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A&P Final Practice Exam Questions with Answers Latest 2024-2025 Updates, Exams of Biology

A&P Final Practice Exam Questions with Answers Latest 2024-2025 Updates

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 07/11/2024

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Download A&P Final Practice Exam Questions with Answers Latest 2024-2025 Updates and more Exams Biology in PDF only on Docsity!

A&P Final Practice Exam Questions with

Answers Latest 2024-2025 Updates

1. A heart rate of 125 beats per minute could be correctly termed Select one:

a. an arrhythmia.

b. fibrillation.

c. tachycardia.

d. bradycardia.

e. a normal resting heart rate.: c. tachycardia.

2. As blood vessel length increases, Select

one:

a. both resistance and flow increase.

b. flow decreases only.

c. resistance increases and flow decreases.

d. resistance increases only.

e. friction decreases only.: c. resistance increases and flow decreases.

3. At an intercalated disc,

Select one:

a. All of the answers are correct.

b. the cell membranes of two cardiac muscle fibers are completely separated by a synapse.

c. two cardiac muscle cells are connected by gap junctions.

d. t-tubules unite the membranes of the adjoining cells.

e. the myofibrils are loosely attached to the membrane of the disc.: c. two cardiac muscle cells

are connected by gap junctions.

4. In order for blood to enter the heart, Select

one:

a. the atria must not only be at rest but the atrial pressure must be lower than the veins.

b. the AV valves must be open.

c. the atria must be in diastole.

d. All of the answers are correct.

e. the pressure in the atria must be lower than in the veins.: a. the atria must not only be at rest

but the atrial pressure must be lower than the veins.

5. In the condition known as complete heart block, what happens? Select one:

a. The mitral valve leaflets calcify and close, preventing blood from being pumped efficiently by

the left side of the heart.

b. The fibrous skeleton of the heart breaks down, interfering with the passage of blood from the atria

to the ventricles.

c. Blood flow through the foramen ovale is blocked.

d. Coronary arteries are blocked by plaques, preventing blood and oxygen from reaching the

myocardial contractile cells.

e. Electrical signals from the SA node never reach the ventricles, so the con- traction of the atria is

not coordinated with the contraction of the ventricles.: e. Electrical signals from the SA node never reach the ventricles, so the contraction of the atria is not coordinated with the contraction of the ventricles.

6. The action potential in a cardiac contractile cell causes Select one:

a. opening of ryanodine receptor calcium channels.

b. activation of NCX transporters.

c. activation of sodium-potassium ATPase.

d. opening of HCN channels.

e. opening of L-type calcium channels.: e. opening of L-type calcium channels.

7. The action potentials of myocardial autorhythmic

cells, are due to a combi- nation of increasing Na2+ and decreasing K+. Select one:

a. efflux, influx

b. influx, efflux

c. influx, influx

d. efflux, efflux: b. influx, efflux

8. The fibrous skeleton of the heart is important because it Select one:

a. helps guide the blood into the proper chambers in sequence.

b. transmits electrical activity from the atria to the ventricles.

c. forces electrical activity to be conducted through the atrioventricular node.

d. directs the flow of blood into the arteries.: c. forces electrical activity to be conducted

through the atrioventricular node.

9. The P wave of an ECG corresponds to Select

one:

a. the depolarization of the atria.

b. None of the answers are correct.

c. the progressive wave of ventricular depolarization.

d. atrial repolarization.

e. the repolarization of the ventricles.: a. the depolarization of the atria.

10. The purpose of having valves in the cardiovascular system is to Select one:

a. provide sounds so that heart health can be monitored.

b. ensure that blood flows in one direction.

c. prevent blood from flowing too quickly.

d. regulate blood pressure.

e. provide the force for circulation.: b. ensure that blood flows in one direction.

11. The rapid depolarization phase of the action potentials of myocardial contractile cells is

due to which ion(s)? Select one:

a. K+ only

b. Na+ only

c. both Na+ and K+

d. Ca2+ only

e. both Ca2+ and K+: b. Na+ only

12. The sac around the heart is the Select

one:

a. epicardium.

b. peritoneum.

c. pleural sac.

d. pericardium.

e. myocardium: d. pericardium.

13. The volume of blood ejected from each ventricle during a contraction is called the

Select one:

a. cardiac output.

b. end-systolic volume.

c. end-diastolic volume.

d. cardiac reserve.

e. stroke volume.: e. stroke volume.

14. Which of the following statements about hydrostatic pressure is NOT true? Select one:

a. Hydrostatic pressure does not include the dynamic component of a moving fluid.

b. Force is not equal in all directions.

c. The lateral pressure component of moving fluid represents the hydrostatic pressure.

d. All of the statements are true.

e. If a fluid is not moving, the pressure that it exerts is called hydrostatic pressure.: b. Force is

not equal in all directions.

15. Which valves have chordae tendineae? Select one:

a. bicuspid (mitral) and tricuspid valves

b. semilunar valves

c. coronary valves

d. aortic and pulmonary valves

e. valves in veins: a. bicuspid (mitral) and tricuspid valves

16. All of the following would cause an increase in blood pressure EXCEPT Select one:

a. sympathetic stimulation.

b. an increase in arterial resistance.

c. a decrease in cardiac output.

d. a decrease in arterial diameter.: c. a decrease in cardiac output.

17. Blood flow to a tissue will increase if the Select one:

a. level of carbon dioxide at the tissue increases.

b. All of the answers are correct.

c. pH rises.

d. level of oxygen at the tissue increases.

e. vessels constrict.: a. level of carbon dioxide at the tissue increases.

18. Each of the following factors would increase peripheral resistance EX- CEPT one. Identify

the exception. Select one:

a. increased sympathetic stimulation

b. vasodilation

c. elevated levels of epinephrine

d. factors that cause increased hematocrit

e. irregularities in the vessel walls caused by plaques: b. vasodilation

19. Each of the following paracrines may cause vasodilation EXCEPT Select one:

a. H+ ions from metabolic acids.

b. K+.

c. Ca2+.

d. nitric oxide.

e. CO2.: c. Ca2+.

20. In order to cause vasodilation of most vascular smooth muscle, Select one:

a. norepinephrine combines with alpha receptors.

b. sympathetic stimulation is removed.

c. acetylcholine combines with muscarinic receptors.

d. acetylcholine combines with nicotinic receptors.: b. sympathetic stimulation is removed.

21. Osmotic pressure resulting from presence of plasma proteins in blood is called

pressure. Select one:

a. colloid osmotic and hydrostatic

b. hydrostatic

c. oncotic and colloid osmotic

d. colloid osmotic

e. oncotic: c. oncotic and colloid osmotic

22. Restoring lost fluid from the capillaries

back to the circulatory system is one of the major functions of the system. Select one:

a. immune

b. digestive

c. lymphatic

d. thirst-quenching

e. urinary: c. lymphatic

23. The cardiovascular control center in the brain can directly cause Select one:

a. arterioles to dilate or constrict and the heart rate to increase or decrease.

b. arterioles to dilate or constrict.

c. the contractility of the heart to increase or decrease.

d. All of the answers are correct.

e. the heart rate to increase or decrease.: a. arterioles to dilate or constrict and the heart rate to

increase or decrease.

24. The inner lining of blood vessels is called Select one:

a. endostatin.

b. endothelium.

c. endocardium.

d. basal lamina.

e. endoangium.: b. endothelium.

25. The integrating center for neural control of blood pressure resides in the Select one:

a. pons variolli.

b. cerebellum.

c. hypothalamus.

d. medulla oblongata.

e. cerebrum.: d. medulla oblongata.

26. The mean arterial pressure (MAP) is important because Select one:

a. it forces the practitioner to do math, thus they must pay attention to the values obtained.

b. it reflects the difference in time that systole lasts compared to diastole.

c. it represents the driving pressure for blood flow and it reflects the difference in time that systole

lasts compared to diastole.

d. it represents the driving pressure for blood flow.

e. All of the answers are correct.: d. it represents the driving pressure for blood flow.

27. When the baroreceptor reflex is triggered by a decline in blood pressure, Select one:

a. sympathetic activity increases.

b. sympathetic activity increases, cardiac output increases, and peripheral resistance decreases.

c. sympathetic activity increases and cardiac output increases.

d. peripheral resistance decreases.

e. cardiac output increases.: c. sympathetic activity increases and cardiac output increases.

28. Which of the following conditions would have the greatest effect on periph- eral resistance?

Select one:

a. doubling the viscosity of the blood

b. doubling the turbulence of the blood

c. doubling the length of a vessel

d. doubling the number of white cells in the blood

e. doubling the diameter of a vessel: e. doubling the diameter of a vessel

29. Which of the following is occurring during systole? Select one:

a. pulse pressure decreases

b. blood pressure increases

c. more stress is placed on arterial walls

d. blood pressure increases and more stress is placed on arterial walls

e. blood pressure increases and pulse pressure decreases: d. blood pressure increases and more

stress is placed on arterial walls

30. capillaries are very porous and allow high

volumes of fluids to pass through them, whereas capillaries consist of more tightly joined cells that allow a high degree of selective materials to pass. Select one:

a. Transcytotic, continuous

b. Continuous, fenestrated

c. Transcytotic, fenestrated

d. Fenestrated, transcytotic

e. Fenestrated, continuous: e. Fenestrated, continuous

31. A hematocrit is used to indicate Select

one:

a. the ratio of red blood cells to the total blood volume and the packed cell

volume.

b. only the ratio of red blood cells to the total blood volume.

c. All of the answers are correct.

d. only coagulation time.

e. only the packed cell volume.: a. the ratio of red blood cells to the total blood volume and

the packed cell volume.

32. A hemoglobin molecule is composed of Select one:

a. four protein chains and four heme groups.

b. four heme groups but no protein.

c. just four protein chains and nothing else.

d. just three protein chains.

e. just two protein chains.: a. four protein chains and four heme groups.

33. Colony-stimulating factors are cytokines made by Select one:

a. fibroblasts from bone marrow.

b. white blood cells only.

c. endothelial cells.

d. endothelial cells and fibroblasts from bone marrow.

e. endothelial cells, fibroblasts from bone marrow, and white blood cells.: e. endothelial cells,

fibroblasts from bone marrow, and white blood cells.

34. Excess iron in the body is Select

one:

a. All of the answers are correct.

b. found in white blood cells.

c. stored in bones.

d. eliminated in the feces.

e. stored in fatty tissues.: d. eliminated in the feces.

35. How would a decrease in the concentration of iron in the blood affect the process of

hemostasis? Select one:

a. Platelet plugs would fail to form.

b. Coagulation would proceed more rapidly.

c. Retraction would occur prematurely.

d. Coagulation would proceed more slowly.

e. There would be no effect.: e. There would be no effect.

36. Mast cells in tissues are considered to be a type of Select one:

a. lymphocyte.

b. monocyte.

c. neutrophil.

d. basophil.

e. eosinophil.: d. basophil.

37. Platelets function in

Select one:

a. contraction after clot formation.

b. All of the answers are correct.

c. forming temporary patches in injured areas.

d. transporting chemicals important for clotting.

e. initiating the clotting process.: b. All of the answers are correct.

38. Red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone Select one:

a. angiotensin I.

b. thymosin.

c. M-CSF.

d. erythropoietin.

e. cobalamin.: d. erythropoietin.

39. The average life span of a red blood cell is Select one:

a. 4 months.

b. 1 month.

c. 1 week.

d. 1 year.

e. 6 months.: a. 4 months.

40. The most abundant proteins in blood plasma are Select one:

a. lipoproteins.

b. transport proteins.

c. fibrinogens.

d. globulins.

e. albumins.: e. albumins.

41. The primary stimulus for the release of erythropoietin is Select one:

a. hypoxemia only.

b. hypoxemia and low oxygen levels in the tissues.

c. low oxygen levels in the tissues only.

d. low blood pressure only.

e. hypoxemia, low oxygen levels in the tissues, and low blood pressure.: b. hypoxemia and low

oxygen levels in the tissues.

42. The process of fibrinolysis Select

one:

a. draws torn edges of damaged tissue closer together.

b. forms emboli.

c. dissolves clots.

d. forms thrombi.

e. activates fibrinogen.: c. dissolves clots.

43. Under normal circumstances, aged and damaged erythrocytes are broken down by the

Select one:

a. spleen.

b. thymus gland.

c. digestive tract.

d. kidneys.

e. yellow bone marrow.: a. spleen.

44. Which of the following is/are vasoconstrictors? Select one:

a. serotonin

b. adenosine diphosphate

c. platelet-activating factor

d. serotonin and thromboxane A

e. thromboxane A2: d. serotonin and thromboxane A

45. are a group of diseases

characterized by the abnormal growth and development of white blood cells, and are diseases where

patients have too few white blood cells. Select one:

a. Leukemias, neutropenias

b. Leukemias, anemias

c. Neutropenias, anemias

d. Anemias, leukemias

e. Neutropenias, leukemias: a. Leukemias, neutropenias

46. A typical

value for intrapleural pressure is mm Hg. Select one: a. 0 b. + c. - d. + e. -6: c. -

47. Alveolar ventilation refers to the Select

one:

a. utilization of oxygen by alveolar cells to support metabolism.

b. movement of air into and out of the lungs.

c. movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood.

d. movement of air into and out of the alveoli.

e. movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the alveoli.: d. movement of air into and out of

the alveoli.

48. An increase in PCO2 would cause Select

one:

a. None of the answers are correct.

b. the bronchioles to dilate and the systemic arterioles to constrict.

c. the bronchioles to constrict and the systemic arterioles to dilate.

d. the bronchioles to dilate and the systemic arterioles to dilate.

e. the bronchioles to constrict and the systemic arterioles to constrict.: d. the bronchioles to dilate

and the systemic arterioles to dilate.

49. Boyle's law states that gas volume is Select

one:

a. inversely proportional to temperature.

b. inversely proportional to pressure.

c. directly proportional to pressure.

d. directly proportional to temperature.

e. None of the answers are correct.: b. inversely proportional to pressure.

50. C

hronic inhalation of fine particles that reach the alveoli leads to lung disease. Select one:

a. fibrotic

b. restrictive

c. compliant

d. obstructive

e. congestive: a. fibrotic

51. Damage to the type II cells of the lungs would contribute to Select one:

a. an increased rate of gas exchange.

b. decreased surface tension in the water lining the alveoli.

c. alveolar collapse.

d. a thickening of the respiratory membrane.

e. alveolar rupture.: c. alveolar collapse.

52. If a student inhales as deeply as possible and then blows the air out until he cannot exhale any

more, the amount of air that he expelled is his Select one:

a. expiratory reserve volume.

b. inspiratory reserve volume.

c. tidal volume.

d. minimal volume.

e. vital capacity.: e. vital capacity.

53. In a condition known as pleurisy, there is excess fluid in the pleural space. How would you

expect this to affect the process of pulmonary ventilation? Select one:

a. Ventilation would require less energy.

b. Tidal volume would increase.

c. It would be easier to expand the lungs on inspiration.

d. Breathing would be labored and difficult.

e. More air would be forced out during expiration.: d. Breathing would be labored and difficult.

54. Joe is playing in an intramural football game when he is tackled so hard that he breaks a rib. He

can actually feel a piece of the rib sticking through the skin, and he is having a difficult time breathing. Joe probably is suffering from Select one:

a. a pneumothorax.

b. a bruised diaphragm.

c. a collapsed trachea.

d. an obstruction in the bronchi.

e. decreased surfactant production.: a. a pneumothorax.

55. Pressure and volume of gas in

a container are related to temperature and number of gas molecules. This is known as law. Select one:

a. Henry's

b. Ohm's

c. Dalton's

d. the ideal gas

e. Boyle's: d. the ideal gas

56. Surfactant

Select one:

a. helps prevent the alveoli from collapsing.

b. phagocytizes small particulate matter.

c. is not found in healthy lung tissue.

d. replaces mucus in the alveoli.

e. protects the surface of the lungs.: a. helps prevent the alveoli from collapsing.

57. The lower respiratory tract includes Select

one:

a. all of the bronchial branches.

b. all of the bronchial branches, the lungs, and the trachea.

c. only the trachea.

d. only the lungs.

e. all of the bronchial branches and the lungs.: e. all of the bronchial branches and the lungs.

58. The lungs are

enclosed in membranes. Select one:

a. thoracic

b. pleural

c. costal

d. pericardial

e. pulmonary: b. pleural

59. The respiratory rate times the tidal volume corrected for dead space is the Select one:

a. alveolar ventilation rate.

b. external respiration rate.

c. respiratory minute volume.

d. pulmonary ventilation rate.

e. vital capacity.: a. alveolar ventilation rate.

60. When the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract, Select one:

a. the lungs collapse.

b. the volume of the lungs decreases.

c. the volume of the thorax decreases.

d. expiration occurs.

e. the volume of the thorax increases.: e. the volume of the thorax increases.

61. A molecule that blocks the activity of carbonic anhydrase would Select one:

a. decrease the amount of carbon dioxide dissolved in the plasma.

b. cause an increase in blood pH.

c. increase the amount of bicarbonate formed in the blood.

d. interfere with oxygen binding to hemoglobin.

e. All of the answers are correct.: b. cause an increase in blood pH.

62. An increase in the level of carbon dioxide in the blood will Select one:

a. increase the pH of arterial blood.

b. decrease the rate of breathing.

c. increase the rate of breathing.

d. decrease pulmonary ventilation.

e. decrease the alveolar ventilation rate.: c. increase the rate of breathing.

63. Blocking afferent action potentials from the chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies

would interfere with the brain's ability to regulate breathing

in response to all EXCEPT which of the following? Select one:

a. All of the answers are correct.

b. changes in blood pressure

c. changes in PO

d. changes in PCO

e. changes in pH due to carbon dioxide levels: b. changes in blood pressure

64. Carbon dioxide is more soluble in water than oxygen. To get the same amount of oxygen to

dissolve in plasma as carbon dioxide, you would have to Select one:

a. increase the rate of plasma flow through the lungs.

b. increase the partial pressure of oxygen.

c. decrease the partial pressure of nitrogen.

d. decrease the temperature of the plasma.

e. decrease the alveolar ventilation rate.: b. increase the partial pressure of oxygen.

65. Chronic hypoxia

Select one:

a. increases 2,3-DPG production in blood and can result from anemia.

b. can be caused by anemia.

c. increases 2,3-DPG production in blood.

d. All of the answers are correct.

e. shifts the HbO2 dissociation curve to the left.: a. increases 2,3-DPG produc- tion in blood and

can result from anemia.

66. For maximum efficiency in loading oxygen at the lungs, Select one:

a. the pH should be slightly acidic.

b. the temperature should be slightly lower than normal body temperature.

c. the PO2 should be about 70 mm.

d. DPG levels in the red blood cells should be high.

e. All of the answers are correct.: b. the temperature should be slightly lower than normal body

temperature.

67. In the medulla oblongata, the nucleus tractus solitarius contains the

of neurons. Select one:

a. pontine respiratory group

b. ventral respiratory group

c. pre-Botzinger complex

d. dorsal respiratory group: d. dorsal respiratory group

68. Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is transported as Select one:

a. bicarbonate ions.

b. solute dissolved in the cytoplasm of red blood cells.

c. solute dissolved in the plasma.

d. carbonic acid.

e. carbaminohemoglobin.: a. bicarbonate ions.

69. Of the factors that influence diffusion of respiratory gases, the most vari- able and, therefore,

important factor to consider is the Select one:

a. concentration gradient.

b. membrane thickness.

c. membrane surface area.

d. diffusion distance.

e. electrical charge.: a. concentration gradient.

70. Protective reflexes of the lungs include Select one:

a. bronchoconstriction.

b. coughing and bronchoconstriction.

c. bronchodilation.

d. coughing.

e. bronchodilation and coughing.: b. coughing and bronchoconstriction.

71. The expiratory neurons control the muscles,

whereas the inspi- ratory neurons control the muscles. Select one:

a. diaphragm and abdominal, intercostal internal and external

b. diaphragm and internal intercostal, abdominal and external intercostal

c. abdominal and internal intercostal, diaphragm and external intercostal

d. abdominal and external intercostal, diaphragm and internal intercostal

e. diaphragm and external intercostal, abdominal and internal intercostal: c. abdominal and

internal intercostal, diaphragm and external intercostal

72. The Hering-Breuer reflex Select

one:

a. is an important aspect of normal, quiet breathing.

b. functions to increase ventilation with changes in blood pressure.

c. alters pulmonary ventilation when the PCO2 changes.

d. alters pulmonary ventilation when the PO2 changes.

e. prevents overexpansion of the lungs.: e. prevents overexpansion of the lungs.

73. The most important chemical regulator of respiration is Select one:

a. hemoglobin.

b. sodium ion.

c. bicarbonate ion.

d. oxygen.

e. carbon dioxide.: e. carbon dioxide.

74. Which of the following characteristics makes hemoglobin's structure such a good match for its

function as an oxygen carrier? Select one:

a. Each hemoglobin binds irreversibly to an oxygen molecule.

b. Each hemoglobin molecule can bind four oxygen molecules.

c. Each hemoglobin molecule can bind one oxygen molecule.

d. Each hemoglobin molecule can bind two oxygen molecules.

e. Each hemoglobin molecule can't be saturated by oxygen molecules.: b. Each hemoglobin

molecule can bind four oxygen molecules.

75. Which of the following would make the oxygen-hemoglobin curve shift right?

Select one:

a. increased pH

b. decreased temperature

c. None of the answers are correct.

d. increased H+ concentration

e. decreased CO2: d. increased H+ concentration

76. An obstruction in a glomerulus would affect the flow of blood into the Select one:

a. renal artery.

b. afferent arteriole.

c. renal vein.

d. efferent arteriole.: d. efferent arteriole.

77. Contents in the peritubular capillaries are actively transported into proxi- mal and distal

convoluted tubules in a process known as Select one:

a. reabsorption.

b. filtration.

c. secretion.

d. excretion.: c. secretion.

78. Cysts on the kidney can press upon nephrons, raising the pressure inside the nephrons. How

will this affect glomerular filtration rate and blood pres- sure? Select one:

a. GFR increases and blood pressure decreases

b. GFR increases and blood pressure increases

c. GFR decreases and blood pressure increases

d. GFR decreases and blood pressure decreases: c. GFR decreases and blood pressure increases

79. Damage to the renal medulla would interfere first with the functioning of the

Select one:

a. proximal tubule.

b. glomerulus.

c. distal tubule.

d. collecting ducts.

e. Bowman's capsule.: d. collecting ducts.

80. If blood flow through the afferent arterioles increases, Select one:

a. the smooth muscle in the vessel walls stretches to accommodate the increased flow.

b. stretch reflexes trigger vasoconstriction to reduce the flow.

c. the stretch triggers further relaxation of the arteriolar wall, lessening blood

pressure.

d. the smooth muscle in the vessel walls stretches to accommodate the increased flow and the

stretch triggers further relaxation of the arteriolar wall, lessening blood pressure.: b. stretch reflexes trigger vasoconstriction to reduce the flow.

81. In a normal kidney, which of the following conditions would cause an increase in the

glomerular filtration rate (GFR)? Select one:

a. a decrease in the net glomerular filtration pressure

b. a decrease in the hydraulic pressure of the glomerulus

c. an increase in the capsular hydraulic pressure

d. a decrease in the concentration of plasma proteins in the blood

e. constriction of the afferent arteriole: d. a decrease in the concentration of plasma proteins

in the blood

82. One substance has no membrane transporters to move it but can diffuse freely through open

leak channels if there is a concentration gradient. Initially, this substance's concentrations in the filtrate and extracellular fluid are equal. Later, however, the active transport of Na+ and other solutes creates a gradient by removing water from the lumen of the tubule where it is located. What substance is this? Select one:

a. glucose

b. glucose, calcium, and urea

c. glucose and calcium

d. calcium

e. urea: e. urea

83. The characteristic yellow color of urine is attributed to the presence of Select one:

a. urea.

b. urobilinogen.

c. renin.

d. uric acid.

e. bile.: b. urobilinogen.

84. The force for glomerular filtration is the Select one:

a. fluid pressure produced by the displacement of the fluid in the lumen of the tubules.

b. blood pressure in the glomerular capillaries.

c. ATP-dependent processes in the nephron.

d. None of the answers are correct.

e. osmotic pressure in the glomerular capillaries.: b. blood pressure in the glomerular

capillaries.

85. The primary function of the proximal tubule is Select one:

a. reabsorption of ions, organic molecules, and water.

b. adjusting the urine volume.

c. filtration.

d. secretion of drugs.

e. secretion of acids and ammonia.: a. reabsorption of ions, organic molecules, and water.

86. The segment of the nephron between the proximal and distal tubules that loops down into the

medulla of the kidney and returns back to the cortex is called the Select one:

a. Bowman's capsule.

b. vasa recta.

c. minor calyx.

d. loop of Henle.

e. collecting duct.: d. loop of Henle.

87. The typical pattern for molecules absorbed by Na+-

dependent transport involves this: an apical and a basolateral. Select one:

a. osmotic gradient, symport protein

b. facilitated diffusion carrier, symport protein

c. symport protein, facilitated diffusion carrier

d. facilitated diffusion carrier, osmotic gradient

e. symport protein, osmotic gradient: c. symport protein, facilitated diffusion carrier

88. When the plasma concentration of a substance exceeds its renal concen- tration, more of the

substance will be Select one:

a. excreted.

b. reabsorbed.

c. filtered.

d. None of the answers are correct.

e. secreted.: a. excreted.

89. Which is NOT a kidney filtration barrier? Select one:

a. juxtaglomerular apparatus

b. glomerular capillary endothelium

c. basal lamina

d. Bowman's capsule epithelium: a. juxtaglomerular apparatus

90. Which of the following statements about autoregulation is NOT true? Select one:

a. In myogenic response, the macula densa cells send a paracrine message to the neighboring

afferent arteriole.

b. Myogenic response is the intrinsic ability of vascular smooth muscle to respond to pressure

changes.

c. Myogenic response is a paracrine signaling mechanism.

d. In tubuloglomerular feedback, stretch-sensitive ion channels open, result- ing in depolarization of

smooth muscle cells.: b. Myogenic response is the intrinsic ability of vascular smooth muscle to respond to pressure changes.

91. A blockage of the ducts from the parotid glands would Select one:

a. interfere with carbohydrate digestion in the mouth.

b. impair the lubricating properties of saliva.

c. Cause all of these effects.

d. result in the production of less viscous saliva.

e. eliminate the sense of taste.: a. interfere with carbohydrate digestion in the mouth.

92. A drug that blocks the action of carbonic anhydrase in parietal cells would result in

Select one:

a. a lower pH during gastric digestion.

b. decreased production of pepsinogen by chief cells.

c. a higher pH during gastric digestion.

d. decreased gastrin production.

e. increased protein digestion in the stomach.: c. a higher pH during gastric digestion.

93. A drug that blocks the action of the hormone cholecystokinin would affect Select one:

a. the level of intestinal gastrin.

b. secretions of the duodenal glands.

c. All of the answers are correct.

d. pancreatic secretions.

e. the amount of bile produced by the liver.: d. pancreatic secretions.

94. After processing in the stomach, the gastric contents are referred to as Select one:

a. chyme.

b. filtrate.

c. feces.

d. food.: a. chyme.

95. Bile is

Select one:

a. secreted by hepatocytes and manufactured by the gallbladder.

b. manufactured by the gallbladder only.

c. secreted by hepatocytes, manufactured by the gallbladder, and released into the stomach.

d. secreted by hepatocytes only.

e. released into the stomach only.: d. secreted by hepatocytes only.

96. Decreased levels of bile salts in the bile would interfere with digestion of Select one:

a. nucleic acids.

b. carbohydrates.

c. fat.

d. protein.

e. vitamins and minerals.: c. fat.

97. Digestive

reflexes originating in the CNS are called reflexes. Select one:

a. deglutition

b. defecation

c. long

d. short: c. long

98. Enzymatic digestion of fats involves

, which breaks down . Select one:

a. bile, cholesterol

b. amylase, carbohydrates

c. pepsin, proteins

d. lipase, triglycerides: d. lipase, triglycerides

99. In the body, 80% of all lymphocytes, a type of immune system cell, are thought to be

present in the Select one:

a. appendix.

b. small intestine.

c. stomach.

d. mouth.

e. large intestine.: b. small intestine.

100. Most

absorbed nutrients first enter the blood of the system. Select one:

a. hepatic portal

b. immune

c. lymphatic

d. arterial: a. hepatic portal

101. The three sections of the small intestine, in order according to movement of its contents,

are Select one:

a. duodenum, ileum, jejunum.

b. jejunum colon, ileum.

c. duodenum, jejunum, ileum.

d. jejunum, ileum, colon.: c. duodenum, jejunum, ileum.

102. Vitamin

must be complexed with a protein called to be absorbed from the small intestine. Select one:

a. K, hydrogen sulfide

b. A, Olestra

c. D, somatomedins

d. B12, intrinsic factor: d. B12, intrinsic factor

103. Which of the following statements is true about GI muscle contractions? Select one:

a. Cycles of smooth muscle contraction and relaxation are associated with fast wave potentials.

b. Phasic contractions last only seconds and occur in the stomach and small intestine.

c. Tonic contractions are sustained for minutes and occur in the small intes- tine.

d. Contractions of the smooth muscle do not depend on calcium.

e. None of these statements are true.: b. Phasic contractions last only seconds and occur in the

stomach and small intestine.

104. involve short segments of intestine

that alternately contract and relax. They are responsible for. Select one:

a. Peristaltic contractions, mixing

b. Segmental contractions, pushing a bolus forward

c. Segmental contractions, mixing

d. Peristaltic contractions, pushing a bolus forward: c. Segmental contractions, mixing

105. is intestinal gas produced by bacteria in the colon during the metabolism of

indigestible carbohydrates. Select one:

a. Defecation

b. Haustra

c. Tenia Coli

d. Flatus: d. Flatus

106. A zygote with the genotype YO will

Select one:

a. develop into a male.

b. develop into a female.

c. die.

d. have Kleinfelter's syndrome.

e. have Turner's syndrome.: c. die.

107. Interstitial cells produce

Select one:

a. inhibin.

b. androgens.

c. androgen-binding protein.

d. nutrients.

e. sperm.: b. androgens.

108. Mitotic divisions in germ cells

Select one:

a. begin at puberty.

b. The answer depends on gender.

c. end at andropause or menopause.

d. are complete before birth.

e. continue throughout life.: b. The answer depends on gender.

109. Sister chromatids

Select one:

a. are found in cells called primary gametes.

b. occur during ovum formation.

c. contain twice the normal amount of DNA.

d. are found in cells called primary gametes, contain twice the normal amount of DNA, and occur

during ovum formation.

e. are found in cells called primary gametes and contain twice the normal amount of DNA.: e. are

found in cells called primary gametes and contain twice the normal amount of DNA.

110. Sperm cannot fertilize an egg until they Select

one:

a. undergo capacitation.

b. undergo activation.

c. undergo decapitation.

d. lose their acrosome.

e. have been in the vagina for three days.: a. undergo capacitation.