A&P STRAIGHTERLINE EXAM 2024 | FINAL EXAM, Exams of Nursing

Download A&P STRAIGHTERLINE EXAM 2024 | FINAL EXAM and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! A&P STRAIGHTERLINE EXAM 2024 | FINAL EXAM TEST BANK WITH A PRACTICE EXAM, STUDY GUIDE AND INSTRUCTOR NOTES | ALL YOU NEED FOR A GUARANTEED PASS What is smooth muscle tone? Select one: a. Can rapidly develop action potentials b. Shallow invaginations of cell membrane c. Relatively constant tension maintained for a period of time d. Intracellular cytoskeleton e. Enzyme that removes phosphate from myosin C. Relatively constant tension maintained for a period of time The sites where a chemical substance is transmitted from the presynaptic terminal of an axon to the postsynaptic membrane of a muscle fiber are called Select one: a. Neuromuscular junctions. B. Sarcomeres. C. Myofilaments. D. Z disks. E. Cell body of neuron. A. Neuromuscular junctions. List the following structures in order from smallest to largest. (1) muscle fiber (2) myofilament (3) myofibril (4) muscle fasciculus Select one: a. 4, 2, 3, 1 b. 2, 1, 4, 3 c. 3, 1, 4, 2 d. 2, 3, 1, 4 e. 1, 2, 3, 4 D. 2, 3, 1, 4 Which of the following is NOT true of muscular atrophy? Select one: a. It is irreversible. B. It can be caused by disuse. C. It can be caused by denervation. D. Transcutaneous stimulation can help prevent it. E. Muscle fibers are replaced by connective tissue. A. It is irreversible. Myosin phosphatase Select one: a. Activates myosin kinase. B. Forms the cross-bridge. C. Removes phosphate from myosin. D. Binds to calcium-calmodulin complex. E. Opens calcium channels. C. Removes phosphate from myosin. Which type of muscle tissue would cause flexion and extension of the arm? Select one: a. Skeletal muscle b. Smooth muscle c. Cardiac muscle A. Skeletal muscle An isometric contraction is described as Select one: a. Action potential frequency is high enough that no relaxation of muscle fibers occurs. B. A muscle produces constant tension during contraction. C. A muscle produces an increasing tension as the length remains constant. D. A muscle produces increasing tension as it shortens. E. A muscle produces tension, but the length of the muscle is increasing. C. A muscle produces an increasing tension as the length remains constant. Which of the following causes an unequal ion concentration across the resting plasma membrane? Select one: a. The functioning of the sodium-chloride pump Which of the following correctly describes myoglobin's special function in muscle tissue? Select one: a. Breaks down glycogen b. Synthesizes ATP c. Acts as a reservoir for oxygen d. Produces action potentials e. Stores glucose C. Acts as a reservoir for oxygen The outside of the resting plasma membrane is __________ relative to the inside of the resting plasma membrane. Select one: a. Positively charged b. Negatively charged c. Electrically neutral d. Recharged e. None of these choices is correct. A. Positively charged Fascia Select one: a. Surrounds individual muscles. B. Separates muscle fibers. C. Connects muscles to bone. D. Is a type of muscle tissue. E. Is a type of nerve tissue. A. Surrounds individual muscles. When repolarization of the cell membrane is complete, the Select one: a. Cell dies. B. Cell regenerates. C. Cell no longer has a potential difference across its membrane. D. Cell is no longer responsive. E. Original polarity of the cell is restored. E. Original polarity of the cell is restored. Which of the following actions is caused by contraction of skeletal muscle? Select one: a. Contraction of the heart b. Moving your feet in walking c. Movement of food through the digestive tract d. Emptying of the urinary bladder e. Vasoconstriction B. Moving your feet in walking Which of these is not a major functional characteristic of muscle? A) contractility B) elasticity C) excitability D) extensibility E) secretability E) secretability The connective tissue sheath that surrounds a muscle fasciculus is the A) perimysium. B) endomysium. C) epimysium (fascia). D) hypomysium. E) external lamina. A) perimysium. Given these structures: 1. Whole muscle 2. Muscle fiber (cell) 3. Myofilament 4. Myofibril 5. Muscle fasciculus Choose the arrangement that lists the structures in the correct order from the largest to the smallest structure. A) 1,2,5,3,4 B) 1,2,5,4,3 C) 1,5,2,3,4 D) 1,5,2,4,3 E) 1,5,4,2,3 D) 1,5,2,4,3 Each myofibril A) is made up of many muscle fibers. B) contains sarcoplasmic reticulum. C) is made up of many sarcomeres. D) contains T tubules. E) is the same thing as a muscle fiber. E) is the same thing as a muscle fiber. Myosin myofilaments are A) attached to the Z disk. B) found primarily in the I band. C) thinner than actin myofilaments. D) absent from the H zone. E) attached to filaments that form the M line. E) attached to filaments that form the M line. Which of these statements about the molecular structure of myofilaments is true? A) Tropomyosin has a binding site for Ca2+. B) The head of the myosin molecule binds to an active site on G actin. C) atpase is found on troponin. D) Troponin binds to the rodlike portion of myosin. E) Actin molecules have a hingelike portion that bends and straightens during contraction. B) The head of the myosin molecule binds to an active site on G actin. The part of the sarcolemma that invaginates into the interior of the skeletal muscle cells is the A) T tubule system. B) sarcoplasmic reticulum. C) myofibrils. D) terminal cisternae. E) mitochondria. A) T tubule system. During the depolarization phase of an action potential, the permeability of the plasma membrane to A) Ca2+ increases. B) Na+ increases. C) K+ increases. D) Ca2+ decreases. E) Na+ decreases B) Na+ increases. During depolarization, the inside of the membrane A) becomes more negative than the outside of the membrane. B) becomes more positive than the outside of the membrane. C) is unchanged. B) becomes more positive than the outside of the membrane. C) an increase in Ca2+ concentration around the myofibrils. Which of these events occurs during the lag (latent) phase of muscle contraction? A) cross-bridge movement B) active transport of Ca2+ into the sarcoplasmic reticulum C) Ca2+ bind to troponin D) the sarcomere shortens E) ATP is broken down to ADP C) Ca2+ bind to troponin A weight lifter attempts to lift a weight from the floor, but the weight is so heavy he is unable to move it. The type of muscle contraction the weight lifter used was mostly A) isometric. B) isotonic. C) isokinetic. D) concentric. E) eccentric. A) isometric. An active tension curve illustrates A) how isometric contractions occur. B) that the greatest force of contraction occurs if a muscle is not stretched at all. C) that passive tension can create active tension. D) that optimal overlap of actin and myosin produces the greatest force of contraction. E) that the greatest force of contraction occurs with little or no overlap of actin and myosin. D) that optimal overlap of actin and myosin produces the greatest force of contraction. Which of these types of fatigue is the most common? A) muscular fatigue B) psychologic fatigue C) synaptic fatigue D) army fatigue B) psychologic fatigue Given these conditions: 1. Low ATP levels 2. Little or no transport of Ca2+ into the sarcoplasmic reticulum 3. Cross-bridges release 4. Na+ accumulate in the sarcoplasm 5. Cross-bridges form Choose the conditions that occur in both physiologic contracture and rigor mortis. A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2,5 C) 1,2,3,4 D) 1,2,4,5 E) 1,2,3,4,5 D) 1,2,4,5 Jerry Jogger's 3 mile run every morning takes about 30 minutes. Which of these sources provides most of the energy for his run? A) aerobic respiration B) anaerobic respiration C) creatine phosphate D) stored ATP A) aerobic respiration Which of these conditions would one expect to find within the leg muscle cells of a world-class marathon runner? A) myoglobin-poor B) contract very quickly C) primarily anaerobic D) numerous mitochondria E) large deposits of glycogen D) numerous mitochondria Which of these increases the least as a result of muscle hypertrophy? A) increase in number of sarcomeres B) increase in number of myofibrils C) increase in number of fibers D) increase in blood vessels and mitochondria E) increase in connective tissue C) increase in number of fibers Relaxation in smooth muscle occurs when A) myosin kinase attaches phosphate to the myosin head. B) Ca2+ bind to calmodulin. C) myosin phosphatase removes phosphate from myosin. D) Ca2+ channels open. E) Ca2+ are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. C) myosin phosphatase removes phosphate from myosin. Compared to skeletal muscle, visceral smooth muscle A) has the same ability to be stretched. B) when stretched, loses the ability to contract forcefully. C) maintains about the same tension, even when stretched. D) cannot maintain long, steady contractions. E) can accumulate a substantial oxygen debt. C) maintains about the same tension, even when stretched. Which of these often have spontaneous contractions? A) multiunit smooth muscle B) visceral smooth muscle C) skeletal muscle D) both a and b E) both b and c B) visceral smooth muscle Which of these statements concerning aging and skeletal muscle is correct? A) There is a loss of muscle fibers with aging. B) Slow-twitch fibers decrease in number faster than fast-twitch fibers. C) Loss of strength and speed is mainly due to loss of neuromuscular junctions. D) There is an increase in density of capillaries in skeletal muscle. E) The number of motor neurons remains constant. A) There is a loss of muscle fibers with aging. The patellar or knee-jerk reflex is a classic example of Select one: a. The Golgi tendon reflex. B. The withdrawal reflex. C. The stretch reflex. D. The crossed extensor reflex. E. Reciprocal innervation. C. The stretch reflex. A man was in an accident and severed his spinal cord between C6 and C7. Which of the following would NOT occur? Select one: a. Loss of sensation in the trunk below the shoulders, the lower limbs and portions of the arms b. Loss of use of the phrenic nerves and paralysis of the diaphragm c. Loss of movement in the lower limbs d. Loss of movement in the hands e. Loss of sensation in hands and feet The part of the brain that connects the medulla to the midbrain is the Select one: a. Cerebral peduncle. B. Pons. C. Cerebellum. D. Thalamus. E. Hypothalamus. B. Pons. Ventral rami of some spinal nerves join with each other to form a Select one: a. Ganglion. B. Dermatome. C. Cord. D. Plexus. E. Nerve. D. Plexus. Which of the following terms does NOT belong with the others? Select one: a. Medulla oblongata b. Midbrain c. Pons d. Thalamus e. Reticular formation D. Thalamus Which of the following combinations indicates the correct distribution of spinal nerve pairs? Select one: a. 7 cervical - 12 thoracic - 6 lumbar - 5 sacral - 1 coccygeal b. 7 cervical - 12 thoracic - 5 lumbar - 6 sacral - 1 coccygeal c. 8 cervical - 12 thoracic - 6 lumbar - 4 sacral - 1 coccygeal d. 8 cervical - 12 thoracic - 5 lumbar - 5 sacral - 1 coccygeal e. 7 cervical - 13 thoracic - 6 lumbar - 5 sacral - 1 coccygeal D. 8 cervical - 12 thoracic - 5 lumbar - 5 sacral - 1 coccygeal The nucleus for the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) is located in the Select one: a. Pons. B. Medulla. C. Mesencephalon. D. Cerebrum. E. Cerebellum. A. Pons. During a spinal tap, cerebrospinal fluid is obtained from which of the following locations? Select one: a. Dural sinus b. Epidural space c. Subarachnoid space d. Subdural space e. Sagittal sinus C. Subarachnoid space When a person sits on a hard surface for a period of time, his foot or leg may "go to sleep." This sensation is the result of compressing the _____ nerve. Select one: a. Femoral b. Sciatic c. Obturator d. Pudendal e. Ulnar B. Sciatic The spinal cord extends from the A) medulla oblongata to the coccyx. B) level of the third cervical vertebra to the coccyx. C) level of the axis to the lowest lumbar vertebra. D) medulla oblongata to the level of the second lumbar vertebra. E) axis to the sacral hiatus. B) level of the third cervical vertebra to the coccyx. The structure that anchors the inferior end of the spinal cord to the coccyx is the A) conus medullaris. B) cauda equina. C) filum terminale. D) lumbar enlargement. E) posterior median sulcus. C) filum terminale. Axons of sensory neurons synapse with the cell bodies of interneurons in the _____________ of spinal cord gray matter. A) anterior horn B) lateral horn C) posterior horn D) gray commissure E) lateral funiculi C) posterior horn Cell bodies for sensory neurons are located in the A) anterior horn of spinal cord gray matter. B) lateral horn of spinal cord gray matter. C) posterior horn of spinal cord gray matter. D) dorsal root ganglia. E) posterior columns. D) dorsal root ganglia. Given these components of a reflex arc: 1. Effector organ 2. Interneuron 3. Motor neuron 4. Sensory neuron 5. Sensory receptor Choose the correct order an action potential follows after a sensory receptor is stimulated. A) 5,4,3,2,1 B) 5,4,2,3,1 C) 5,3,4,1,2 D) 5,2,4,3,1 E) 5,3,2,1,4 B) 5,4,2,3,1 A reflex response accompanied by the conscious sensation of pain is possible because of A) convergent pathways. B) divergent pathways. C) a reflex arc that contains only one neuron. D) sensory perception in the spinal cord. B) divergent pathways. Several of the events that occurred between the time that a physician struck a patient's patellar tendon with a rubber hammer and the time the quadriceps femoris contracted (knee-jerk reflex) are listed below: 1. Increased frequency of action potentials in sensory neurons 2. Stretch of the muscle spindles 3. Increased frequency of action potentials in the alpha motor neurons 4. Stretch of the quadriceps femoris 5. Contraction of the quadriceps femoris Which of these lists most closely describes the sequence of events as they normally occur? A) 4,1,2,3,5 C) median nerve. D) ulnar nerve. E) axillary nerve. C) median nerve. Most intrinsic hand muscles are supplied by the A) musculocutaneous nerve. B) radial nerve. C) median nerve. D) ulnar nerve. E) axillary nerve. D) ulnar nerve. The sciatic nerve is actually two nerves combined within the same sheath. The two nerves are the A) femoral and obturator. B) femoral and gluteal. C) common fibular (peroneal) and tibial. D) common fibular (peroneal) and obturator. E) tibial and gluteal. C) common fibular (peroneal) and tibial. The muscles of the anterior compartment of the thigh are supplied by the A) obturator nerve. B) gluteal nerve. C) sciatic nerve. D) femoral nerve. E) ilioinguinal nerve. D) femoral nerve. If a section is made that separates the brainstem from the rest of the brain, the cut is between the A) medulla oblongata and pons. B) pons and midbrain. C) midbrain and diencephalon. D) thalamus and cerebrum. E) medulla oblongata and spinal cord. C) midbrain and diencephalon. Important centers for heart rate, blood pressure, respiration, swallowing, coughing, and vomiting are located in the A) cerebrum. B) medulla oblongata. C) midbrain. D) pons. E) cerebellum. B) medulla oblongata. In which of these parts of the brain does decussation of descending nerve tracts involved in the conscious control of skeletal muscles occur? A) cerebrum B) diencephalon C) midbrain D) pons E) medulla oblongata E) medulla oblongata Important respiratory centers are located in the A) cerebrum. B) cerebellum. C) pons and medulla oblongata. D) midbrain E) limbic system. C) pons and medulla oblongata. The cerebral peduncles are a major descending motor pathway found in the A) cerebrum. B) cerebellum. C) pons. D) midbrain. E) medulla oblongata. B) cerebellum. The superior colliculi are involved in _____________, whereas the inferior colliculi are involved in _____________. A) hearing, visual reflexes B) visual reflexes, hearing C) balance, motor pathways D) motor pathways, balance E) respiration, sleep B) visual reflexes, hearing The cerebellum communicates with other regions of the CNS through the A) flocculonodular lobe. B) cerebellar peduncles. C) vermis. D) lateral hemispheres. E) folia. B) cerebellar peduncles. The major relay station for sensory input that projects to the cerebral cortex is the A) hypothalamus. B) thalamus. C) pons. D) cerebellum. E) midbrain. B) thalamus. Which part of the brain is involved with olfactory reflexes and emotional responses to odors? A) inferior colliculi B) superior colliculi C) mammillary bodies D) pineal body E) pituitary gland C) mammillary bodies The part of the diencephalon directly connected to the pituitary gland is the A) hypothalamus. B) epithalamus. C) subthalamus. D) thalamus. A) hypothalamus. Which of the following is a function of the hypothalamus? A) regulates autonomic nervous system functions B) regulates the release of hormones from the posterior pituitary C) regulates body temperature D) regulates food intake (hunger) and water intake (thirst) E) all of the above E) all of the above The grooves on the surface of the cerebrum are called the A) nuclei. B) commissures. C) tracts. D) sulci. E) gyri. D) sulci. The cranial nerve responsible for focusing the eye (innervates the ciliary muscle of the eye) is the A) optic (II). B) oculomotor (III). C) trochlear (IV). D) abducent (VI). E) facial (VII). B) oculomotor (III). The cranial nerve involved in moving the tongue is the A) trigeminal (V). B) facial (VII). C) glossopharyngeal (IX). D) accessory (XI). E) hypoglossal (XII). E) hypoglossal (XII). The cranial nerve involved in feeling a toothache is the A) trochlear (IV). B) trigeminal (V). C) abducent (VI). D) facial (VII). E) vestibulocochlear (VIII). B) trigeminal (V). From this list of cranial nerves: 1. Olfactory (I) 2. Optic (II) 3. Oculomotor (III) 4. Abducent (VI) 5. Vestibulocochlear (VIII) Select the nerves that are sensory only. A) 1,2,3 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,5 D) 2,3,5 E) 3,4,5 C) 1,2,5 From this list of cranial nerves: 1. Optic (II) 2. Oculomotor (III) 3. Trochlear (IV) 4. Trigeminal (V) 5. Abducent (VI) Select the nerves that are involved in moving the eyes. A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2,4, C) 2,3,4 D) 2,4,5 E) 2,3,5 E) 2,3,5 From this list of cranial nerves: 1. Trigeminal (V) 2. Facial (VII) 3. Glossopharyngeal (IX) 4. Vagus (X) 5. Hypoglossal (XII) Select the nerves that are involved in the sense of taste. A) 1,2,3 B) 1,4,5 C) 2,3,4 D) 2,3,5 E) 3,4,5 C) 2,3,4 From this list of cranial nerves: 1. Trigeminal (V) 2. Facial (VII) 3. Glossopharyngeal (IX) 4. Vagus (X) 5. Hypoglossal (XII) Select the nerves that innervate the salivary glands. A) 1,2 B) 2,3 C) 3,4 D) 4,5 E) 3,5 B) 2,3 From this list of cranial nerves: 1. Oculomotor (III) 2. Trigeminal (V) 3. Facial (VII) 4. Vestibulocochlear (VIII) 5. Glossopharyngeal (IX) 6. Vagus (X) Select the nerves that are part of the parasympathetic division of the ANS. A) 1,2,4,5 B) 1,3,5,6 C) 1,4,5,6 D) 2,3,4,5 E) 2,3,5,6 B) 1,3,5,6 A series of neurons involved in long-term retention of a thought is called Select one: a. An EEG. B. A brain wave. C. A memory engram. D. Short-term memory. E. A memory trace. C. A memory engram. If you decide to "snap your fingers," the first neurons to be stimulated are the Select one: a. Association neurons. B. Premotor neurons. C. Postmotor neurons. D. Sensory neurons. E. Sensory receptors. B. Premotor neurons. If you feel someone touch you on the shoulder, the person has stimulated a(n) ____ sense. Select one: a. Special b. Somatic c. Visceral d. Undifferentiated e. None of these choices are correct. B. Somatic Brain waves associated with information processing or problem solving are ____ waves. Select one: a. Alpha b. Beta c. Delta d. Theta e. Kappa Procedural memory is stored primarily in the Select one: a. Hippocampus and amygdala. B. Central sulcus and Wernicke's area. C. Cerebellum and premotor area of cerebral cortex. D. Temporal lobe and frontal lobe. E. Pons and midbrain. C. Cerebellum and premotor area of cerebral cortex. A primary function of the cerebellum is to Select one: a. Interpret sound. B. Coordinate movement. C. Control body temperature. D. Regulate consciousness. E. Regulate sleep patterns. B. Coordinate movement. Lesions on one side of the spinal cord cut the lateral spinothalamic tract and eliminate Select one: a. Sensations of touch from both sides below the level of injury. B. Proprioception on the same side of the body below the level of the injury. C. Cutaneous sensations on the opposite side of the body below the level of injury. D. Sensations of vibration on the opposite side of the body at the level of the injury. E. Sensations of tickle on the same side of the body below the level of injury. C. Cutaneous sensations on the opposite side of the body below the level of injury. A major source of sensory input into the limbic system is the sense of Select one: a. Vision. B. Taste. C. Touch. D. Smell. D. Smell. A nurse is caring for a patient who exhibits the following symptoms: (1) inability to maintain balance while walking (2) normal intelligence (3) can initiate voluntary movements although they are somewhat uncoordinated. (4) decreased tone in the skeletal muscles The patient is probably suffering from a condition that affected the Select one: a. Midbrain. B. Cerebellum. C. Basal ganglia. D. Cerebral cortex. E. Brainstem. B. Cerebellum. A patient has suffered a cerebral hemorrhage that has damaged the primary motor area of his right cerebral cortex. As a result the Select one: a. Patient cannot voluntarily move his right arm or leg. B. Patient feels no sensations on the left side of his body. C. Patient cannot voluntarily move his left eye. D. Patient's heart stops beating. E. Patient cannot voluntarily move his left arm or leg. E. Patient cannot voluntarily move his left arm or leg. In order to stabilize the hyoid so that the larynx can be elevated in swallowing, the _____ muscle group is used. Select one: a. Pterygoid b. Infrahyoid c. Auricularis d. Suprahyoid e. Hyoglossus D. Suprahyoid The radial pulse can be felt just lateral to the tendon of the Select one: a. Flexor carpi ulnaris. B. Flexor carpi radialis. C. Extensor carpi radialis brevis. D. Extensor carpi radialis longus. E. Brachioradialis. B. Flexor carpi radialis. The muscle that is used to cross the legs is the Select one: a. Sartorius. B. Gastrocnemius. C. Vastus lateralis. D. Gluteus maximus. E. Biceps femoris. A. Sartorius. The levator palpebrae superioris muscle Select one: a. Puckers the mouth for kissing. B. Contributes to pouting. C. Contributes to laughing and smiling. D. Causes crow's feet wrinkles. E. Raises the eyelid. E. Raises the eyelid. Which back muscle inserts on the ribs and vertebrae? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. Longissimus capitis c. Interspinales d. Multifidus e. Psoas minor A. Erector spinae Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one is NOT part of the quadriceps group? Select one: a. Biceps femoris b. Rectus femoris c. Vastus lateralis d. Vastus medialis e. Vastus intermedius A. Biceps femoris What back muscle originates on the vertebral spinous processes? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. Longissimus capitis c. Interspinales d. Multifidus e. Psoas minor C. Interspinales The abdominal muscle that has its origin at the pubic crest and symphysis pubis is the Select one: a. Rectus abdominis. B. Transversus abdominis. C. External abdominal oblique. D. Intrinsic muscles. All of the following muscles are rotators of the arm. Which is a lateral rotator of the arm? Select one: a. Pectoralis major b. Latissimus dorsi c. Teres major d. Deltoid e. Coracobrachialis D. Deltoid The major movement produced during quiet breathing is accomplished by the Select one: a. Scalenes. B. Diaphragm. C. External intercostals. D. Internal intercostals. E. Transverses thoracis. B. Diaphragm. Gap junctions are functional __________ synapses. Select one: a. Chemical b. Electrical c. Potential d. Intracellular e. Neuromuscular B. Electrical Suppose both excitatory and inhibitory neurons synapse with a single postsynaptic neuron. What determines if an action potential is initiated in the postsynaptic neuron? Select one: a. The kind of neuron involved b. The size of the neuron involved c. Whether the neuron is myelinated or non-myelinated d. The number of epsps in relation to the number of ipsps e. This situation is not possible in humans. D. The number of epsps in relation to the number of ipsps If you cut bundles of axons and their myelin sheaths in the PNS, you cut Select one: a. Ganglia. B. Nuclei. C. Nerves. D. Gray matter. E. Nerve tracts. C. Nerves. Action potentials are conducted more rapidly when transmission is Select one: a. From node to node on a myelinated axon. B. On a small diameter axon. C. On an unmyelinated axon. D. From internode to internode. E. From internode to node on a myelinated axon. A. From node to node on a myelinated axon. Continuous conduction of an action potential means that Select one: a. Once one action potential is created, it moves down the axon. B. The whole axon depolarizes at the same time. C. One action potential stimulates the production of a new action potential at the adjacent site. D. An action potential is conducted from one node of Ranvier to the next node. C. One action potential stimulates the production of a new action potential at the adjacent site. Which of the following situations will lead to hyperpolarization? Select one: a. Increase the permeability of the plasma membrane to Na+ ions b. Decrease the permeability of the plasma membrane to K+ ions c. Decrease the permeability of the plasma membrane to chloride ions d. Any positive ion entering the cell e. None of these situations will lead to hyperpolarization. E. None of these situations will lead to hyperpolarization. When two or more presynaptic neurons synapse with a single postsynaptic neuron in the CNS, a(n) _______ pathway is formed. Select one: a. Convergent b. Divergent C. Oscillatory d. Somatic e. Sensory A. Convergent Which of the following is responsible for problem-solving skills? Select one: a. Central nervous system b. Peripheral nervous system c. Somatic nervous system d. Autonomic nervous system e. None of these choices is correct. A. Central nervous system In an EPSP (excitatory postsynaptic potential), there is a Select one: a. Net movement of sodium ions out of the cells. B. Net movement of chloride ions into the cells. C. Decrease in action potential amplitude. D. Local hyperpolarization. E. Local depolarization. E. Local depolarization. The plasma membrane of a neuron is more permeable to potassium ions because Select one: a. Of its positive electrical charge. B. There are more non-gated channels for K+ than Na+. C. Protein molecules cannot exit through the cell membrane. D. Calcium ions block Na+ and Cl−channels. E. There are more non-gated channels for Na+ than K+. B. There are more non-gated channels for K+ than Na+. Receptor molecules Select one: a. Are nonspecific. B. Are always lipids. C. Attach to the synaptic cleft. D. Determine whether a neurotransmitter will be excitatory or inhibitory. E. Are not attached to ligand-gated channels. D. Determine whether a neurotransmitter will be excitatory or inhibitory. The absolute refractory period ends when Select one: a. Inactivation gates of voltage-gated Na+ ion channels reopen. B. Activation gates of voltage-gates Na+ ion channels reopen. C. The sodium-potassium exchange pump stops. D. Voltage-gated K+ channels open. E. None of these choices is correct. D. Hearing high intensity sounds. E. Evaluating movements of the head. A. Static balance. Rhodopsin is found in the Select one: a. Rods. B. Cones. C. Choroid. D. Pigmented retina. E. Amacrine cells. A. Rods. What ion(s) cause(s) depolarization in olfactory neurons? Select one: a. Na+ b. Ca2+ c. K+ d. Both Na+ and K+ e. Both Na+ and Ca2+ E. Both Na+ and Ca2+ Which of the following statements is NOT true of hyperopia? Select one: a. Corrected by "minus" lenses b. Close objects are fuzzy c. Eyeball is too short d. Corrected by convex lenses e. Image focused behind the retina A. Corrected by "minus" lenses Rapid changes in altitude can rupture the eardrum. Symptoms that may occur include Select one: a. Dizziness. B. Light headedness. C. Feeling of a "full" ear. D. Ringing in the ears. E. Hearing impairment. E. Hearing impairment. Which of the following is true? Select one: a. The cochlear duct is filled with perilymph. B. The bony core of the cochlea is called the modiolus. C. The foot plate of the incus fits into the round window. D. The vestibule is one of the regions of the organ of corti. E. The spiral organ is found in the semicircular canals. B. The bony core of the cochlea is called the modiolus. What eye layer is referred to in the "Don't fire until you see the whites of their eyes"? Select one: a. Conjunctiva b. Choroid c. Retina d. Sclera e. Pupil D. Sclera Palpebrae is another name for the Select one: a. Eyes. B. Eyelids. C. Eyebrows. D. Eyelashes. E. Conjunctiva. B. Eyelids. When rhodopsin is exposed to light, Select one: a. More rhodopsin is formed. B. Retinal separates from opsin. C. The cones generate action potentials. D. Free retinal is converted to vitamin A. E. Retinal becomes more attached to opsin. B. Retinal separates from opsin. Which of the following is false? Select one: a. Rods cannot detect color. B. The visual pigment of cones is iodopsin. C. Most of the optic tract axons terminate in the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus. D. Association neurons in the inner retinal layers modify signals of rods and cones. E. Most of the optic tract axons terminate in the medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus. E. Most of the optic tract axons terminate in the medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus. Increase in the distance from the eye to the near point of vision can be caused by Select one: a. The lens becoming more rigid with age b. The lens becoming more opaque with age. C. The lens becoming more convex with age. D. The vitreous humor becoming thicker with age. E. The lens becoming more flexible with age. A. The lens becoming more rigid with age The cornea is relatively easy to transplant because Select one: a. Its proteoglycan content is high. B. It is easy to access and is a vascular. C. It has an extensive blood supply. D. Its high immunological activity prevents infection. E. It is not attached to the eye. B. It is easy to access and is a vascular. The correct pathway for impulses leaving the retina is Select one: a. Photoreceptors, ganglion cells, bipolar cells, and optic nerve. B. Photoreceptors, bipolar cells, ganglion cells, and optic nerve. C. Photoreceptors, bipolar cells, optic nerve, and ganglion cells. D. Photoreceptors, ganglion cells, optic nerve, and bipolar cells. E. Ganglion cells, bipolar cells, photoreceptors, and optic nerve. B. Photoreceptors, bipolar cells, ganglion cells, and optic nerve. Which of the following is a part of the bony labyrinth? Select one: a. Malleus b. Vestibule c. Cochlear duct d. Tympanic membrane e. Ossicle B. Vestibule Which of the following is NOT a cell type found in taste buds? Select one: a. Mitral cells b. Supporting cells c. Basal cells d. Taste cells C. When activated stimulate skeletal muscles to contract. D. Can be found in both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions. E. Are activated by the release of acetylcholine. A. Can be activated by the release of epinephrine. The parasympathetic nervous system is characterized by Select one: a. The absence of preganglionic fibers. B. The absence of postganglionic axons. C. Short postganglionic axons near the organs they innervate d. Short preganglionic axons near the spinal cord. E. Long postganglionic axons. C. Short postganglionic axons near the organs they innervate Which of the following statements applies to the autonomic nervous system? Select one: a. The ANS innervates skeletal muscle. B. ANS functions are consciously controlled. C. The ANS controls unconscious movement of skeletal muscles. D. The receptor molecules of the ANS may be muscarinic, nicotinic, or adrenergic. E. A single neuron from the spinal cord carries action potentials to effector organs in the D. The receptor molecules of the ANS may be muscarinic, nicotinic, or adrenergic. Which of the following is NOT a means of parasympathetic innervation of effectors? Select one: a. Spinal nerves b. Abdominal nerve plexuses c. Pelvic splanchnic nerves and pelvic nerve plexuses d. Cranial nerves to the head and neck e. Vagus nerve and thoracic nerve plexuses A. Spinal nerves The two classes of adrenergic receptors are Select one: a. Alpha and beta. B. Splanchnic and terminal. C. Muscarinic and nicotinic. D. Nicotinic and cholinergic. E. Muscarinic and terminal. A. Alpha and beta. Which of the following neurons is most likely to be adrenergic? Select one: a. Preganglionic sympathetic b. Preganglionic parasympathetic c. Postganglionic sympathetic d. Postganglionic parasympathetic e. Postganglionic somatic motor C. Postganglionic sympathetic Consider the following situation: Sympathetic preganglionic axons enter a sympathetic chain ganglia. In order for these axons to reach collateral ganglia, they must now travel through Select one: a. A splanchnic nerve. B. A sympathetic nerve. C. A gray ramus communicans. D. A white ramus communicans. E. A dorsal root ganglion. A. A splanchnic nerve. Beta-blockers (beta-adrenergic blocking agents) are frequently used to Select one: a. Cause vasoconstriction. B. Block muscarinic receptors. C. Dilate the pupils of the eye. D. Prevent increases in heart rate e. Prevent decreases in heart rate. D. Prevent increases in heart rate Which of the following occurs when the parasympathetic system is stimulated? Select one: a. Increased blood pressure b. Increased motility of the digestive tract c. Increased metabolism d. Increased heart rate e. Decreased motility of the digestive tract B. Increased motility of the digestive tract Up-regulation Select one: a. Results in a decrease in the number of receptor sites in the target cell. B. Produces an increase in the sensitivity of the target cell to the hormone. C. Is found in target cells that maintain a constant level of receptors. D. Produces insensitivity to the hormone in the target tissue. E. Moves the receptors up on the membrane. B. Produces an increase in the sensitivity of the target cell to the hormone. Which pattern of hormone secretion, often observed in steroid reproductive hormones, will fluctuate over a monthly cycle? Select one: a. Acute hormone secretion b. Episodic hormone secretion c. Long-term hormone secretion d. Chronic hormone secretion B. Episodic hormone secretion A water-soluble hormone binds to its receptor on the plasma membrane. Arrange the events that follow in correct sequence. (1) alpha subunit-GTP complex alters cell activity (2) GTP binds to the alpha subunit replacing GDP (3) G-protein subunits separate from the receptor (4) alpha subunit separates from other two subunits (5) G-protein subunits bind to the receptor Select one: a. 5, 2, 3, 4, 1 b. 4, 2, 1, 3, 5 c. 5, 2, 1, 4, 3 d. 5, 4, 2, 1, 3 e. 3, 4, 1, 2, 5 A. 5, 2, 3, 4, 1 In some forms of diabetes, an insensitivity to insulin seems to be present. This insensitivity could be the result of Select one: a. Up-regulation. B. Over-regulation. C. Down-regulation. D. A lack of regulation. E. Modulation. C. Down-regulation. Receptors for most lipid-soluble hormones are located Select one: a. In the cytoplasm of their target cells. B. On the plasma membrane of their target cells. C. In the lysosomes of their target cells. D. On the nuclear membrane of their target cells. a. Increased in number b. Decreased in number c. Chemically altered d. Moved e. Increased in number, decreased in number and chemically altered E. Increased in number, decreased in number and chemically altered Which of the following statements regarding hormone transport and distribution is FALSE? Select one: a. Only free hormones can diffuse through capillary walls and bind to target tissues. B. Hormones can be transported free in the plasma or bound to plasma proteins. C. Plasma protein concentration has no influence on free hormone concentration. D. Hormones bind only to certain types of plasma proteins. E. All of the statements are true. Feedback C. Plasma protein concentration has no influence on free hormone concentration. What type of chemical messenger will act locally on nearby cells? Select one: a. Paracrine b. Neurotransmitter c. Autocrine d. Endocrine A. Paracrine Which chemical type of hormone has a longer half-life? Select one: a. Lipid-soluble b. Protein c. Water-soluble d. Amino acid derivative Feedback A. Lipid-soluble Parathyroid hormone is released when blood calcium levels decrease. This is an example of control by __________ stimuli. Select one: a. Hormonal b. Neural c. Humoral d. Visceral C. Humoral A decrease in blood oxygen stimulates which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER a. an increase in erythropoietin formation, which increases red blood cell production Antibodies are produced by which type of white blood cell? - CORRECT ANSWER lymphocytes Which statement about the structure of the heart is accurate? - CORRECT ANSWER b. The superior and inferior venae cavae enter the right atrium, and the pulmonary veins enter the left atrium. Which part of the cardiovascular system brings blood into the right atrium of the heart? - CORRECT ANSWER c. superior vena cava Deoxygenated blood flows through the pulmonary structures in what order? - CORRECT ANSWER d. pulmonary semilunar valve ⇒ pulmonary trunk ⇒ pulmonary arteries Oxygenated blood flows through the heart's structures in what order? - CORRECT ANSWER b. bicuspid valve ⇒ left ventricle ⇒ aortic semilunar valve In the human body, veins are categorized according to - CORRECT ANSWER size Which sequence correctly shows the direction of blood flow in the capillary network? - CORRECT ANSWER When do congenital heart diseases occur? - CORRECT ANSWER b. at birth How does arteriosclerosis affect the circulatory system? - CORRECT ANSWER c. It increases resistance to blood flow. Lymph consists of water and solutes derived from - CORRECT ANSWER b. cell tissue and plasma. Which of these mechanisms is responsible for moving lymph through lymphatic vessels? - CORRECT ANSWER b. contraction of skeletal muscles Which statement about diffuse lymphatic tissue is accurate? - CORRECT ANSWER a. It has a clear boundary. b. It contains macrophages. c. It is located superficial to mucous membranes. d. It is organized into compact, somewhat spherical structures. Which is a function of the lymphatic system? - CORRECT ANSWER b. regulation of fluid balance What would happen if excess lymph remained in the interstitial fluid instead of entering the lymphatic capillaries? - CORRECT ANSWER d. Edema would result, causing tissue damage and possibly death. Which cell type is part of the innate immune system? - CORRECT ANSWER a. natural killer cell b. memory B cell c. plasma cell d. helper T cell In the body's defense system, specificity and memory are key characteristics of - CORRECT ANSWER b. adaptive immunity. Which of these is an autoimmune disease? - CORRECT ANSWER d. systemic lupus erythematosus What is the first stage of HIV infection? - CORRECT ANSWER b. A protein on the surface of the virus binds to a CD4 molecule on the cell surface. a. small intestine. b. esophagus. c. mouth. d. stomach. An individual deficient for vitamin A would experience which set of symptoms? - CORRECT ANSWER d. night blindness, retarded growth, and skin disorders Which organic compound contains the most kilocalories of energy per gram? - CORRECT ANSWER elect one: a. fats b. carbohydrates c. proteins d. nucleic acids Which sequence correctly shows the direction of food movement during digestion? - CORRECT ANSWER d. esophagus ⇒ stomach ⇒ pyloric sphincter ⇒ duodenum What is produced by the goblet cells of the duodenal mucosa? - CORRECT ANSWER d. protective mucus What is the effect of hydrochloric acid secretion into the stomach? - CORRECT ANSWER Select one: a. It kills bacteria in the food. b. It facilitates absorption of lipids. c. It initiates carbohydrate digestion. d. It deactivates the function of pepsin. What is the process by which large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules to release energy? - CORRECT ANSWER Select one: a. metabolism b. anabolism c. catabolism d. ATP synthesis Internally, the kidney is divided into the medulla and the - CORRECT ANSWER cortex In which of the following regions of the nephron does active reabsorption of ions such as Na+, K+, and Cl- begin? - CORRECT ANSWER Select one: a. distal convoluted tubule b. loop of Henle c. proximal convoluted tubule d. renal corpuscle What type of arteriole supplies blood to the glomerulus? - CORRECT ANSWER Select one: a. interlobular b. segmental c. efferent d. afferent In what part of the body is aldosterone produced? - CORRECT ANSWER a. adrenal glands The three main processes of urine production are filtration, tubular reabsorption, and - CORRECT ANSWER Select one: a. interlobular secretion. b. renal elimination. c. renal plasma flow. d. tubular secretion. The pressure from filtrate accumulation in the Bowman capsule causes - CORRECT ANSWER Select one: a. capsular hydrostatic pressure. b. blood colloid osmotic pressure. c. glomerular capillary pressure. d. filtration pressure. Decreases in the body fluid pH leads to _______ which results in _________. - CORRECT ANSWER a. an increased rate and depth of ventilation; an increase in the H+ concentration b. an increased rate and depth of ventilation; a decrease in the H+ concentration c. a decreased rate and depth of ventilation; a decrease in the H+ concentration d. a decreased rate and depth of ventilation; an increase in the H+ concentration An excessive amount of anaerobic cellular respiration and lactic acid buildup during exercise can result in - CORRECT ANSWER ect one: a. metabolic acidosis. b. metabolic alkalosis. c. respiratory acidosis. d. respiratory alkalosis. When the pH of body fluids decreases, the kidney compensates by - CORRECT ANSWER d. increasing the rate of both H+ secretion and HCO3- reabsorption. Sperm cells develop in what part of the body? - CORRECT ANSWER b. seminiferous tubules In the female body, which structure is located at the posterior of the perineum? - CORRECT ANSWER a. coccyx Which of the following sexually-transmitted diseases is caused by a protozoan? - CORRECT ANSWER Trichomoniasis