney structures listed. What aspect of Experiment 1 does NOT address whether membrane composition has an effect on Na+K+ ATPase activity? The activity of the Na+K+ ATPase: A) showed less temperature dependence in the 14:1 liposome than the 14:0 liposome B) was highest in the 14:0 liposomes at all temperatures C) increased with temperature in both the 14:1 liposome and the 14:0 liposome D) was greater at all temperatures when cholesterol was present - Correct Answer - C) increased with temperature in both the 14:1 liposome and the 14:0 liposome

The answer is C because the researchers were not trying to show that protein activity increases with temperature, which is an expected result of all kinetic studies assuming the protein does not thermally denature. Which approach does NOT measure the activity of the Na+K+ ATPase? A) Measuring the rate of ATP hydrolysis B) Measuring the free energy of the ion transport C) Measuring the rate of ADP production D) Measuring the change in ion concentration within the liposome - Correct Answer - B) Measuring the free energy of the ion transport The answer to this question is B because free energy is a thermodynamic quantity and is NOT a kinetic property. Activity is a kinetic property. In addition to glucose, what other monosaccharide is part of the UDP-glucose structure? A) Xylose B) Fructose C) Ribose D) Arabinose - Correct Answer - C) Ribose The answer is C because UDP contains uridine, which is a nucleic acid used in RNA. The structure of RNA contains ribose. Addition of laforin to the reaction mixtures used to generate the data in Figure 2 will result in: "LBs contain a much larger amount of covalently-linked phosphate compared to normal glycogen."

A) a decrease in the intensity of the band representing WT without glucosidase when visualized with 14C decay. B) an increase in the intensity of the band representing WT without glucosidase when visualized with 14C decay. C) a decrease in the intensity of the band representing WT without glucosidase when visualized with 32P decay. D) an increase in the intensity of the band representing WT without glucosidase when visualized with 32P decay. - Correct Answer - C) a decrease in the intensity of the band representing WT without glucosidase when visualized with 32P decay. The answer is C because laforin is an enzyme that removes phosphate from glycogen. Presumably, the removal of phosphate prior to gel electrophoresis will result in a smaller band corresponding to 32P incorporation. The radioactive decay described in the passage results in the formation of which two atoms? "The reaction products were separated by SDS-PAGE and visualized by autoradiography that detects the products of B- decay." C- 14 and P- 32 A) N and S B) B and Si C) B and S D) N and Si - Correct Answer - A) N and S The answer to this question is A because the type of radioactive decay is b- 1 so a neutron is converted into a proton, which results in carbon becoming nitrogen and phosphorus becoming sulfur. Compared to normal glycogen, the amount of what type of bond is decreased in Lafora bodies?

"Lafora disease is a fatal progressive epilepsy that is characterized by the formation of deposits of sparsely branched, insoluble glycogen-like polymers called Lafora bodies" A) Phosphomonoester B) Phosphodiester C) a-1,4-glycosidic bond D) a-1,6-glycosidic bond - Correct Answer - D) a-1,6-glycosidic bond The answer D because it is stated in the passage that the lack of branching is a characteristic of Lafora bodies. Branching occurs through an α-1,6-glycosidic bond in glycogen. Each of the following equations shows the dissociation of an acid in water. Which of the reactions occurs to the LEAST extent? A) HCl + H2O → H3O+ + Cl− B) HPO42− + H2O → H3O+ + PO43− C) H2SO4 + H2O → H3O+ + HSO4− D) H3PO4 + H2O → H3O+ + H2PO4− - Correct Answer - B) HPO42− + H2O → H3O+ + PO43− The answer to this question is B. HPO42− has a high negative charge and so dissociation of it will occur to the least extent. Gamma decay occurs when a nucleus emits: A) a photon B) a proton C) a neutron D) an electron - Correct Answer - A) a photon The answer to this question is A because, by definition, gamma decay means the emission of photons by the nucleus.

When a 0.1 M H2SO4 solution is added to pulverized blackboard chalk, the following reaction takes place. CaCO3(s) + H2SO4(aq) --> CaSO4(s) + CO2(g) + H2O(l) At 25°C, the reaction is spontaneous and has: A) negative ΔG° and positive ΔS°. B) negative ΔG° and negative ΔS°. C) positive ΔG° and negative ΔS°. D) positive ΔG° and positive ΔS°. - Correct Answer - A) negative ΔG° and positive ΔS°. The answer to this question is A because spontaneous reactions must have a negative ΔG°, and reaction that create gaseous products from solids and liquids must have a positive ΔS°. Which of the following diagrams does NOT illustrate a function of an automobile catalyst converter? "The catalyst aids in the conversions of carbon monoxide to carbon dioxide, hydrocarbons to carbon dioxide and water, and nitric oxide to nitrogen gas. Unfortunately, catalytic converters also can catalyze the oxidation of SO2 to SO3, which subsequently reacts with moisture to form unwanted sulfuric acid." A) CH4 --> CO2 + H2O B) CO --> CO C) SO3 --> SO2 + H2O D) NO --> N2 - Correct Answer - C) SO3 --> SO2 + H2O The answer to this question is C because this response depicts a chemical transformation that is NOT catalyzed by an automobile's catalytic converter.

Which of the following most likely will occur if a homogeneous catalyst CANNOT be separated from the products at the end of a reaction? A) The catalyst will become heterogeneous. B) The products will be contaminated. C) The reaction will not occur. D) The reaction rate will speed up. - Correct Answer - B) The products will be contaminated. The answer to this question is B. If a homogeneous catalyst cannot be separated from the products at the end of a reaction then the products will be contaminated with the catalyst. How will the rate of a catalyzed reaction be affected if the solid catalyst is finely ground before it is added to the reaction mixture? A) The rate will be faster because a greater mass of catalyst will be present. B) The rate will be faster because a greater surface area of catalyst will be exposed. C) The rate will be slower because the fine catalyst particles will interfere with product formation. D) The rate will remain the same because the mass of catalyst will be the same. - Correct Answer - B) The rate will be faster because a greater surface area of catalyst will be exposed. The answer to this question is B because grinding a heterogeneous catalyst increases the amount of catalyst available to the reaction and therefore increases its rate. A student can most effectively increase the current passing through the circuit in Figure 2 by doing which of the following? A) Using electrical wire with a smaller diameter B) Increasing the temperature of the electrical wire C) Decreasing the concentrations of Xn+(aq) and Ym+(aq) D) Replacing the lightbulb with one that has a resistance of 0.2 Ω - Correct Answer - D) Replacing the lightbulb with one that has a resistance of 0.2 Ω

The answer to this question is D because according to Ohm's law, current is equal to voltage divided by resistance. In order to increase the current when the voltage fixed, the resistance must be decreased, such as by replacing the light-bulb with one that has a resistance of 0.2 W instead of 0.5 W. When a strip of Zn is placed in a beaker containing 0.1 M HCl, H2(g) evolves. If a strip of Al is placed in a beaker containing 0.1 M HCl, does H2(g) evolve? A) Yes; Al is reduced and H+(aq) is oxidized. B) Yes; Al is oxidized and H+(aq) is reduced. C) No; Al is reduced and Cl-(aq) is oxidized D) No; Al is oxidized and H2O(l) is produced. - Correct Answer - B) Yes; Al is oxidized and H+(aq) is reduced. The answer to this question is B. Since a new solid forms when Al(s) is mixed with Zn2+(aq), it is reasonable to assume that Al(s) is more susceptible to oxidation than Zn(s). Assume that a circuit similar to that in Figure 2 is set up in which X = Al, Xn+ = Al3+, Y = Cu, and Ym+ = Cu2+. Which of the following reactions will occur?* A) 2Al3+(aq) + 3Cu(s) → 2Al(s) + 3Cu2+(aq) B) 3Al3+(aq) + 2Cu(s) → 3Al(s) + 2Cu2+(aq) C) 2Al(s) + 3Cu2+(aq) → 2Al3+(aq) + 3Cu(s) D) 3Al(s) + 2Cu2+(aq) → 3Al3+(aq) + 2Cu(s) - Correct Answer - C) 2Al(s) + 3Cu2+(aq) → 2Al3+(aq) + 3Cu(s) The answer to this question is C because this response depicts the balanced chemical reaction that occurs when the four substances [Al(s), Al3+(aq), Cu(s), and Cu2+(aq)] are mixed. A circuit similar to that in Figure 2 is set up in which X = Pb, Xn+ = Pb2+, Y = Cu, and Ym+ = Cu2+. Will an oxidation-reduction reaction occur spontaneously?* Pb2+(aq) + 2e- → Pb(s) E°red = - 0.127 V

Cu2+(aq) + 2e- → Cu(s) E°red = +0.339 V A) No; E°cell = - 0.212. B) No; E°cell = +0.212. C) Yes; E°cell = - 0.466. D) Yes; E°cell = +0.466. - Correct Answer - D) Yes; E°cell = +0.466. The answer to this question is D. A spontaneous reaction occurs when E° is greater than zero, and this occurs if the oxidation of Pb(s) is combined with the reduction of Cu2+(aq), resulting in a net E° of +0.466 V. A circuit similar to that in Figure 2 is set up. It has a potential of 2.0 V. Assume that the resistance in the circuit is negligible compared to that of the lightbulb. Approximately how much current passes through the lightbulb? Resistance = 0.5 ohms A) 0.5 A B) 1.0 A C) 2.0 A D) 4.0 A - Correct Answer - D) 4.0 A The answer to this question is D because according to Ohm's law, current is equal to voltage divided by resistance, hence 2.0 V/0.5 Ω = 4.0 A. The equilibrium BaCrO4(s) --> Ba2+(aq) + CrO42-(aq)

exists in a saturated aqueous solution of BaCrO4. Dissolution of Na2CrO4 in a saturated aqueous BaCrO4 solution would: A) have no effect on the position of this equilibrium B) shift this equilibrium left C) shift this equilibrium right D) shift this equilibrium first right and then left - Correct Answer - B) shift this equilibrium left The answer to this question is B because dissolution of Na2CrO4 would introduce the common ion, CrO42-, which would reduce the solubility of BaCrO4 due to the common ion effect. What volume of a 0.120 M CaI2 solution would contain 0.078 mol of the solute? A) 35.0 mL B) 65.0 mL C) 350 mL D) 650 mL - Correct Answer - D) 650 mL The answer to this question is D. In order to obtain the volume of solution necessary to provide a given amount of solute in moles, one needs to take the number of moles and divide by the solution concentration in molarity. Which measurement unit CANNOT be used to express power? A) kg x m^2 x s^2 B) J x s^- 1 C) ft x lb x s^- 1 D) W - Correct Answer - A) kg x m^2 x s^2 The answer to this question is A because the measurement unit of power is watt, defined as J/s = ft•lb/s = kg•m2/s3.

CARS: Consider that some groups are defined as "cults"; members of these extremist sects generally live communally and obey an authoritarian, charismatic leader. Assume that all cults have fewer than 100 members. This information would tend to weaken the passage's assertions about the: A) ability of great orators to sway large groups B) loss of personality and sense of responsibility C) difficulties involved in convening large assemblies D) reasonableness of small groups compared to large groups - Correct Answer - D) reasonableness of small groups compared to large groups The answer is D, because the question describes a small group in which people "obey an authoritarian, charismatic leader." In the passage, however, the author claims that a "great multitude" is more likely to succumb to "unreflective enthusiasm... than is a small meeting" (paragraph 2). So if the cults that the question describes are small groups of fewer than 100 members, this would weaken passage claims about the more considered behavior of small groups when compared to larger ones. CARS: The passage assertion that a dead poet is "owned without opposition" (paragraph 3) probably means that: A) the poet is no longer able to challenge the public's response to the poet's life and work B) other writers will no longer oppose the poet's views C) readers will no longer intrude on the poet's private life. D) the poet's admirers will buy up all the poet's books and relics - Correct Answer - A) the poet is no longer able to challenge the public's response to the poet's life and work The answer is A, because, before claiming that a dead poet is "owned without opposition," the author writes, "if you [have] the misfortune to be dead as well as famous, matters are less under your control..

. The dead poet has been ingested by his readers; from now on he will be read, admired, and loved in a different way." "Ingested by his readers" clearly implies that readers have taken over the subjectivity of the dead author. The dead author is unable to determine how he is perceived and represented by fans. CARS: Which of the following facts cited in the passage gives the strongest support for the claim that Portuguese liberals were in the minority politically? A) The queen and her son were opposed to them.