AAOS EMT Eleventh Edition Section 1: Preparatory Questions And Answers 2023-2024, Exams of Advanced Education

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AAOS EMT Eleventh Edition Section 1:

Preparatory Questions And Answers

2023-

The EMT is legally obligated to protect a patient's privacy according to _____________.

• Correct Answer-HIPAA Which of the following courses requires about 150 hours of training? - Correct Answer- EMT The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based MOSTLY on: - Correct Answer-EMS research. National guidelines for EMS care are intended to __________. - Correct Answer- provide more consistent delivery of EMS care across the United States Which of the following interventions is used by all levels of EMS providers? - Correct Answer-Automated external defibrillator What is an EMT's primary service area? - Correct Answer-The main area in which the EMS agency operates Online medical control requires __________. - Correct Answer-phone or radio contact with the medical director What should an EMT do to limit errors in the field? - Correct Answer-Follow the agency's written protocols. Prehospital patient care decisions should be based on __________. - Correct Answer- EMS research American Heart Association protocols are based on __________. - Correct Answer- evidence-based research The ability to handle multiple tasks based on their priority is called __________. - Correct Answer-time management The ability to take appropriate action with little direction is known as __________. - Correct Answer-self-motivation

You are encouraging a patient to go to the hospital by ambulance. You know that a transport will keep you on duty several hours after your regular quitting time. This is an example of __________. - Correct Answer-patient advocacy The ability to understand others and have them understand you is known as __________. - Correct Answer-communication Which of the following descriptions MOST accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)? - Correct Answer-A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured Which of the following statements regarding the Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 is correct? - Correct Answer-The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to those who are disabled. As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain based on: - Correct Answer-medical director approval. Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct? - Correct Answer- The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing. Which of the following is a specific example of the Mobile Integrated Healthcare (MIH) model? - Correct Answer-The paramedic administers a patient's flu vaccination You are caring for a driver who struck a light pole. She admits to drinking alcohol but orders you not to tell anyone. You should report the information to __________. - Correct Answer-the receiving nurse or doctor The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the: - Correct Answer-state office of EMS. An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n): - Correct Answer-paramedic. EMT training in nearly every state meets or exceeds the guidelines recommended by the: - Correct Answer-National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA). According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to: - Correct Answer-assist a patient with certain prescribed medications. Cardiac monitoring, pharmacologic interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the: - Correct Answer-paramedic. The criteria to be licensed and employed as an EMT include: - Correct Answer-proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases.

If an EMT candidate has been convicted of a felony or misdemeanor, he or she should:

• Correct Answer-contact the state EMS office and provide its staff with the required documentation. According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT would require special permission from the medical director and the state EMS office to: - Correct Answer- insert a peripheral intravenous catheter. Which of the following scenarios involves the administration of ALS? - Correct Answer-A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device Which of the following skills would a layperson MOST likely be trained to perform before arrival of EMS? - Correct Answer-Bleeding control using a tourniquet The person who is responsible for authorizing EMTs to perform emergency medical care in the field is the: - Correct Answer-medical director. Which type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe? - Correct Answer-Off-line The continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to: - Correct Answer- identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed. Continuing education in EMS serves to: - Correct Answer-maintain, update, and expand the EMT's knowledge and skills. Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the: - Correct Answer- individual EMT. An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to: - Correct Answer-continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.\EMS as we know it today had its origins in 1966 with the publication of:\Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society. Which of the following is NOT true of medical control? - Correct Answer-It is determined by the dispatcher. The major goal of quality improvement is to ensure that: - Correct Answer-the public receives the highest standard of care.\Federal legislation concerning patient confidentiality is known as:\HIPAA. To protect a restrained patient and prevent him from using leverage to break free, the EMT should secure __________. - Correct Answer-one arm above the head

The _________ is both the mechanical weight-bearing base of the spinal column and the fused central posterior section of the pelvic girdle. - Correct Answer-sacrum An EMT may injure his or her back, even if it is straight, if the: - Correct Answer-back is bent forward at the hips. The proper technique for using the power grip is to: - Correct Answer-lift with your palms up. Which of the following statements regarding patient weight distribution is correct? - Correct Answer-The majority of a horizontal patient's weight is in the torso. To minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should: - Correct Answer-keep the weight as close to your body as possible. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate device to use when immobilizing a patient with a suspected spinal injury? - Correct Answer-Long backboard To facilitate a safe and coordinated move, the team leader should: - Correct Answer- use preparatory commands to initiate any moves. As you and your partner are carrying a stable patient down a flight of stairs in a stair chair, you feel a sudden, sharp pain in your lower back. You should: - Correct Answer- stop the move and request additional lifting assistance. When pulling a patient, you should extend your arms no more than ________ in front of your torso. - Correct Answer-15 to 20 inches Which of the following statements regarding an emergency patient move is correct? - Correct Answer-An emergency move is performed before the primary assessment and treatment. Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you find a single patient still seated in his car. There are no scene hazards. As you approach the vehicle, you note that the patient is semiconscious and has a large laceration to his forehead. You should: - Correct Answer-direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient's head. The MOST serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is: - Correct Answer-injury to you or your patient. Which of the following conditions or situations presents the MOST unique challenge to the EMT when immobilizing an elderly patient on a long backboard? - Correct Answer- Abnormal spinal curvature In contrast to typical wheeled ambulance stretchers, features of a bariatric stretcher include: - Correct Answer-increased stability from a wider wheelbase.

When moving a conscious, weak patient down a flight of stairs, you should: - Correct Answer-place the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs and carry the patient down the stairs with a stair chair. It is essential that you ____________ your equipment to prevent the spread of disease.

• Correct Answer-decontaminate You are attending to a 26-year-old female who is 34 weeks pregnant with her first child. Your patient has been having lower abdominal pains and cramping for the past two hours. In placing your patient on the stretcher and preparing for transport, you should place her: - Correct Answer-on her left side. You are attending to a 34-year-old male patient who requires transport to the hospital for assessment of his chronic back pain. The patient weighs over 750 pounds. Your bariatric stretcher has a wider surface area to allow for: - Correct Answer-increased patient comfort and dignity. You are attending to a 22-year-old female patient who has overdosed. The patient is unresponsive in an upstairs bedroom. The most appropriate way to bring the patient downstairs is: - Correct Answer-secured to a fracture board with the strongest provider at the head end. When carrying a patient up or down stairs, you should avoid: - Correct Answer-using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible. You should not attempt to lift a patient who weighs more than 250 lb with fewer than _______ rescuers, regardless of individual strength. - Correct Answer-four To avoid injury when pushing a patient or other object, you should: - Correct Answer- avoid pushing the patient with your elbows fully extended. You and your partner enter the residence of an elderly couple, both of whom are found unconscious in their bed. There is no evidence of trauma. As you begin your assessment, you and your partner notice the smell of natural gas in the residence. Which of the following should be your MOST appropriate action? - Correct Answer- Rapidly remove the patients from their residence using a blanket or clothes drag. Situations in which you should use the rapid extrication technique include all of the following, EXCEPT: - Correct Answer-a patient who can be properly assessed while still in the vehicle. When performing the rapid extrication technique to remove a patient from his or her vehicle, you should: - Correct Answer-apply a cervical collar and remove the patient on a long backboard.

In which of the following situations would a direct ground lift be the MOST appropriate method of moving a patient? - Correct Answer-A conscious patient complaining of abdominal pain The extremity lift would NOT be appropriate to use on a patient: - Correct Answer-with a deformed humerus. The direct carry is used to transfer a patient: - Correct Answer-from a bed to the ambulance stretcher. Which is the MOST appropriate method to use when moving a patient from his or her bed to a wheeled stretcher? - Correct Answer-Draw sheet method An 81-year-old female fell and struck her head. You find the patient lying on her left side. She is conscious and complains of neck and upper back pain. As you are assessing her, you note that she has a severely kyphotic spine. What is the MOST appropriate method of immobilizing this patient? - Correct Answer-Leave her on her side and use blanket rolls to immobilize her to the long backboard. In most instances, you should move a patient on a wheeled ambulance stretcher by: - Correct Answer-pushing the head of the stretcher while your partner guides the foot. An unrestrained patient is sitting in his car after an automobile crash. He is conscious and alert, has no visible trauma, and is complaining of neck and back pain. Before removing him from his car, you should: - Correct Answer-apply a cervical collar and immobilize him with a vest-style device. Which of the following statements regarding the scoop stretcher is NOT correct? - Correct Answer-A scoop stretcher will provide adequate immobilization of a patient's spinal column. The respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute in an infant is ________. - Correct Answer-normal The areas of the infant's skull that have not yet fused together are called ________. - Correct Answer-fontanelles Children of which age group are considered toddlers? - Correct Answer-1-3 years A normal systolic blood pressure for a 30-year-old is between: - Correct Answer-90 and 140 mm Hg. What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult? - Correct Answer-12-20 breaths/min Atherosclerosis is defined as ________. - Correct Answer-the blockage of a coronary artery

Older adults frequently ___________. - Correct Answer-take multiple medications In preconventional reasoning, children: - Correct Answer-act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want. A 16-year-old female complains of vaginal bleeding and abdominal cramping that began several hours ago. During your assessment interview, you should: / inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible. - Correct Answer- The human body should be functioning at its optimal level between the ages of: - Correct Answer-19 and 25 years. Why do middle adults commonly experience financial concerns? - Correct Answer-They are preparing for retirement but must still manage everyday financial demands. The average pulse rate of persons between 19 and 60 years of age is typically: - Correct Answer-70 beats/min. An infant's blood pressure typically increases with age because: - Correct Answer-blood pressure directly corresponds to body weight. You are dispatched to a call for a 4-month-old infant with respiratory distress. While you prepare to take care of this child, you must remember that: - Correct Answer-small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times. Which of the following describes the Moro reflex? - Correct Answer-The neonate opens his or her arms wide, spreads his or her fingers, and seems to grasp at something after being startled. Which of the following is a physical change that typically occurs in the adolescent age group? - Correct Answer-Secondary sexual development begins. Physical changes that typically occur in early adults include an: - Correct Answer- increase in fatty tissue, which leads to weight gain. Which of the following is NOT a common factor that would affect a 75-year-old patient's vital signs? - Correct Answer-Increased weight The risk of bleeding in the skull, which increases with age, is MOST directly related to: - Correct Answer-shrinkage of the brain. When you are communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that: - Correct Answer-age-related changes diminish the effectiveness of the eyes and ears.

Which of the following statements regarding an infant's vital signs is correct? - Correct Answer-An infant's normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschooler's. An infant or small child's airway can be occluded if it is overextended or overflexed because: - Correct Answer-the occiput is proportionately large and the trachea is flexible. The anterior fontanelle fuses together between the ages of: - Correct Answer-9 and 18 months. You are assessing a 13-month-old female who is running a fever and has been vomiting. While you are performing your physical examination on this child, you will MOST likely find that she: - Correct Answer-responds to her name but is fearful of your presence. Which of the following are noticeable characteristics of a 9-month-old infant? - Correct Answer-Places objects in the mouth, pulls himself or herself up At what age does separation anxiety typically peak in infants and small children? - Correct Answer-10 to 18 months The decline in cardiac function that commonly occurs in late adulthood is MOST often related to: - Correct Answer-atherosclerosis. Factors that contribute to a decline in the vital capacity of an elderly patient include all of the following, EXCEPT: - Correct Answer-increased surface area available for air exchange. In late adults, the amount of air left in the lungs after expiration of the maximum amount of air: - Correct Answer-increases, which hampers diffusion of gases because of the stagnant air that remains in the alveoli. Why does the incidence of diabetes mellitus increase with age? - Correct Answer- Decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased insulin production Age-related changes in the renal system result in: - Correct Answer-a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed. According to the terminal drop hypothesis: - Correct Answer-mental function is presumed to decline in the 5 years preceding death. The ____________ is a muscular dome that forms the inferior boundary of the thorax, separating the thorax from the abdomen. - Correct Answer-diaphragm Bile is produced by the liver and concentrated and stored in the: - Correct Answer- gallbladder.

The ___________ is made up of the maxilla and zygoma, as well as the frontal bone of the cranium. - Correct Answer-orbit The brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull called the: - Correct Answer-foramen magnum. Which of the following structures does NOT contain smooth muscle? - Correct Answer- Skeletal system A by-product of involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation is: - Correct Answer-heat. If a patient's chest barely moves during inhalation, even if the patient's respiratory rate is normal, you should suspect that: - Correct Answer-minute volume is decreased. What happens when blood volume is lost from the body? - Correct Answer-The arteries contract to increase the blood pressure. A patient has a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg. The "130" in this measurement represents: - Correct Answer-ventricular contraction. The central nervous system is composed of the: - Correct Answer-brain and spinal cord. Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin? - Correct Answer-Metabolic coordination Which organ lies in the lateral and posterior portion of the left upper quadrant of the abdomen? - Correct Answer-Spleen Which of the following systems is responsible for releasing hormones that regulate body activities? - Correct Answer-Endocrine Urine is transported from the kidneys to the urinary bladder via the: - Correct Answer- ureters. What is the function of the fallopian tubes? - Correct Answer-To transport a mature egg to the uterus The waste products of aerobic metabolism include: - Correct Answer-carbon dioxide and water. Pathophysiology is the study of the functional changes that occur when the body reacts to a particular: - Correct Answer-disease. A patient has a large accumulation of blood in the sac surrounding the heart. Which type of shock would this condition cause? - Correct Answer-Obstructive

Large amounts of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) are generated when: - Correct Answer- the cells function with adequate oxygen. Which of the following is NOT true of the lymphatic system? - Correct Answer-Its vessels closely parallel the major arteries in the body. The axial skeleton is composed of the: - Correct Answer-skull, face, thorax, and vertebral column. The ___________ is made up of the maxilla and zygoma, as well as the frontal bone of the cranium. - Correct Answer-orbit The atlas is the: - Correct Answer-first cervical vertebra, which articulates with the skull. Twelve pairs of ribs attach to which section of the spinal column? - Correct Answer- Thoracic The ___________ portion of the spinal column is joined to the iliac bones of the pelvis. - Correct Answer-sacrum The most distal four spinal vertebrae, which are fused together, form the: - Correct Answer-coccyx. The most superior section of the sternum is called the: - Correct Answer-manubrium. The inferior cartilaginous tip of the sternum is called the: - Correct Answer-xiphoid process. The large, flat, triangular bone that overlies the posterior thoracic wall is called the: - Correct Answer-scapula. The bones of the forearm are called the: - Correct Answer-radius and ulna. The carpal bones form the: - Correct Answer-wrist. The pelvic bones are formed by the fusion of the: - Correct Answer-ilium, ischium, and pubis. The femoral head forms a ball-and-socket joint with the: - Correct Answer-acetabulum. The bony prominence on the lateral/superior aspect of the thigh is called the: - Correct Answer-greater trochanter. The bones that constitute the fingers and toes are called: - Correct Answer-phalanges.

Anterior to the knee is a specialized bone called the: - Correct Answer-patella. The distal aspect of the tibia forms the: - Correct Answer-medial malleolus. The elbow is an example of a ____________ joint. - Correct Answer-hinge The vocal cords are located in the: - Correct Answer-larynx. The leaf-shaped flap of cartilage that prevents food and liquid from entering the trachea during swallowing is called the: - Correct Answer-epiglottis. Together, the right and left lungs contain how many lobes? - Correct Answer-Five As the bronchus divides into smaller bronchioles, the terminal ends of these smaller passages form the: - Correct Answer-alveoli. The diaphragm is unique because it: - Correct Answer-is both a voluntary and an involuntary muscle. The diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract during: - Correct Answer-inhalation. Negative-pressure breathing involves: - Correct Answer-a drop in pressure within the chest cavity. Oxygen and carbon dioxide pass across the alveolar membrane in the lungs through a process called: - Correct Answer-diffusion. Breathing occurs as the result of a(n): - Correct Answer-increase in carbon dioxide, which decreases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. Which of the following statements regarding the medulla oblongata is correct? - Correct Answer-The medulla is sensitive to pH changes and sends messages via the phrenic nerve to contract the diaphragm. The body's backup system of respiratory control, which is based on low concentrations of oxygen in the blood, is called the: - Correct Answer-hypoxic drive. Which of the following signs of respiratory distress is typically unique to infants and children? - Correct Answer-Seesaw respirations Both areas of the pons are used to: - Correct Answer-augment respirations during emotional or physical stress. The amount of air that remains in the lungs simply to keep them open is called the: - Correct Answer-residual volume.

Dead space is the portion of the respiratory system that: - Correct Answer-contains no alveoli and does not participate in gas exchange. Signs of adequate breathing in the adult include all of the following, EXCEPT: - Correct Answer-a reduction in tidal volume. Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing in an adult? - Correct Answer-Respirations of 20 breaths/min and bilateral chest movement Which of the following statements regarding agonal respirations is correct? - Correct Answer-Agonal respirations are ineffective and need to be assisted. The muscle tissue of the heart is called the: - Correct Answer-myocardium. Which of the following statements regarding the heart is correct? - Correct Answer-The heart is under the control of the autonomic nervous system. The primary function of the right atrium is to: - Correct Answer-receive blood from the vena cava. Contraction of the right ventricle causes: - Correct Answer-ejection of blood into the systemic circulation. The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the: - Correct Answer-pulmonary veins. At rest, the normal adult heart rate should not exceed: - Correct Answer-100 beats/min. During each heartbeat, ___________ of blood is ejected from the adult heart, an amount called the stroke volume. - Correct Answer-70 to 80 mL Cardiac output (CO) is affected by: - Correct Answer-stroke volume and heart rate. The electrical impulse of the heart normally begins at the: - Correct Answer-sinoatrial node. The major artery that supplies all other arteries with blood is the: - Correct Answer- aorta. The smooth muscles that cause the artery to contract are found in the: - Correct Answer-tunica media. Which of the following are central pulses? - Correct Answer-Femoral and carotid The artery that can be palpated on the anterior surface of the foot is the: - Correct Answer-dorsalis pedis.

The exchange of oxygen and nutrients for waste products of metabolism occurs at the cellular level in the: - Correct Answer-capillaries. The descending aorta branches into the: - Correct Answer-common iliac arteries. Capillary sphincter closure during internal or external bleeding is detrimental because: - Correct Answer-waste products are not removed and nutrients are not delivered to the cells. Deoxygenated blood from the abdomen, pelvis, and lower extremities is returned to the right atrium via the: - Correct Answer-inferior vena cava. Worn-out blood cells, foreign substances, and bacteria are filtered from the blood by the: - Correct Answer-spleen. Which of the following statements regarding plasma is correct? - Correct Answer- Plasma transports the blood cells and nutrients. Hemoglobin is a molecule that attaches to ___________ and carries oxygen. - Correct Answer-erythrocytes What is the function of platelets? - Correct Answer-Initial formation of a blood clot. The phase of the cardiac cycle in which the ventricles fill with blood is called: - Correct Answer-diastole. The average adult has approximately ___________ of blood in his or her vascular system. - Correct Answer-6 L The circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells' current needs is called: - Correct Answer-perfusion. ___________ pressure is the pressure exerted by a liquid that occurs when blood moves through an artery at relatively high pressures. - Correct Answer-Hydrostatic In an otherwise healthy adult, blood loss would cause: - Correct Answer-vascular constriction and tachycardia. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is a product of: - Correct Answer-cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance. Key hormones of the sympathetic nervous system include: - Correct Answer- epinephrine and norepinephrine.

Stimulation of alpha-adrenergic receptors results in: - Correct Answer-constriction of the blood vessels. Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system would result in: - Correct Answer-a slower heart rate. Which of the following statements regarding nervous system control of the cardiovascular system is correct? - Correct Answer-Baroreceptors located throughout the body provide information to the brain regarding the blood pressure. Activities such as walking, talking, and writing are regulated by the: - Correct Answer- somatic nervous system. The largest portion of the brain is the ___________, which is commonly referred to as the "gray matter." - Correct Answer-cerebrum The part of the brain that controls the left side of the body is the: - Correct Answer-right- side cerebrum. Trauma to the __________ lobe of the brain would likely result in visual disturbances. - Correct Answer-occipital Which part of the central nervous system is responsible for coordinating bodily movements such as writing or sewing? - Correct Answer-Cerebellum All critical life functions are coordinated in which part of the brain? - Correct Answer- Brain stem Your ability to remain awake is a function of the: - Correct Answer-reticular activating system. Which set of nerves is responsible for carrying information from the body to the central nervous system? - Correct Answer-Sensory Which layer of the skin is composed of fatty tissue and serves as an insulator for the body? - Correct Answer-Subcutaneous Which of the following organs is NOT part of the digestive system? - Correct Answer- Kidney The __________ fills the entire anteroposterior depth of the right upper quadrant of the abdomen. - Correct Answer-liver Which of the following organs or structures lies within the retroperitoneal space? - Correct Answer-Kidneys

The exocrine gland of the pancreas secretes: - Correct Answer-pancreatic juice. Bile is produced by the liver and concentrated and stored in the: - Correct Answer- gallbladder. The primary organ responsible for absorption of the products of digestion is the: - Correct Answer-small intestine. Which of the following glands regulates the function of all other endocrine glands in the body? - Correct Answer-Pituitary The suffix "-pathy" means: - Correct Answer-disease. The root "melan/o" means: - Correct Answer-black. "Chondro" in the word chondritis means: - Correct Answer-cartilage. The meaning "around" can have which of the following prefixes? - Correct Answer-"peri-" and "circum-" "Myo" in the word myocarditis means: - Correct Answer-muscle. Which of the following suffixes mean "pertaining to"? - Correct Answer-"-al" and "-ic" Which of the following suffixes mean "two"? - Correct Answer-"dipl-" and "bi-" "Gastro" in the word "gastroenteritis" means: - Correct Answer-stomach. A 5-year-old boy has fallen and has a severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He has possibly sustained a fracture of the ____________ forearm. - Correct Answer-distal The topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are closer toward the midline of the body is: - Correct Answer-medial. An intoxicated 40-year-old male is found lying face down. How would you document his body's position? - Correct Answer-Prone In relation to the chest, the back is: - Correct Answer-posterior. The ___________ of the heart is the inferior portion of the ventricles. - Correct Answer- apex A patient has fractured both femurs. Anatomically, these injuries would be described as being: - Correct Answer-bilateral.

A diabetic patient has polydipsia. This means that she: - Correct Answer-is excessively thirsty. After applying a tourniquet, the injury from a patient's leg stops bleeding. This is called: - Correct Answer-hemostasis. The term "pericardiocentesis" means: - Correct Answer-the removal of fluid from around the heart. EMTs should have a strong working knowledge of medical terminology in order to: - Correct Answer-communicate effectively with other members of the health care team. You are transporting to a 66-year-old patient with a history of heart problems. The patient chart indicates that he has hepatomegaly. The root of the term indicates that: - Correct Answer-the problem is with the patient's liver. You are transporting a 67-year-old female patient to the hospital for investigation of abdominal pain. The patient care record indicates that the patient has a history of AAA. Based on this information, the patient care record includes an abbreviation for: - Correct Answer-abdominal aortic aneurysm. In relation to the wrist, the elbow is: - Correct Answer-proximal. Your patient has been involved in an MVA. The term MVA stands for: - Correct Answer- motor vehicle accident. You are attending to a patient who was involved in a car crash. He was not wearing his seat belt when he ran off the highway and hit a tree. You correctly assume that he has cardiac tamponade. On arrival at the hospital the doctor performs pericardiocentesis. The suffix "-centesis" means: - Correct Answer-pertaining to puncturing an organ or body cavity. A patient presents with severe erythema to his left lateral chest wall and a ruptured spleen. Upon arrival at the hospital, the surgeon performs a splenectomy. The suffix "- ectomy" means: - Correct Answer-surgical removal of. Your patient has had laryngitis for almost a week. It has progressed to the point that she has difficulty swallowing. What is the suffix pertaining to eating or swallowing? - Correct Answer-"-phagia" Your patient was flying back home from Cuba when she developed a nose bleed and headache right behind the eyes. A physician ascertained that her previous head cold had left the patient with sinusitis. The root word "sinus" pertains to which of the following? - Correct Answer-Cavity, channel, or hollow space

You are caring for a very sick patient who is complaining of chest pain. You have him on your cardiac monitor which is showing AF. Suddenly, the patient goes into VF, so you attach your AED and shock him. What do the abbreviations AF, VF and AED stand for?

• Correct Answer-atrial fibrillation, ventricular fibrillation, automated external defibrillator To help protect patients, EMS agencies are required to have __________. - Correct Answer-a privacy officer to answer questions As an EMT, the standards of emergency care are often partially based on: - Correct Answer-It is difficult to prove actions were performed if they are not included on the report. Which of the following general statements regarding consent is correct? - Correct Answer-A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated. Which type of consent is involved when a 39-year-old mentally competent female with a severe headache asks you to take her to the hospital? - Correct Answer-Expressed You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle-versus-pedestrian accident. The patient, a 13-year-old male, is unconscious and has multiple injuries. As you are treating the child, a law enforcement officer advises you that the child's parents will be at the scene in approximately 15 minutes. What should you do? - Correct Answer-Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital. When is forcible restraint permitted? - Correct Answer-When the patient poses a significant threat to self or others In which of the following circumstances can the EMT legally release confidential patient information? - Correct Answer-The patient is competent and signs a release form Which aspect of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) MOST affects EMS personnel? - Correct Answer-Protecting patient privacy During your monthly internal quality improvement (QI) meeting, you review several patient care reports (PCRs) with the staff of your EMS system. You identify the patient's name, age, and sex, and then discuss the treatment that was provided by the EMTs in the field. By taking this approach to the QI process, you: - Correct Answer-are in violation of HIPAA because you did not remove the PHI from the PCR beforehand. You respond to the home of a 59-year-old man who is unconscious; has slow, shallow breathing; and has a weak pulse. The family states that the patient has terminal brain cancer and does not wish to be resuscitated. They further state that there is a DNR order for this patient, but they are unable to locate it. You should: - Correct Answer- begin treatment and contact medical control as needed.

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The driver, a young male, is severely entrapped in his car. He has an open head injury and massive facial trauma. He is unresponsive, is not breathing, and does not have a palpable carotid pulse. You should: - Correct Answer-have your partner check for a pulse to confirm that the patient is deceased. Putrefaction is defined as: - Correct Answer-decomposition of the body's tissues. Where would you MOST likely find information regarding a patient's wishes to be an organ donor? - Correct Answer-Driver's license The EMT's scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the: - Correct Answer-medical director. When performing his or her duties, the EMT is generally expected to: - Correct Answer- exercise reasonable care and act prudently. In which of the following situations does a legal duty to act clearly exist? - Correct Answer-A call is received 15 minutes prior to shift change. Which of the following components are needed to prove negligence? - Correct Answer- Duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include: - Correct Answer-not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons. You are called to attend to an elderly patient with an extensive medical history who is now in cardiac arrest. The patient's family tells you that the patient has a DNR order. There is no paperwork available but the patient does have a MedicAlert bracelet indicating Do Not Resuscitate. You should: - Correct Answer-confirm the patient identity and then confirm the DNR by calling the MedicAlert Foundation number on the bracelet. Which of the following statements about the patient care report is correct? - Correct Answer-It is difficult to prove actions were performed if they are not included on the report. To minimize the risk of litigation, the EMT should: - Correct Answer-provide competent care that meets current standards. You suspect that a pregnant 16-year-old girl has a broken leg after she was hit by a car. You explain that you plan to splint her leg, and she agrees to treatment. Which type of consent is her agreement considered? - Correct Answer-Expressed In many states, a minor may be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to or refusing medical treatment if the minor: - Correct Answer-is self-supporting and lives by him- or herself.

You are treating a man who was assaulted and has a closed head injury. The patient, who has slurred speech, becomes verbally abusive and tells you to leave him alone. You should: - Correct Answer-proceed with treatment and utilize law enforcement for assistance if necessary. A patient regains consciousness en route from his office to the emergency department. The patient tells you that he feels fine and does not want to go to the hospital. Under these circumstances, you should: - Correct Answer-assess whether the patient's mental condition is impaired. Shortly after you load your patient, a 50-year-old man with abdominal pain, into the ambulance, he tells you that he changed his mind and does not want to go to the hospital. The patient is conscious and alert and has no signs of mental incapacitation. You are suspicious that the man has a significant underlying condition and feel strongly that he should go to the hospital. Which of the following statements regarding this situation is correct? - Correct Answer-A mentally competent adult can withdraw his or her consent to treat at any time. As an EMT, the performance of your duties will be compared to that of: - Correct Answer-another EMT. Which of the following MOST accurately defines negligence? - Correct Answer- Deviation from the standard of care that may result in further injury When caring for a 65-year-old male with respiratory distress, you place him in a comfortable position but do not apply oxygen. The patient's condition continues to deteriorate and he develops cardiac arrest and dies at the hospital. This scenario is an example of: - Correct Answer-negligence. Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts abandonment? - Correct Answer-A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT. While transporting a stable patient with chest pain to the hospital, you come across a major motor vehicle crash involving several critically injured patients. You should: - Correct Answer-continue transporting your patient and notify the dispatcher of the crash. In the eyes of the courts, an incomplete or untidy patient care form indicates: - Correct Answer-inadequate patient care was administered. Which of the following situations requires you to notify the appropriate authorities? - Correct Answer-Attempted suicide You are dispatched to an apartment complex for a shooting. Law enforcement personnel are present and have the suspect in custody. You find the patient lying in a

narrow space between the couch and coffee table of his small apartment. He is semiconscious and has a large gunshot wound to his chest. You should: - Correct Answer-quickly move the coffee table so you can access and treat the patient. While transporting a woman with diabetes, you inadvertently give her oral glucose even though her blood glucose level was high. You reassess the patient and note that her condition did not change; she remained stable. You should: - Correct Answer-contact medical control and notify them of the error. / When you and your partner arrive at the residence of a man in cardiac arrest, you immediately recognize the patient as the drunk driver who killed your brother several years earlier. A backup ambulance is en route to the scene. You should: //begin two-rescuer CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible. Which of the following patients has decision-making capacity and can legally refuse emergency medical treatment? - Correct Answer-A conscious and alert woman with severe abdominal pain To help protect patients, EMS agencies are required to have __________. - Correct Answer-a privacy officer to answer questions As an EMT, the standards of emergency care are often partially based on: - Correct Answer-It is difficult to prove actions were performed if they are not included on the report. Which of the following general statements regarding consent is correct? - Correct Answer-A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated. Which type of consent is involved when a 39-year-old mentally competent female with a severe headache asks you to take her to the hospital? - Correct Answer-Expressed You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle-versus-pedestrian accident. The patient, a 13-year-old male, is unconscious and has multiple injuries. As you are treating the child, a law enforcement officer advises you that the child's parents will be at the scene in approximately 15 minutes. What should you do? - Correct Answer-Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital. When is forcible restraint permitted? - Correct Answer-When the patient poses a significant threat to self or others In which of the following circumstances can the EMT legally release confidential patient information? - Correct Answer-The patient is competent and signs a release form Which aspect of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) MOST affects EMS personnel? - Correct Answer-Protecting patient privacy

During your monthly internal quality improvement (QI) meeting, you review several patient care reports (PCRs) with the staff of your EMS system. You identify the patient's name, age, and sex, and then discuss the treatment that was provided by the EMTs in the field. By taking this approach to the QI process, you: - Correct Answer-are in violation of HIPAA because you did not remove the PHI from the PCR beforehand. You respond to the home of a 59-year-old man who is unconscious; has slow, shallow breathing; and has a weak pulse. The family states that the patient has terminal brain cancer and does not wish to be resuscitated. They further state that there is a DNR order for this patient, but they are unable to locate it. You should: - Correct Answer- begin treatment and contact medical control as needed. You and your partner arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The driver, a young male, is severely entrapped in his car. He has an open head injury and massive facial trauma. He is unresponsive, is not breathing, and does not have a palpable carotid pulse. You should: - Correct Answer-have your partner check for a pulse to confirm that the patient is deceased. Putrefaction is defined as: - Correct Answer-decomposition of the body's tissues. Where would you MOST likely find information regarding a patient's wishes to be an organ donor? - Correct Answer-Driver's license The EMT's scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the: - Correct Answer-medical director. When performing his or her duties, the EMT is generally expected to: - Correct Answer- exercise reasonable care and act prudently. In which of the following situations does a legal duty to act clearly exist? - Correct Answer-A call is received 15 minutes prior to shift change. Which of the following components are needed to prove negligence? - Correct Answer- Duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include: - Correct Answer-not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons. You are called to attend to an elderly patient with an extensive medical history who is now in cardiac arrest. The patient's family tells you that the patient has a DNR order. There is no paperwork available but the patient does have a MedicAlert bracelet indicating Do Not Resuscitate. You should: - Correct Answer-confirm the patient identity and then confirm the DNR by calling the MedicAlert Foundation number on the bracelet.

Which of the following statements about the patient care report is correct? - Correct Answer-It is difficult to prove actions were performed if they are not included on the report. To minimize the risk of litigation, the EMT should: - Correct Answer-provide competent care that meets current standards. You suspect that a pregnant 16-year-old girl has a broken leg after she was hit by a car. You explain that you plan to splint her leg, and she agrees to treatment. Which type of consent is her agreement considered? - Correct Answer-Expressed In many states, a minor may be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to or refusing medical treatment if the minor: - Correct Answer-is self-supporting and lives by him- or herself. You are treating a man who was assaulted and has a closed head injury. The patient, who has slurred speech, becomes verbally abusive and tells you to leave him alone. You should: - Correct Answer-proceed with treatment and utilize law enforcement for assistance if necessary. A patient regains consciousness en route from his office to the emergency department. The patient tells you that he feels fine and does not want to go to the hospital. Under these circumstances, you should: - Correct Answer-assess whether the patient's mental condition is impaired. Shortly after you load your patient, a 50-year-old man with abdominal pain, into the ambulance, he tells you that he changed his mind and does not want to go to the hospital. The patient is conscious and alert and has no signs of mental incapacitation. You are suspicious that the man has a significant underlying condition and feel strongly that he should go to the hospital. Which of the following statements regarding this situation is correct? - Correct Answer-A mentally competent adult can withdraw his or her consent to treat at any time. As an EMT, the performance of your duties will be compared to that of: - Correct Answer-another EMT. Which of the following MOST accurately defines negligence? - Correct Answer- Deviation from the standard of care that may result in further injury When caring for a 65-year-old male with respiratory distress, you place him in a comfortable position but do not apply oxygen. The patient's condition continues to deteriorate and he develops cardiac arrest and dies at the hospital. This scenario is an example of: - Correct Answer-negligence. Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts abandonment? - Correct Answer-A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT.

While transporting a stable patient with chest pain to the hospital, you come across a major motor vehicle crash involving several critically injured patients. You should: - Correct Answer-continue transporting your patient and notify the dispatcher of the crash. In the eyes of the courts, an incomplete or untidy patient care form indicates: - Correct Answer-inadequate patient care was administered. Which of the following situations requires you to notify the appropriate authorities? - Correct Answer-Attempted suicide You are dispatched to an apartment complex for a shooting. Law enforcement personnel are present and have the suspect in custody. You find the patient lying in a narrow space between the couch and coffee table of his small apartment. He is semiconscious and has a large gunshot wound to his chest. You should: - Correct Answer-quickly move the coffee table so you can access and treat the patient. While transporting a woman with diabetes, you inadvertently give her oral glucose even though her blood glucose level was high. You reassess the patient and note that her condition did not change; she remained stable. You should: - Correct Answer-contact medical control and notify them of the error. / When you and your partner arrive at the residence of a man in cardiac arrest, you immediately recognize the patient as the drunk driver who killed your brother several years earlier. A backup ambulance is en route to the scene. You should: //begin two-rescuer CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible. Which of the following patients has decision-making capacity and can legally refuse emergency medical treatment? - Correct Answer-A conscious and alert woman with severe abdominal pain Vector-borne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via: - Correct Answer- animals or insects. Which of the following statements regarding the different stages of the grieving process is correct? - Correct Answer-The stages of the grieving process may occur simultaneously. Common factors that influence how a patient reacts to the stress of an illness or injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: - Correct Answer-assessment by the EMT. While providing care to a patient, blood got onto the ambulance stretcher. Because the stretcher was not properly cleaned afterward, a virus was transmitted to another emergency medical technician (EMT) several days later. Which route of transmission does this scenario describe? - Correct Answer-Indirect contact

The EMT's first priority is __________. - Correct Answer-personal safety Which of the following is an effective stress management strategy? - Correct Answer- Developing a social network outside of EMS The simplest, yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to: - Correct Answer-wash your hands in between patient contacts. Gloves, a mask, eye protection, and a face shield should be used: - Correct Answer- when performing endotracheal intubation. After assessing a patient's blood glucose level, you accidentally stick yourself with the contaminated lancet. You should: - Correct Answer-report the incident to your supervisor after the call. When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should: - Correct Answer-allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions. Vaccination against the hepatitis A virus is unnecessary if you: - Correct Answer-have been infected with hepatitis in the past. Which of the following statements regarding HIV is correct? - Correct Answer-There is no vaccine against HIV infection. General adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases? - Correct Answer-Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts a posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reaction? - Correct Answer-An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same type of car in which a child was previously killed. Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser: - Correct Answer-requests sexual favors in exchange for something else. The MOST serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is: - Correct Answer-substandard or inappropriate patient care. You are transporting an elderly woman who has possibly experienced a stroke. She is obviously scared but is unable to talk and cannot move the entire right side of her body. In addition to providing the medical care that she needs, you should: - Correct Answer- acknowledge that she is scared and tell her that you will take good care of her. At the scene of an automobile crash, a utility pole has been broken and power lines are lying across the car. The patients inside the car are conscious. You should: - Correct Answer-mark off a danger zone around the downed lines.

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you note that two small cars collided head-on; the occupants are still in their vehicles. The fire department is in the process of stabilizing the vehicles and law enforcement personnel are directing traffic. After parking the ambulance at a safe distance, you and your partner should: - Correct Answer-put on high-visibility safety vests. Which of the following would provide the EMT with the BEST cover in a situation involving active gunfire? - Correct Answer-A concrete barricade If you use a waterless handwashing substitute in the field, it is important to: - Correct Answer-wash your hands with soap and water at the hospital. Prescription glasses do not provide adequate eye protection because they: - Correct Answer-offer little or no side protection. You are transporting a 40-year-old male with respiratory distress. The patient tells you that he recently had a positive tuberculosis (TB) skin test and is currently being evaluated for possible TB. You should: - Correct Answer-apply a nonrebreathing mask on the patient and a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) respirator on yourself.\Ahead: Infectious and Communicable Diseases Complexity: Moderate Simplified Functional Taxonomy: Application Subject: Infectious and Communicable Disease The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the health care setting can usually be traced to: - Correct Answer-careless handling of sharps.\According to Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulations, an employer must:\offer a workplace environment that reduces the risk of exposure. Determination of exposure is an important component of an infection control plan because it: - Correct Answer-defines who is at risk for contact with blood and body fluids and which tasks pose a risk of exposure The hepatitis B vaccine program, a component of the infection control plan, addresses all of the following issues, EXCEPT: - Correct Answer-family history of hepatitis. The compliance-monitoring component of an infection control plan should:ensure that employees understand what they should do and why it is important. - Correct Answer- If it is not possible to adequately clean your ambulance at the hospital following a call, you should: - Correct Answer-clean the ambulance at your station in a designated area that is well ventilated. Which of the following is the MOST significant factor in determining whether a person will become ill from certain germs? - Correct Answer-Immunity''Which of the following statements regarding the hepatitis B vaccine is correct?