AAOS EMT EXAM 1 QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS 2023-2024, Exams of Advanced Education

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AAOS EMT EXAM 1 QUESTIONS WITH

100% CORRECT ANSWERS 2023-

acute stress reactions - Correct Answer-Reaction to stress that occurs during a stressful situation. airborne transmission - Correct Answer-The spread of an organism in aerosol form. bloodborne pathogens - Correct Answer-Pathogenic microorganisms that are present in human blood and can cause disease in humans. These pathogens include, but are not limited to, hepatitis B virus and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) - Correct Answer-The primary federal agency that conducts and supports public health activities in the United States. The CDC is part of the US Department of Health and Human Services. communicable disease - Correct Answer-A disease that can be spread from one person or species to another. contamination - Correct Answer-The presence of infectious organisms or foreign bodies on or in objects such as dressings, water, food, needles, wounds, or a patient's body. cover and concealment - Correct Answer-The tactical use of an impenetrable barrier for protection. critical incident stress management (CISM) - Correct Answer-A process that confronts the responses to critical incidents and defuses them, directing the emergency services personnel toward physical and emotional equilibrium. cumulative stress reactions - Correct Answer-Prolonged or excessive stress. delayed stress reaction - Correct Answer-Reaction to stress that occurs after a stressful situation. designated officer - Correct Answer-The individual in the department who is charged with the responsibility of managing exposures and infection control issues. direct contact - Correct Answer-Exposure or transmission of a communicable disease from one person to another by physical contact. exposure - Correct Answer-A situation in which a person has had contact with blood, body fluids, tissues, or airborne particles in a manner that suggests disease transmission may occur.

foodborne transmission - Correct Answer-The contamination of food or water with an organism than can cause disease. general adaptation syndrome - Correct Answer-The body's response to stress that begins with an alarm response, followed by a stage of reaction and resistance, and then recovery or, if the stress is prolonged, exhaustion. hepatitis - Correct Answer-Inflammation of the liver, usually caused by a viral infection, that causes fever, loss of appetite, jaundice, fatigue, and altered liver function. host - Correct Answer-The organism or individual that is attacked by the infecting agent. human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) - Correct Answer-Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is caused by HIV, which damages the cells in the body's immune system so that the body is unable to fight infection or certain cancers. immune - Correct Answer-The body's ability to protect itself from acquiring a disease. indirect contact - Correct Answer-Exposure or transmission of disease from one person to another by contact with a contaminated object. infection - Correct Answer-The abnormal invasion of a host or host tissues by organisms such as bacteria, viruses, or parasites, with or without signs or symptoms of disease. infection control - Correct Answer-Procedures to reduce transmission of infection among patients and health care personnel. infectious disease - Correct Answer-a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) - Correct Answer-The federal regulatory compliance agency that develops, publishes, and enforces guidelines concerning safety in the workplace. pathogen - Correct Answer-A microorganism that is capable of causing disease in a susceptible host. personal protective equipment (PPE) - Correct Answer-Clothing or specialized equipment that provides protection to the wearer. posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) - Correct Answer-A delayed stress reaction to a prior incident. This delayed reaction is often the result of one or more unresolved issues concerning the incident.

standard precautions - Correct Answer-Protective measures that have traditionally been developed by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention for use in dealing with objects, blood, body fluids, and other potential exposure risks of communicable disease. transmission - Correct Answer-The way in which an infectious disease is spread: contact, airborne, by vehicles, or by vectors. vector-borne transmission - Correct Answer-The use of an animal to spread an organism from one person, species or place to another. base station - Correct Answer-Any radio hardware containing a transmitter and receiver that is located in a fixed place. cellular telephone - Correct Answer-A low-power portable radio that communicates through an interconnected series of repeater stations called "cells." Channel - Correct Answer-An assigned frequency or frequencies that are used to carry voice and/or data communications. close-ended questions - Correct Answer-Questions that can be answered in short or single word responses. Communication - Correct Answer-The transmission of information to another person— verbally or through body language. cultural imposition - Correct Answer-When one person imposes his or her beliefs, values, and practices on another because he or she believe his or her ideals are superior. dedicated line - Correct Answer-A special telephone line that is used for specific point- to-point communications; also known as a "hotline." Documentation - Correct Answer-The written portion of the EMT's patient interaction. This becomes part of the patient's permanent medical record. Duplex - Correct Answer-The ability to transmit and receive simultaneously. Ethnocentrism - Correct Answer-When a person considers his or her own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture. Federal Communications Commission (FCC) - Correct Answer-The federal agency that has jurisdiction over interstate and international telephone and telegraph services and satellite communications, all of which may involve EMS activity. MED channels - Correct Answer-VHF and UHF channels that the Federal Communications Commission has designated exclusively for EMS use.

mobile data terminals (MDT) - Correct Answer-Small computer terminals inside ambulances that directly receive data from the dispatch center. Noise - Correct Answer-Anything that dampens or obscures the true meaning of a message. open-ended questions - Correct Answer-Questions for which the patient must provide detail to give an answer. Paging - Correct Answer-The use of a radio signal and a voice or digital message that is transmitted to pagers ("beepers") or desktop monitor radios. patient care report (PCR) - Correct Answer-The legal document used to record all patient care activities. This report has direct patient care functions but also administrative and quality control functions. PCRs are also known as prehospital care reports. Proxemics - Correct Answer-The study of space between people and its effects on communication. Rapport - Correct Answer-A trusting relationship that you build with your patient. Repeater - Correct Answer-A special base station radio that receives messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits them on a second frequency. Scanner - Correct Answer-A radio receiver that searches or "scans" across several frequencies until the message is completed; the process is then repeated. Simplex - Correct Answer-Single-frequency radio; transmissions can occur in either direction but not simultaneously in both; when one party transmits, the other can only receive, and the party that is transmitting is unable to receive. standing orders - Correct Answer-Written documents, signed by the EMS system's medical director, that outline specific directions, permissions, and sometimes prohibitions regarding patient care; also called protocols. Telemetry - Correct Answer-A process in which electronic signals are converted into coded, audible signals; these signals can then be transmitted by radio or telephone to a receiver with a decoder at the hospital. therapeutic communication - Correct Answer-Verbal and nonverbal communication techniques that encourage patients to express their feelings and to achieve a positive relationship.

Trunking - Correct Answer-Telecommunication systems that allow a computer to maximize utilization of a group of frequencies. UHF (ultra-high frequency) - Correct Answer-Radio frequencies between 300 and 3, MHz. VHF (very high frequency) - Correct Answer-Radio frequencies between 30 and 300 MHz; the VHF spectrum is further divided into "high" and "low" bands. Abandonment - Correct Answer-termination of care by EMT without patient consent or continuing care Advance Directive - Correct Answer-specifies treatment should the patient become unconscious Assault - Correct Answer-Unlawfully placing person in fear of immediate bodily harm Battery - Correct Answer-Unlawfully touching a person Consent - Correct Answer-Permission to render care Defamation - Correct Answer-Communication of false information that damages reputation of a person Dependent lividity - Correct Answer-blood settling DNR orders - Correct Answer-advance directive that gives permission not to resuscitate Durable power of attorney for health care - Correct Answer-Able to make health care decisions Duty to act - Correct Answer-responsibility to provide patient care Emancipated minor - Correct Answer-Married, in armed services, or parents Emergency doctrine - Correct Answer-principle of implied consent Expressed consent - Correct Answer-Patient acknowledges he or she wants you to provide care or transport False imprisionment - Correct Answer-unauthorized confinement of a person Good Samaritan Law - Correct Answer-legal protection to people who give reasonable assistance to those in need Gross negligence - Correct Answer-Lack of diligence or care.

Implied consent - Correct Answer-Applies to unconscious or incapable patients Informed consent - Correct Answer-Treatment, risks and benefits have been explained. Kidnapping - Correct Answer-Seizing, confining, abducting, or carrying away by force Libel - Correct Answer-a published false statement Negligence - Correct Answer-Failure to provide same care that person with similar training would provide in same or similar situation PHI - Correct Answer-Protected Health Information Rigor mortis - Correct Answer-stiffening Slander - Correct Answer-making a false spoken statement damaging to a person's reputation The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based MOSTLY on: - Correct Answer-EMS Research The ability to take appropriate action with little direction is known as ______ - Correct Answer-self-motivation Which of the following interventions is used by all levels of EMS providers? - Correct Answer-Automated External Defibrillator Prehospital patient care decision should be based on _____ - Correct Answer-EMS Research Online medical control requires______ - Correct Answer-Phone or radio contact with the medical director The EMT is legally obligated to protect a patient's privacy according to _______ - Correct Answer-HIPAA Which of the following is a specific example of the Mobile Integrated Healthcare (MIH) model? - Correct Answer-The paramedic administers a patient's flu vaccination As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain based on: - Correct Answer-Medical director approval The ability to handle multiple tasks based on their priority is called_______ - Correct Answer-time management

National guidelines for EMS care are intended to _______ - Correct Answer-Provide more consistent delivery of EMS care across the United States Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct? - Correct Answer- The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing American Heart Association protocols are based on ____ - Correct Answer-Evidence- based research The ability to understand others and have them understand you is known as _______ - Correct Answer-Communication What is an EMT's primary service area? - Correct Answer-The main area in which the EMS agency operates What should an EMT do to limit errors in the field? - Correct Answer-Follow the agency's written protocols You are encouraging a patient to go to the hospital by ambulance. You know that a transport will keep you on duty several hours after your regular quitting time. This is an example of ____________ - Correct Answer-Patient advocacy Which of the following descriptions MOST accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)? - Correct Answer-A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured You are caring for a driver who struck a light pole. She admits to drinking alcohol but orders you not to tell anyone. You should report the information to _____ - Correct Answer-The receiving nurse or doctor Which of the following courses requires about 150 hours of training? - Correct Answer- EMT Which of the following statements regarding the Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 is correct? - Correct Answer-The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to those who are disabled Backboard - Correct Answer-A long flat board made of rigid, rectangular material used to provide support to a patient who is suspect of having a hip, pelvic, spinal, or lower extremity injury Bariatrics - Correct Answer-A branch of medicine concerned with the management of obesity and allied disease

Basket Stretcher - Correct Answer-A rigid stretcher commonly used in technical and water rescue that surrounds and supports the patient, yet allows water to drain through holes in the bottom Body Mechanics - Correct Answer-The relationship between the body's anatomical structures and the physical forces associated with lifting, moving, and carrying Diamond Carry - Correct Answer-A carrying technique in which one provider is located at the head end of the stretch, one at the foot end, and one at each side of the patient, all using one hand to support the stretch Direct Ground Lift - Correct Answer-A lifting that is used for patients who are found lying supine on the ground with no suspected spinal injury Emergency Move - Correct Answer-A move in which the patient is dragged or pulled from a dangerous scene before assessment and care are provided Extremity Lift - Correct Answer-A lifting technique that is used for patients who are supine or in a sitting position with no suspected extremity or spinal injuries Flexible Stretcher - Correct Answer-A stretcher that is a rigid carrying device when secured around a patient but can be folded or rolled when not in use Portable Stretcher - Correct Answer-A stretcher with a strong, rectangular, tubular metal frame and rigid fabric stretched across it Power Grip - Correct Answer-A technique in which the stretcher is gripped by inserting each hand under the handle with the palm facing up and the thumb extended, fully supporting the underside of the handle on the palm with the fingers and thumb Power Lift - Correct Answer-A lifting technique in which the EMT's back is held upright, with legs bent, and the patient is lifted when the EMT straightens the legs to raise the upper body and arms Rapid Extrication Technique - Correct Answer-A technique to move a patient from a sitting position inside a vehicle to supine on a backboard in less than 1 minute when conditions do not allow for standing immobilization Scoop Stretcher - Correct Answer-A stretcher that is designed to be split into two or four sections that can be fitted around a patient who is laying on the ground or other relatively flat surface Stair Chair - Correct Answer-A lightweight folding device that is used to carry a conscious, seated patient up or down stairs

Wheeled Ambulance Stretcher - Correct Answer-A specially designed stretcher that can be rolled along the ground. Access - Correct Answer-Gaining entry to an enclosed area and reaching a patient Command Post - Correct Answer-The location of the incident commander at the scene of an emergency and where command, coordination, control, and communications are centralized Complex Access - Correct Answer-Entry that requires special tools and training and includes the use of force Danger Zone (Hot Zone) - Correct Answer-An area where people can be exposed to hazards such as electric wires, sharp metal edges, broken glass, toxic substances, radiation, or fire Entrapment - Correct Answer-To be caught (trapped) within a vehicle, room, or container with no way out or to have a limb or other body part trapped Extrication - Correct Answer-Removal of a patient from entrapment or a dangerous situation or position, such as removal from a wreaked vehicle, industrial incident, or collapsed building Hazardous Material - Correct Answer-Any substances that are toxic, poisonous, radioactive, flammable, or explosive and cause injury or death with exposure Incident Commander - Correct Answer-The individual who has overall command of the incident in the field Safe Zone - Correct Answer-`An area of protection providing safety from the danger zone Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus - Correct Answer-Respirator with independent air supply used by firefighters to enter toxic and otherwise dangerous atmosphers Simple Access - Correct Answer-Access that is easily achieved without the use of tools or force Size-up - Correct Answer-The ongoing process of information gathering and scene evaluation to determine appropriate strategies and tactics to manage an emergency Special Weapons and Tactics Team (SWAT) - Correct Answer-A specialized law enforcement tactical unit Structure Fire - Correct Answer-A fire in a house, apartment building, office, school, plant, warehouse, or other building

Tactical Situation - Correct Answer-A hostage, robbery, or other situation in which armed conflict is threatened or shots have been fired and the threat of violence remains Technical Rescue Group - Correct Answer-A team of emergency responders from one or more departments in a region who are trained and on call for certain types of technical rescue Technical Rescue Situation - Correct Answer-A rescue that requires special technical skills and equipment in one of many specialized rescue areas, such as technical rope rescue, cave rescue, and dive rescue Emergency Response Guidebook - Correct Answer-A preliminary action guide for first responders operating at a hazardous materials incident in coordination with the US Department of Transportation's labels and placards marking system. The ERG was jointly developed by the DOT, the Secretariat of Communications and Transportation of Mexico, and Transport Canada. bills of lading - Correct Answer-The shipping papers used for transport of chemicals over roads and highways. Also referred to as freight bills. carboys - Correct Answer-Glass, plastic, or steel containers, ranging in volume from 5 to 15 gallons. casualty collection area - Correct Answer-An area set up by physicians, nurses, and other hospital staff near a major disaster scene where patients can receive further triage and medical care. Chemical Transportation Emergency Center (CHEMTREC) - Correct Answer-An agency that assists emergency personnel in identifying and handling hazardous materials transport incidents. cold zone - Correct Answer-A safe area at a hazardous materials incident for the agencies involved in the operations. The incident commander, the command post, EMS providers, and other support functions necessary to control the incident should be located in the cold zone. Also referred to as the clean zone or the support zone. command - Correct Answer-In incident command, the position that oversees the incident, establishes the objectives and priorities, and from there develops a response plan. command post - Correct Answer-The location of the incident commander at the scene of an emergency and where command, coordination, control, and communication are centralized.

container - Correct Answer-Any vessel or receptacle that holds material, including storage vessels, pipelines, and packaging. control zones - Correct Answer-Areas at a hazardous materials incident that are designated as hot, warm, or cold, based on safety issues and the degree of hazard found there. cylinders - Correct Answer-Portable, compressed gas containers used to hold liquids and gases. Uninsulated compressed gas cylinders are used to store substances such as nitrogen, argon, helium, and oxygen. They have a range of sizes and internal pressures. danger zone (hot zone) - Correct Answer-An area where individuals can be exposed to electrical hazards such as sharp metal edges, broken glass, toxic substances, lethal rays, or ignition or explosion of hazardous materials. decontamination - Correct Answer-The process of removing or neutralizing and properly disposing of hazardous materials from equipment, patients, and rescue personnel. decontamination area - Correct Answer-The designated area in a hazardous materials incident where all patients and rescuers must be decontaminated before going to another area. demobilization - Correct Answer-The process of directing responders to return to their facilities when work at a disaster or mass-casualty incident has finished, at least for those particular responders. disaster - Correct Answer-A widespread event that disrupts community resources and functions, in turn threatening public safety, citizens' lives, and property. drums - Correct Answer-Barrel-like containers used to store a wide variety of substances, including food-grade materials, corrosives, flammable liquids, and grease. Drums may be constructed of low-carbon steel, polyethylene, cardboard, stainless steel, nickel, or other materials. extrication supervisor - Correct Answer-In incident command, the person appointed to determine the type of equipment and resources needed for a situation involving extrication or special rescue; also called the rescue officer. finance - Correct Answer-In incident command, the position in an incident responsible for accounting of all expenditures. freelancing - Correct Answer-When individual units or different organizations make independent and often inefficient decisions about the next appropriate action.

freight bills - Correct Answer-The shipping papers used for transport of chemicals along roads and highways. Also referred to as bills of lading. hazardous material - Correct Answer-Any substance that is toxic, poisonous, radioactive, flammable, or explosive and causes injury or death with exposure. hazardous materials (HazMat) incident - Correct Answer-An incident in which a hazardous material is no longer properly contained and isolated. hot zone - Correct Answer-The area immediately surrounding a hazardous materials spill/incident site that is directly dangerous to life and health. All personnel working in the hot zone must wear complete, appropriate protective clothing and equipment. Entry requires approval by the incident commander or other designated officer. incident action plan - Correct Answer-An oral or written plan stating general objectives reflecting the overall strategy for managing an incident. incident command system (ICS) - Correct Answer-A system implemented to manage disasters and mass-casualty incidents in which section chiefs, including finance, logistics, operations, and planning, report to the incident commander. incident commander (IC) - Correct Answer-The overall leader of the incident command system to whom commanders or leaders of incident command system divisions report. intermodal tanks - Correct Answer-Shipping and storage vessels that can be either pressurized or nonpressurized. joint information center - Correct Answer-An area designated by the incident commander, or a designee, in which public information officers from multiple agencies disseminate information about the incident. JumpSTART triage - Correct Answer-A sorting system for pediatric patients younger than 8 years or weighing less than 100 lb. There is a minor adaptation for infants since they cannot ambulate on their own. liaison officer - Correct Answer-In incident command, the person who relays information, concerns, and requests among responding agencies. logistics - Correct Answer-In incident command, the position that helps procure and stockpile equipment and supplies during an incident. mass-casualty incident (MCI) - Correct Answer-An emergency situation involving three or more patients that can place great demand on the equipment or personnel of the EMS system or has the potential to produce multiple casualties.

material safety data sheet (MSDS) - Correct Answer-A form, provided by manufacturers and compounders (blenders) of chemicals, containing information about chemical composition, physical and chemical properties, health and safety hazards, emergency response, and waste disposal of a specific material. medical incident command - Correct Answer-A branch of operations in a unified command system, whose three designated sector positions are triage, treatment, and transport. morgue supervisor - Correct Answer-In incident command, the person who works with area medical examiners, coroners, and law enforcement agencies to coordinate the disposition of dead victims. mutual aid response - Correct Answer-An agreement between neighboring EMS systems to respond to mass-casualty incidents or disasters in each other's region when local resources are insufficient to handle the response. National Incident Management System (NIMS) - Correct Answer-A Department of Homeland Security system designed to enable federal, state, and local governments and private-sector and nongovernmental organizations to effectively and efficiently prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents, regardless of cause, size, or complexity, including acts of catastrophic terrorism. nonbulk storage vessels - Correct Answer-Any container other than bulk storage containers such as drums, bags, compressed gas cylinders, and cryogenic containers. Nonbulk storage vessels hold commonly used commercial and industrial chemicals such as solvents, industrial cleaners, and compounds. operations - Correct Answer-In incident command, the position that carries out the orders of the commander to help resolve the incident. personal protective equipment (PPE) levels - Correct Answer-Measures of the amount and type of protective equipment that an individual needs to avoid injury during contact with a hazardous material. placards - Correct Answer-Signage required to be placed on all four sides of highway transport vehicles, railroad tank cars, and other forms of hazardous materials transportation; the sign identifies the hazardous contents of the vehicle, using a standardization system with 10¾-inch diamond-shaped indicators. planning - Correct Answer-In incident command, the position that ultimately produces a plan to resolve any incident. primary triage - Correct Answer-A type of patient sorting used to rapidly categorize patients; the focus is on speed in locating all patients and determining an initial priority as their conditions warrant.

public information officer (PIO) - Correct Answer-In incident command, the person who keeps the public informed and relates any information to the press. rehabilitation area - Correct Answer-The area that provides protection and treatment to fire fighters and other personnel working at an emergency. Here, workers are medically monitored and receive any needed care as they enter and leave the scene. rehabilitation supervisor - Correct Answer-In incident command, the person who establishes an area that provides protection for responders from the elements and the situation. rescue supervisor - Correct Answer-In incident command, the person appointed to determine the type of equipment and resources needed for a situation involving extrication or special rescue; also called the extrication officer. safety officer - Correct Answer-In incident command, the person who gives the "go ahead" to a plan or who may stop an operation when rescuer safety is an issue. secondary containment - Correct Answer-An engineered method to control spilled or released product if the main containment vessel fails. secondary triage - Correct Answer-A type of patient sorting used in the treatment sector that involves retriage of patients. single command system - Correct Answer-A command system in which one person is in charge; generally used with small incidents that involve only one responding agency or one jurisdiction. span of control - Correct Answer-In incident command, the subordinate positions under the commander's direction to which the workload is distributed; the supervisor/worker ratio. staging supervisor - Correct Answer-In incident command, the person who locates an area to stage equipment and personnel and tracks unit arrival and deployment from the staging area. START triage - Correct Answer-A patient sorting process that stands for Simple Triage And Rapid Treatment and uses a limited assessment of the patient's ability to walk, respiratory status, hemodynamic status, and neurologic status. termination of command - Correct Answer-The end of the incident command structure when an incident draws to a close. toxicity levels - Correct Answer-Measures of the risk that a hazardous material poses to the health of an individual who comes into contact with it.

transportation area - Correct Answer-The area in a mass-casualty incident where ambulances and crews are organized to transport patients from the treatment area to receiving hospitals. transportation supervisor - Correct Answer-The individual in charge of the transportation sector in a mass-casualty incident who assigns patients from the treatment area to awaiting ambulances in the transportation area. treatment area - Correct Answer-The location in a mass-casualty incident where patients are brought after being triaged and assigned a priority, where they are reassessed, treated, and monitored until transport to the hospital. treatment supervisor - Correct Answer-The individual, usually a physician, who is in charge of and directs EMS personnel at the treatment area in a mass-casualty incident. triage - Correct Answer-The process of sorting patients based on the severity of injury and medical need to establish treatment and transportation priorities. triage supervisor - Correct Answer-The individual in charge of the incident command triage sector who directs the sorting of patients into triage categories in a mass-casualty incident. unified command system - Correct Answer-A command system used in larger incidents in which there is a multiagency response or multiple jurisdictions are involved. warm zone - Correct Answer-The area located between the hot zone and the cold zone at a hazardous materials incident. The decontamination corridor is located in the warm zone.