AANP BOARD EXAM 2024-2025 ACTUAL EXAM 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A, Exams of Nursing

Download AANP BOARD EXAM 2024-2025 ACTUAL EXAM 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! AANP BOARD EXAM 2024-2025 ACTUAL EXAM 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+ (NEWEST VERSION) You are treating a patient with acute anxiety and she is having an acute attack in the office. The ANP has knowledge that the fastest relief of symptoms is: a TCA a beta-blocker a benzodiazepine an SSRI Correct answer: benzodiazepine The fastest relief of anxiety symptoms will occur with a benzodiazepine. The other choices list agents that will require multiple doses for results. With daily continued use of benzodiazepines, the anti-anxiety effect may become diminished. A geriatric patient with cardiovascular disease is in the office being counseled on lifestyle changes. The ANP knows that which of the following is the most important to include in this discussion? "Control your hypertension, stop smoking, maintain a normal weight, and exercise regularly." "Have a yearly physical examination, increase fiber in your diet, and exercise regularly." "Maintain a normal level of serum blood sugar and decrease cholesterol intake." "Decrease smoking, increase vitamin supplements, and increase protein intake." Correct answer: "Control your hypertension, stop smoking, maintain a normal weight, and exercise regularly." All of these are important for the geriatric patient to decrease cardiovascular risk. Controlling hyperglycemia, high fiber intake, and vitamins all assist in maintaining a Breach of duty. Duty. Malpractice. Correct answer: Standard of care Standard of care is another term associated with negligence. Standard of care is a healthcare provider's required level of expected conduct as established by custom, law, or professional organizations. A brief account by the patient of any signs or symptoms he or she is experiencing is one component of: Review of systems. Symptom assessment. Functional assessment. Objective assessment. Correct Answer: Review of systems In the review of systems, the patient tells the nurse in his or her own words what signs or symptoms he or she has experienced in various body systems. It is important that these be in a patient's own words to perform the most complete and accurate assessment. All of the following are typical changes to the gastrointestinal system that come with aging EXCEPT: decreased liver size decreased muscle tone in bowel increased absorption of calcium atrophy of salivary glands Correct answer: increased absorption of calcium Decreased absorption of calcium is a common change that comes with aging, not increased absorption. Other gastrointestinal changes include: less efficient cholesterol stabilization and absorption, atrophy of taste buds, and slowing in esophageal emptying, among others. A 28-year-old female patient is in the office and is to undergo radioactive iodine treatment for Graves disease. The ANP is counseling her and understands that the mechanism of action of this treatment therapy is: alter the thyroid metabolic rate relieve distress caused by increased thyroid size destroy the overactive thyroid tissue reduce production of TSH Correct answer: destroy the overactive thyroid tissue Graves disease is the most common form of thyrotoxicosis. Radioactive iodine is used for thyroid ablation to destroy the overactive thyroid tissue that causes the thyroid hormone dysfunction. Which of the following statements about falls in the elderly is least accurate? Black women are at higher risk for hip fractures than dark brown to black blood color with normal- appearing stool significant amounts of bright red blood large blood clots and mucus mixed with stool streaks of bright red blood on the stool The Correct answer is: streaks of bright red blood on the stool Choice D is the right answer. The color of blood related to hemorrhoids is described as bright red, eliminating choice A. Amount of blood with hemorrhoids is usually small or scant, eliminating choices B and C. Internal hemorrhoids can occur during or after childbirth. With chronically protruding or prolapsing hemorrhoids, the patient often reports mucous leaking and staining of the undergarments. Other causes are obesity, constipation, and prolonged sitting. You have a patient with AIDS. You recognize that a low CD4 T-cell count puts the patient at risk for opportunistic infections. You are reviewing his lab reports and see that his CD4 T-cell count is indeed low. Which of the following is the normal range for CD4 T-cell count? 800 -1400 700 -1400 400 - 1000 600 -1200 Correct answer: 600 -1200 The normal CD4 T-cell count is 600 - 1200. A low CD4 T- cell count is below 600. The destruction of the CD4 T-cell causes depletion in the number of CD4 T-cells and consequently increases the risk of infection. This puts the patient at risk for infection. ou have an adult patient with diabetes whose blood pressure is 145/95 mm Hg. Which stage of hypertension does this indicate? normal pre-hypertension Stage I Stage II Correct Answer: Stage I Stage I hypertension is characterized by a systolic pressure of 140 - 159 mm Hg and a diastolic pressure of 90 - 99 mm Hg. The treatment recommendation for this stage is usually a thiazide diuretic and for those with diabetes, either ACE inhibitors or ARBs, because of their renal protective properties. Clinical findings that are characteristic of asthma include all of the following EXCEPT: wheezing with and without associated respiratory infections a congested cough worse during the day recurrent shortness of breath with exercise a recurrent spasmodic cough that is worse at night A mole with irregular borders. Bruises in various stages of healing. Cuts in various stages of healing. A navel piercing more than a year old. Correct Answer: A navel piercing more than a year old. Unless the piercing is marked by scabbing or other evidence of trauma, it is not evidence of impaired skin integrity. Tattoos and other body modifications should be noted in the patient's assessment, but they are not in themselves cause for concern. You are determining the peak expiratory flow (PEF) for a 67-year-old female patient who suffers from asthma. Which of the following is NOT a factor in determining peak expiratory flow (PEF) for this patient? age height weight gender Correct Answer: weight Weight is not a factor in determining PEF. The PEF is based on height (H), age, (A), and gender (G) - HAG. Upon examination of a patient with a heart murmur, you hear a grade 1-3/6 late systolic crescendo murmur with a honking quality. This is most likely indicative of which of the following? pulmonary hypertension mitral regurgitation mitral valve prolapse aortic sclerosis Correct Answer: mitral valve prolapse In a patient with mitral valve prolapse, you would hear a grade 1-3/6 late systolic crescendo murmur with a honking quality. This is best heard at the apex of the heart. The murmur follows a mid-systolic click. All but which of the following conditions in the patient's past medical history is likely to be associated with congestive heart failure (CHF)? diabetes COPD cancer CAD Correct Answer: cancer Cancer is not normally associated with CHF. A past medical history of any of the following may be associated with CHF: CAD, COPD, renal disease, diabetes, fracture. A Colles' fracture is associated with a fall on an outstretched hand such as when a person tries to break a fall. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate serving size of vegetables for a person on the ADA diet? 1 c romaine lettuce. ½ c steamed broccoli. 1 c cooked baby spinach. 1 c raw baby spinach. Correct Answer 1 c cooked baby spinach A serving of vegetables on the ADA diet is 1 c of raw or ½ c of cooked vegetables. Even leafy vegetables, when cooked, should be eaten in ½ c servings. In terms of liver function tests, which of the following test has a normal reference range of 5 - 50 u/L? Alkaline Phosphatase Serum GGT Serum ALT Serum AST Correct answer: Serum AST Serum AST is normal at 5 to 50 u/L. It is present in the liver, heart muscle, skeletal muscle, kidney and lung. It is not specific for liver injury because it is also elevated in other conditions such as acute MI. Which of the following would not be considered a body change related to menopause? palpable ovaries labia and vagina become atrophic and thinner urinary incontinence atrophied ovaries Correct Answer: palpable ovaries Palpable ovaries are considered an abnormal finding in menopausal women. After several years of menopause, the ovaries are atrophied and a smaller size. Ovarian cancer must be ruled out when a palpable ovary is found. Regarding the scientific method for conducting research which uses the null hypothesis, the ANP knows this is statistically based and the correct format for the null hypothesis is: Group "A" is less than group "B". Group "A" is greater than group "B". There is a 95% probability that group "A" is different from group "B". There is no significant difference between the two groups. Correct answer: "There is no significant difference between the two groups." The research hypothesis may take the other forms. What is the two-hour (2-hour) blood glucose value indicating diabetes mellitus? and an absence of bowel sounds. Which of the following is the most likely cause? bowel ischemia volvulus diverticular disease bowel obstruction Correct Answer: bowel obstruction Of the choices given, the most likely cause would be bowel obstruction. The client may also be experiencing vomiting. An abdominal radiograph would show free air. What is the purpose of certification for the Adult Nurse Practitioner? The purpose is to define a specific legal scope of practice determined by state statutes, boards of nursing, educational requirements, and common practice. The purpose is to protect the public by ensuring a minimum level of professional competence. The purpose is to assure the public that an individual has mastery of a body of knowledge and has acquired the necessary skills to function in a particular specialty. none of the above Correct Answer: The purpose is to assure the public that an individual has mastery of a body of knowledge and has acquired the necessary skills to function in a particular specialty. The purpose of scope of practice for ANPs is to define a specific legal scope of practice determined by state statues, boards of nursing, educational requirements, and common practice. The purpose of licensure for ANPs is to protect the public by ensuring a minimum level of professional competence. All of the following are true of informed consent except: It must be documented in the medical records that the patient has been informed of his or her healthcare options. This is the right of all competent adults who are over the age of 18 and the right of emancipated minors. The clinician has the duty to explain relevant information to the patient so that the patient can make an appropriate decision regarding the care to be provided. This consent will absolve the ANP from allegations of malpractice should it occur. Correct answer: This consent will absolve the ANP from allegations of malpractice should it occur. The information of informed consent includes diagnosis, nature and purpose of proposed treatment or procedure, risks and benefits, prognosis, alternative methods of treatment or care with their risks and benefits, and the Full, low, or nonfat milk can be consumed. Nonfat milk should be avoided. Correct Answer Low or nonfat milk should be consumed Milk is a key part of the ADA diet, though servings should be limited. Low fat and nonfat varieties of milk and yogurt should be consumed by people on the ADA diet. Full fat milk products can raise blood cholesterol levels. Older adults often have visual problems. Which of the following is the term for decreased ability of the eye to accommodate to close work? glaucoma presbyopia myopia arcus senilis Correct answer: presbyopia Presbyopia is the decreased ability of the eye to accommodate to close work. Myopia is just the opposite. In myopia distance vision is poor and items can be seen better the closer they are. Upper airway disorders that mimic asthma include which of the following? vocal fold paralysis conversion disorder bronchiectasis eosinophilic pneumonia Correct Answer: vocal fold paralysis Patients who have atypical symptoms or poor response to asthma therapy may have a condition that mimics asthma. Of the choices given, vocal fold paralysis is an upper airway disorder. Conversion disorder is a psychiatric cause; bronchiectasis and eosinophilic pneumonia are lower airway disorders. Your elderly patient is bedridden and has developed pressure ulcers. There has been damage to the epidermis with blisters forming. The wound bed is pink in color. This would be a pressure ulcer of which of the following stages? stage II stage III stage IV unstageable Correct answer: stage II Pressure ulcer staging ranges from I to IV plus unstageable or unclassified. This patient has a stage II pressure ulcer which is characterized by damage to the epidermis where blisters form and erupt into red shiny skin or shallow superficial ulcers. The wound be is pink to red in color. Hemoptysis may be the presenting symptom for many different diseases. If your 65-year-old male patient also has dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain along with the hemoptysis this is indicative of which of the Correct Answer: profound symptoms Subclinical hypothyroidism is characterized by increased serum TSH concentrations with normal free T4 and free T3 levels. It occurs in 10% to 15% of the general population. The presentation is nonspecific, and symptoms are usually subtle (not profound). In terms of diagnosing pneumonia, acute bacterial pneumonia should be differentiated from acute bacterial bronchitis. On auscultation, a patient with acute bacterial bronchitis will have crackles clear lung sounds except for scattered rhonchi abnormal breath sounds dullness to percussion Correct Answer: clear lung sounds except for scattered rhonchi On auscultation, a patient with acute bacterial bronchitis will have clear lung sounds except for scattered rhonchi. In comparison, the patient with bacterial pneumonia will likely have crackles, dullness to percussion, and abnormal breath sounds. A 48-year-old male patient complains of a sudden onset of severe "ice pick" pains behind one eye. He tells you that the headache is accompanied by tearing, a clear runny nasal discharge, and a drooping eyelid. What type of headache would you diagnose? muscle tension headache cluster headache migraine headache temporal arteritis Correct answer: cluster headache Cluster headaches are severe headaches with lancinating pain behind one eye that occurs several times a day, usually at the same times every day. Their cause is unknown and they are more common in adult males in their 30s and 40s. When communicating with a Native American patient, the GNP knows that: Silence indicates respect for the speaker. Members speak in a loud tone of voice. Eye contact is viewed as a sign of respect. Body language is not important. Correct answer:Silence indicates respect for the speaker. With the Native American patient, silence does indicate respect. Members speak in a low tone of voice and expect others to be attentive. Eye contact is often viewed as disrespectful and body language is important. One of the most sensitive tools for diagnosis of pulmonary emboli that is done through a catheter advanced into the pulmonary artery is which of the following? SBP ≥ 150 and DBP ≥ 90 SBP ≥ 120 and DBP ≥ 90 SBP ≥ 110 and DBP ≥ 80 SBP ≥ 150 and DBP ≥ 80 Correct Answer: SBP ≥ 150 and DBP ≥ 90 In patients aged 60 years and older, treatment for hypertension should be started when SBP ≥ 150 and DBP ≥ 90. After initiation of pharmacological treatment, the patient should be reevaluated within a month. A patient has lost weight but swears she has been eating regularly. Which type of assessment would you use before making a definitive diagnosis? Nutrition. NGASR. Sleep. Psychosocial. Correct Answer: Nutrition. Poor body image may be related to a nutrition imbalance. There may also be other factors that affect the imbalance. A nutrition assessment will help determine the patient's attitude towards food. Gastric parietal cells secrete which of the following? mucous hydrochloric acid blood cells lymphatic fluid Correct Answer: hydrochloric acid Gastric parietal cells secrete hydrochloric acid. This is mediated by histamine2-receptor sites. A cancer in which there is extensive local and regional spread is in which stage? Stage I Stage II Stage III Stage IV Correct answer: Stage III Staging classifies the clinical aspects of the cancer and the degree of metastasis at diagnosis. A cancer with extensive local and regional spread is a Stage III cancer. Which of the following do you NOT use to determine priorities? Health concerns and strengths. Self-actualization. An external irritant. A new medicine. A interaction of current medicines. Outdoor allergy. Correct answer: An external irritant When a patient present with an itchy rash or skin disorder, one of the first things to consider is an allergy to a medicine or food. When no allergy is detected, one of the most common forms of dermatitis happens when a patient tries a new cosmetic or laundry detergent. These types of disorders is often resolved once the product is discontinued.. The type of shock associated with impaired tissue perfusion caused by damage to or dysfunction of the sympathetic nervous system is which of the following? obstructive shock septic shock neurogenic shock hypovolemic shock Correct Answer: neurogenic shock Neurogenic shock is rare and may be associated with trauma, anesthesia, or spinal shock. In neurogenic shock, impaired tissue perfusion is caused by damage to or dysfunction of the sympathetic nervous system. Almost all lung cancers fall within one of four histologic categories. Which of the following is NOT one of these categories? malignant mesothelioma small cell carcinoma squamous cell carcinoma adenocarcinoma Correct Answer: malignant mesothelioma Malignant mesothelioma is not one of the four histologic categories for neoplastic lung disease. Besides the other three choices, large cell carcinoma is also one of the four categories. A 65-year-old Caucasian female is in the office with rosacea. She is asking about treatment options. What is the recommended treatment for her? topical 5-fluorouracil low-dose tetracycline oral ketoconazole oral hydrocortisone Correct Answer: low-dose tetracycline Treatment with systemic low-dose tetracycline is a very effective measure for rosacea; topical treatment with metronidazole or a low-dose steroid cream may also be therapies such as prayer or energy healing practices unless the patient requests it. You have diagnosed a 74-year-old patient with angle- closure glaucoma. Which of these MOST likely caused the condition? Sudden increase in intraocular pressure. Hardening of the lens. Lens clouding. Gradual onset of increased intraocular pressure. Correct answer: Sudden increase in intraocular pressure Presbyopia is caused by the hardening of the lens. Senile cataracts is caused by lens clouding. Open-angle glaucoma is caused by the gradual onset of increased intraocular pressure. Angle-closure glaucoma is caused by the sudden increase in intraocular pressure. You are treating a patient with gouty arthritis who has an inflamed left great toe that is painful. You inquire about his diet to counsel him. Which food contributes most to a high purine diet? beef bread eggs coffee Correct answer: beef Meat and fish contribute significantly to the risk of developing gout in susceptible individual as does tea and alcohol. Bread, coffee and dairy products are low in purine. Which of the following is NOT a sleep pattern change you would expect to see in an otherwise healthy geriatric patient? Difficulty falling asleep. Sleeping fewer hours than in earlier years. Difficulty remaining asleep. Sleeping many more hours than in earlier years. Correct Answer Sleeping many more hours than in earlier years A number of sleep related changes can accompany aging in otherwise healthy adults. Sleeping fewer hours, trouble falling asleep, and trouble staying asleep are all common. A 66-year-old male patient has been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. You understand that the disease varies from person to person but that the signs and symptoms include all but which of the following? pill-rolling tremor akathisia muscular rigidity with masked facies cog-wheel rigidity Correct answer: akathisia Akathisia is a movement disorder that is characterized by a feeling of inner restlessness and a need to be in constant motion. Bradykinesia, on the other hand, is a reduction in the ability to initiate voluntary movement which is typical in Parkinson's patients. Cog-wheel rigidity 0.25 mg q.d. - b.i.d. / 1 - 2 mg / day. 5 mg q.d. / 15 - 30 mg divided t.i.d. Correct answer: 0.25 mg q.h.s. / 0.5 mg q.d. - t.i.d. The other options are starting / target dosages for other medications used to treat anxiety disorders. For example, BuSpar = 5 mg q.d. / 15 - 30 mg divided t.i.d. Xanax = 0.25 mg q.d. - b.i.d. / 0.5 to 3 mg / day. Klonopin = 0.25 mg q.d. - b.i.d. / 1 - 2 mg / day. The BMI of Ms. Green, a 68-year-old patient is being measured. Her BMI is 27, which means she is considered ______. Underweight. Normal. Overweight. Obese. Correct Answer: Overweight. Body Mass Index follows the following parameters: Under 18.5 = Underweight; 18.5 - 24.9 = Normal; 25 - 29.9 = Overweight; 30 and above = Obese. Your 76-year-old patient presents with heartburn and regurgitation. After testing, you determine he is positive for GERD. Which of the following would LEAST likely be a differential diagnosis for GERD? Athlete's foot. Peptic ulcer disease. Cholelithiasis. Angina pectoris. Correct answer: Athlete's foot GERD is a gastrointestinal disorder. Other differential diagnoses of the condition are infectious esophagitis and esophageal motility disorders. This is an ARB used to treat heart failure in elderly patients. Chlorthalidone. Ramipril. Candasartan. Bisoprolol. Correct answer: Candasartan Chlorthalidone treats heart failure, but is a thiazide diuretic. Ramipril is an ACE used to treat heart failure. Candasartan is an ARB that helps treat heart failure, and Bisoprolol, a beta blocker. All but which of the following increase a geriatric patient's risk of abuse or mistreatment? Taking multiple medications. Impaired mobility. Risk for fall. Being male. Correct Answer: Being male Geriatric patients may be at risk for elder abuse or mistreatment. Several factors increase the risk, especially those that contribute to overall frailty. Taking multiple medications, having decreased strength or factors that increase fall risk, cognitive impairment, and dependency on others all increase a patient's risk. Female patients are at greater risk than male patients. A patient has nasopharyngitis - a minor, self-limiting viral infection of the upper respiratory tract. Which of Which of the following is NOT a sign of depression in an older adult? Unexplained aches or pains. A sense of hopelessness. Difficulty with short-term memory. Intense feelings of guilt. Hide Explanation Correct Answer: Difficulty with short-term memory. Difficulties with short-term memory are more consistent with dementia in older adults. Depression may be marked by difficulty concentrating or brief lapses in memory. Intense feelings of guilt and hopelessness are also common.Which of the following is NOT a sign of depression in an older adult? Unexplained aches or pains. A sense of hopelessness. Difficulty with short-term memory. Intense feelings of guilt. Correct Answer: Difficulty with short-term memory. Difficulties with short-term memory are more consistent with dementia in older adults. Depression may be marked by difficulty concentrating or brief lapses in memory. Intense feelings of guilt and hopelessness are also common. An elderly patient is diagnosed with hyperlipidemia. The NP is prescribing a medication that may have the following effects on her LDL, HDL and Triglyceride levels: LDL-5 to 15% decrease, HDL - 14 to 20% increase and Triglyceride - 20 to 50% decrease. Which of the following drugs is the NP MOST likely prescribing? Atorvastatin Gemfibrozil. Nicotinic acid. Colestipol. Correct answer: Gemfibrozil The expected outcomes of the preceding medications are as follows: Atorvastatin: LDL: 20-60% decrease HDL: 5- 15% increase Triglyceride: 10-40% decrease Gemfibrozil: LDL: 5-15% decrease HDL: 14-20% increase Triglyceride: 20-50% decrease Nicotinic acid: LDL: 10-25% decrease HDL: 15-35% increase Triglyceride: 20-50% decrease Colestipol: LDL: 10-20% decrease HDL: 3-5% decrease Triglyceride: May increase Which of the following is the appropriate approach to treating continuous pain in an older adult inpatient? Around-the-clock analgesics. Delayed release, long-acting analgesics. Rapid-onset, short-acting analgesics. Which of these is Ditropan, which can be used to treat incontinence? Oxybutynin. Tolterodine. Trospium. Solifenacin. Correct answer: Oxybutynin Ditropan is a brand name for Oxybutynin and Detrol LA, Tolterodine. Trospium is the generic name for Sanctura and Solifenacin, for Vesicare. You prescribe a medication for your elderly patient and note it should be p.o. What does this mean? Three times a day. As directed. In each eye. Taken by mouth. Correct answer: Taken by mouth O.U. - In each eye; p.o. - Taken by mouth; t.i.d. - Three times a day; ut dict. - As directed. The Geriatric Nurse Practitioner is seeing an older female with pendulous breasts. She complains of a "burning" under her breast and the GNP smells a yeasty odor and sees a reddened area. What is this? impetigo tinea corporis pityriasis rosea intertrigo The Correct answer is: intertrigo Choice D is the right answer. This is common in females of any age. The areas affected are any between skin folds, under the breasts, between the scrotum and inner thigh, or between the toes. You prescribe nasal corticosteroid spray for a patient with allergic rhinitis. What is the anticipated onset of symptom relief with its use? immediately with the first spray within 1 to 2 days after a few days 2 or more weeks Correct answer:after a few days The mechanism of action of corticosteroid nasal spray in allergic rhinitis therapy is prevention of production of inflammatory substances; therefore, corticosteroid and mast cell stabilizers are effective at preventing symptoms of allergic rhinitis, not giving instant relief. Symptoms improvement will be seen after a few days to one week. Which of the following is an ideal candidate for joint replacement surgery? An 88-year old man in excellent healthy with 75% of the articular cartilage of his knee worn away. A 68-year old woman in good health with 90% of the Peptic Ulcer Disease is a gastrointestinal disorder. Other differential diagnoses of the condition are pancreatitis and biliary tract disease. Which of the following best tests for irritable bowel syndrome? colonoscopy rectal exam urinalysis stool examination Correct Answer: stool examination Stool is examined to test for irritable bowel syndrome- negative for blood, ova, parasite, pathogenic bacteria, and Giardia-specific antigen. CBC, thyroid screen, chemical analysis- normal. Barium enema- decreased motility; otherwise normal. Proctosigmoidoscopy- normal. A 67 year female patient has been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Her arterial blood gases were measured. Partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (PaO2) declines with normal aging. What PaO2 level indicates chronic hypoxemia? <55 mm Hg. <65 mm Hg. < 75 mm Hg. Presence of aphasia, apraxia, agnosia and/or disturbance of executive function. Correct Answer: <55 mm Hg. A PaO2 level <55 mm Hg indicates chronic hypoxemia. A patient with this measurement will require continuous oxygen therapy. The ANP prescribed a Systemic Antifungal for the skin disorder of her 32-year-old patient. Which of the following would he NOT prescribe? Sulconazole nitrate 1%. Caspofungin. Terbinafine. Itraconazole. Correct answer: Sulconazole nitrate 1% All of the options listed are examples of Antifungal medications that can be used to treat skin disorders. However, Caspofungin, Terbinafine, and Itraconazole are systemic, while Sulconazole nitrate 1% is topical. Which of the following is the recommended maximum daily dose of Celebrex for managing pain in older adults? 1000 mg. 500 mg. 750 mg. 100 mg. Older adults often get B12 anemia. What is true concerning vitamin B12 therapy? Anemia can resolve within 2 weeks of treatment. Vitamin B12 is available only in parenteral and oral form. Reversal of neurological abnormalities takes longer than 2 months once therapy is started. Oral B12 is just as beneficial as parenteral B12. Correct Answer: Reversal of neurological abnormalities takes longer than 2 months once therapy is started. Anemia does not resolve until around 2 months of treatment and reversal of neurological abnormalities is generally slower than this. B12 is available in parenteral, oral and nasal gel forms. Oral B12 is not as beneficial as parenteral B12. You are assessing a 67-year old woman with complaints of right knee pain when she goes up the stairs or walks long distances. You are examining the knee and note crepitus. What does the Geriatric Nurse Practitioner believe to be the likely cause? femoral tendinitis patellar tendinitis arthritis of the knee patellar bursitis The Correct answer is: arthritis of the knee Choice C is the right answer. Typical symptoms of arthritis include the ones mentioned in the scenario and also pain with standing up after sitting. She will report stiffness after sitting for long periods and after awakening in the morning. Mrs. Hanson is an 80-year-old woman for whom you must prescribe a pain-killing drug. When prescribing drugs for the elderly, such as Mrs. Hanson which of the following would NOT be in your plan? Begin with more than the usual adult dose since absorption may take longer. Make changes infrequently. Allow an adequate trial period before discontinuing the drug. Keep the number of pills needed to achieve the dose low. Correct answer: Begin with more than the usual adult dose since absorption may take longer. This is not something that you would do for an elderly patient. You would begin with less than the usual adult dose. Then you might increase the dose but slowly. During assessment of the heart failure patient, the GNP observes the patient's lungs. The GNP auscultates for: Crackles. Bruits. Tetracyclines should be used with caution by anyone with renal impairment, as these drugs are eliminated renally. Reduction of kidney function is common among the elderly, so dose adjustments may be necessary in this population. You have a patient who has just had a diagnostic arthroscopy. You are instructing him about what to do when he gets home. Which of the following would you NOT instruct him to do? report severe pain to the physician immediately elevate the extremity for 24 - 48 hours resume normal activities within 12 hours so as to help reduce the swelling apply ice to the area involved intermittently Correct answer: resume normal activities within 12 hours so as to help reduce the swelling You would not tell this patient to resume normal activities within 12 hours since activity is initially limited and will slowly progress. He should elevate the extremity for 24-48 hours, report severe pain immediately and treat pain with a mild analgesic. In terms of evaluating heart murmurs, the characteristics of regurgitant murmurs can best be described as which of the following? usually rough usually more pure and uniform sound heard from S1 through S2 turbulent Correct answer: usually more pure and uniform sound Regurgitant murmurs are usually a more pure, uniform sound (e.g., mitral regurgitation). Ejection murmurs are usually rough; and pansystolic murmurs are heard from S1 through S2. Which of the following supplements would you recommend for a woman who is trying to get pregnant that has the ability to reduce birth defects by about 50%? vitamin C vitamin K magnesium folic acid Correct Answer: folic acid Folic acid taken as a supplement has been recognized as reducing the occurrence of neural tube defects. All women of childbearing years, whether pregnant or not, should take 0.4 mg daily of folic acid either alone or as part of a multivitamin supplement. The dose is increased with pregnancy. In which of the following cases would you refer a patient to a specialist for low back pain? A patient with: