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AAOS Exam Questions with 100% Correct Answers | Verified | Updated 2023-2024, Exams of Advanced Education

AAOS Exam Questions with 100% Correct Answers | Verified | Updated 2023-2024 A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when: the inner layers of the aorta become separated - Correct Answer- When assessing a patient with abdominal pain, you should: palpate the abdomen in a clockwise direction, beginning with the quadrant after the one the patient indicates is painful - Correct Answer- clinical signs of compensated shock include all of the following except: A. cool and clammy skin B. absent peripheral pulse C. restlessness or anxiety D. rapid, shallow breathing - Correct Answer-absent peripheral pulse pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during: A. anaphylactic shock B. cardiogenic shock C. hypovolemic shock D. neurogenic shock - Correct Answer-B.

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Download AAOS Exam Questions with 100% Correct Answers | Verified | Updated 2023-2024 and more Exams Advanced Education in PDF only on Docsity! AAOS Exam Questions with 100% Correct Answers | Verified | Updated 2023-2024 A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when: the inner layers of the aorta become separated - Correct Answer- When assessing a patient with abdominal pain, you should: palpate the abdomen in a clockwise direction, beginning with the quadrant after the one the patient indicates is painful - Correct Answer- clinical signs of compensated shock include all of the following except: A. cool and clammy skin B. absent peripheral pulse C. restlessness or anxiety D. rapid, shallow breathing - Correct Answer-absent peripheral pulse pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during: A. anaphylactic shock B. cardiogenic shock C. hypovolemic shock D. neurogenic shock - Correct Answer-B. cardiogenic shock Basic life support (BLS) is defined as: a. invasive emergency medical interventions such as intravenous therapy and advanced airway management b. any form of emergency medical treatment that is performed by advanced EMTs, paramedics, physicians, and emergency nurses c. basic lifesaving that is performed by bystanders while EMS are en route to the scene of an emergency d. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest - Correct Answer-d. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest You are performing mouth-to-mask ventilations with oxygen connected and set at a flow rate of 15 L/min. What percentage of oxygen is your patient receiving? Select one: A. 45% B. 55% C. 65% D. 75% - Correct Answer-B. 55% Online medical control requires_____. a. written protocols approved by medical control b. phone or radio contact with medical director c. presence of an advanced-level provider d. a physicians presence on the scene of the call - Correct Answer-b. phone or radio contact with medical director What should an EMT do to limit errors in the field? a. carry an EMT test for reference at all times b. deviate from established standards when necessary c. follow the agency's written protocols d. contact medical direction before initiating any treatments - Correct Answer-c. follow the agency's written protocols you are caring for a driver who struck a light pole. she admits to drinking alcohol but orders you not to tell anyone. you should report the information to ______. a. the receiving nurse or doctor b. law enforcement personnel c. the state motor vehicle department d. your medical director - Correct Answer-a. the receiving nurse or doctor You are encouraging a patient to go to the hospital by ambulance. You know that a transport will keep you on duty several hours after your regular quitting time. This is an example of __________. a. undue hardship b. patient advocacy c. scope of practice d. abuse of authority - Correct Answer-b. patient advocacy the ability to understand others and have them understand you is known as _____. a. communication b. scene leaderships c. self-confidence d. teamwork and diplomacy - Correct Answer-a. communication The EMT's first priority is __________. A. personal safety B. rapid response C. treatment and transport D. empathy for all patients - Correct Answer-A. personal safety Common factors that influence how a patient reacts to the stress of an illness or injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: a. assessment by the EMT b. mental disorders c. history of chronic disease c. while handling needles or other sharps d. when performing endotracheal intubation - Correct Answer-d. when performing endotracheal intubation The EMT is legally obligated to protect a patient's privacy according to _____________. a. DCAP b. APGAR c. HIPAA d. CQI - Correct Answer-c. HIPAA When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should: a. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions b. use a bleach and water solution at 1:2 dilution ratio to thoroughly wipe down surfaces c. clean all surfaces and patient contact areas with a mixture of alcohol and water d. spray contaminated areas and then immediately wipe them dry - Correct Answer-a. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should: a. place the patient in a high-visibility area then respond to the call. b. inform the admissions clerk of the situation and then respond at once c. leave a copy of the run form with a nurse and then respond to the call d. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician - Correct Answer-d. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician which of the following statements regarding a patient refusal is correct? a. a patient who consumed a few beers will likely be able to refuse ems treatment b. advice given to a patient who refuses ems treatment should not be documented c. a mentally competent adult has the legal right to refuse ems care and transport d. documentation of proposed care is unnecessary if the patient refuses treatment - Correct Answer-c. a mentally competent adult has the legal right to refuse ems care and transport When providing a patient report via radio, you should protect the patient's privacy by: a. using coded medical language b. not disclosing their name c. withholding medical history data d. refraining from objective statements - Correct Answer-b. not disclosing their name When relaying patient information via radio, communications should be: a. brief and easily understood b. coded and scripted c. spoken in a loud voice d. lengthy and complete - Correct Answer-a. brief and easily understood Medical control gives you an order that seems inappropriate for the patient's condition. After confirming that you heard the physician correctly, you should: a. carry out the order and then carefully document it on the run form b. advise the physician that the order is unclear and to ask for clarification c. state that you will not carry out the order because it is inappropriate d. obtain consent from the patient and then carry out the order as usual - Correct Answer-b. advise the physician that the order is unclear and to ask for clarification which of the following will help improve radio communications ? a. wait 1 second after pressing the transmit button before speaking b. hold the radio at least 6 inches from your mouth c. use codes to speed communication d. answer questions with yes or no - Correct Answer-a. wait 1 second after pressing the transmit button before speaking When you are communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that: a. your questions should focus exclusively on the patients obvious problem b. most older people think clearly and are capable of answering questions c. hostility and confusion should be presumed to be due to the patients age d. speaking loudly and distinctly will ensure that the patient can hear you - Correct Answer-b. most older people think clearly and are capable of answering questions Effective therapeutic communication skills require _________. a. verbal and nonverbal communication techniques b. English-speaking patients of family members c. supervision by ALS personnel d. correct use of complex medical terminology - Correct Answer-a. verbal and nonverbal communication techniques you are caring for a 56-year-old male patient complaining of abdominal pain. your service recently switched to an electronic PCR system (ePCR). when completing the ePCR, it is important to be aware that: a. the ePCR is relatively unsecured and shoukd not contain patient-specific information b. the ePCR does not contain the same level of information as the written version and your verbal report should be expanded c. the ePCR allows patient information to be transmitted directly to the receiving hospitals computers d. a written patient care report record will need to be completed on arrival at the hospital - Correct Answer-c. the ePCR allows patient information to be transmitted directly to the receiving hospitals computers You could be sued for ___________ if your radio report to the hospital describes the patient in a manner that injures his or her reputation. a. libel b. assault c. slander d. negligence - Correct Answer-c. slander the _____ is made up of the maxilla and the zygoma, as well as the frontal bone of the cranium. a. orbit b. occiput c. mastoid d. Sphenoid - Correct Answer-a. orbit Urine is transported from the kidneys to the urinary bladder via the: a. prostate b. ureters c. urethra d. renal duct - Correct Answer-b. ureters what is the function of the fallopian tubes? a. to connect the ovaries b. to supply blood to the uterine lining c. to produce progesterone and estrogen d. to transport a mature egg to the uterus - Correct Answer-d. to transport a mature egg to the uterus which of the following systems is responsible for releasing hormones that regulate body activities? a. skeletal b. nervous c. endocrine d. reproductive - Correct Answer-c. endocrine pathophysiology is the study of the functional changes that occur when the body reacts to a particular: a. medication b. assessment c. disease d. protocol - Correct Answer-c. disease the brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull called the: a. foramen ovale b. vertebral foramen c. spinous foramen d. foramen magnum - Correct Answer-d. foramen magnum If a patient's chest barely moves during inhalation, even if the patient's respiratory rate is normal, you should suspect that: a. minute volume is decreased c. 25-50 d.40-60 - Correct Answer-a. 12-20 which of the following is NOT a common factor that would affect a 75-year-old patients vital signs? a. medications b. overall health c. increased weight d. medical conditions - Correct Answer-c. increased weight the average pulse rate of persons between 19 and 60 years of age is typically: a. 60 b.70 c. 80 d. 90 - Correct Answer-b. 70 You are dispatched to a call for a 4-month-old infant with respiratory distress. While you prepare to take care of this child, you must remember that: a. small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all time b. assisted ventilations in infants often need to be forceful to inflate their lungs c. the infants proportionately small tongue often causes an airway obstruction d. an infants head should be placed in a flexed position to prevent obstruction - Correct Answer-a. small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all time a normal systolic blood pressure for a 30 year old is between: a. 60-120 b. 70-140 c. 80-120 d. 90-140 - Correct Answer-d. 90-140 the respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute in an infant is : a. normal b. too fast c. too slow d. too shallow - Correct Answer-a. normal which of the following is a physical change that typically occurs in the adolescents age group? a. secondary sexual developments begins b. muscle and bone growth both decrease c. the normal pulse rate steadily increases d. the systolic blood pressure decreases - Correct Answer-a. secondary sexual developments begins the human body should be functioning at its optimal level between the ages of: a. 18-22 b. 19-25 c. 21-30 d. 25-35 - Correct Answer-b.19-25 The areas of the infant's skull that have not yet fused together are called ________. a. ventricles b. cranial valleys c. sutures d. fontanelles - Correct Answer-d. fontanelles Children of which age group are considered toddlers? a. 1-3 b. 3-6 c. 1 month -1 d. over 6 years - Correct Answer-a. 1-3 in contrast to typical wheeled ambulance stretchers, features of a bariatric stretcher include: a. a collapsible undercarriage b. weight capacity of 650lbs c. increased stability from a wider wheelbase d. two safety rails on both sides of the stretcher - Correct Answer-c. increased stability from a wider wheelbase which of the following is the MOST appropriate device to use when immobilizing a patient with a suspected spinal injury? a. long backboard b. scoop stretcher c. portable stretcher d. wheeled stretcher - Correct Answer-a. long backboard an emt may injure his or her back even if it is straight, if the? a. back is bent forward at the hips b. hands are held close to the legs c. shoulder is aligned over the pelvis d. force is exerted straight down the spine - Correct Answer-a. back is bent forward at the hips to minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should: a. flex at the waist instead of the hips b. avoid the use of log rolls or body drags c. use a direct carry whenever possible d. keep the weight as close to your body as possible - Correct Answer-d. keep the weight as close to your body as possible to protect a restrained patient and prevent them from using leverage to break free, the emt should secure ______. a. both arms above the head b. both arms at the patients sides c. only the patients torso d. one arm above the head - Correct Answer-d. one arm above the head the ______ is both the mechanical weight - bearing base if the spinal column and the fused central posterior section of the pelvic girdle. a. coccyx b. sacrum c. thorax d. ischium - Correct Answer-b. sacrum the MOST serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is: a. unnecessarily wasting time b. injury to you or your patient c. causing patient anxiety or fear d. confusion among team members - Correct Answer-b. injury to you or your patient When moving a conscious, weak patient down a flight of stairs, you should: a. secure the patient to a scoop stretcher and carry them headfirst down the stairs to the awaiting stretcher b. place the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs and carry the patient down the stairs with a stair chair c. collapse the undercarriage of the wheeled stretcher and carefully carry the patient down the stairs on the stretcher d. assist the patient in walking down the stairs and place them on the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs - Correct Answer-b. place the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs and carry the patient down the stairs with a stair chair you are attending to a 22-year-old female patient who has overdosed. the patient is unresponsive in an upstairs bedroom. the most appropriate way to bring the patient downstairs is: a. secured to a long spineboard with the strongest provider at the head end. b. secured to a long spineboard with the strongest provider at the foot end c. secured to a star chair with the strongest provider at the head end. d. secured to a stair chair with the strongest provider at the foot end - Correct Answer-a. secured to a long spineboard with the strongest provider at the head end. the proper technique for using the power grip to: a. lift with your palms up b. rotate your palms down c. hold the handle with your fingers d. position your hands about 6 in apart - Correct Answer-a. lift with your palms up D. Adequate rise of the chest when squeezing the bag - Correct Answer-D. Adequate rise of the chest when squeezing the bag Which of the following statements regarding oxygen is correct?Select one: A. Oxygen cylinders must always remain in an upright position. B. Oxygen is flammable and may explode if under high pressure. C. Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire. D. Oxygen is most safely administered in an enclosed environment. - Correct Answer-C. Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire. A 19-year-old female is found unconscious by her roommate. Your primary assessment reveals that her breathing is inadequate. As you insert an oropharyngeal airway, she begins to gag violently. You should: A. continue to insert the airway as you suction her oropharynx. B. remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx. C. insert the airway no further but leave it in place as a bite block. D. select a smaller oropharyngeal airway and attempt to insert it.` - Correct Answer-B. remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx. Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway A. Larynx B. Pharynx C. Bronchus D. Oropharynx - Correct Answer-C. Bronchus Which of the following patients should you place in the recovery position? Select one: A. A 19-year-old conscious male with a closed head injury and normal respirations B. A 24-year-old unconscious female who overdosed and has a reduced tidal volume C. A 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing D. A 40-year-old conscious female with a possible neck injury and regular respirations - Correct Answer-C. A 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing Which of the following statements regarding normal gas exchange in the lungs is correct? Select one: A. The oxygen content in the alveoli is highest during the exhalation phase. B. Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries. C. The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the capillaries. D. Blood that returns to the lungs from the body has low levels of carbon dioxide. - Correct Answer-B. Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries You are performing mouth-to-mask ventilations with oxygen connected and set at a flow rate of 15 L/min. What percentage of oxygen is your patient receiving? Select one: A. 45% B. 55% C. 65% D. 75% - Correct Answer-B. 55% In which of the following patients would the head tilt-chin lift maneuver be the MOST appropriate method of opening the airway?Select one: A. A 24-year-old male who is found unconscious at the base of a tree B. A 37-year-old female who is found unconscious in her bed C. A 45-year-old male who is semiconscious after falling 20 feet D. A 50-year-old male who is unconscious following head trauma - Correct Answer-B. A 37-year-old female who is found unconscious in her bed During your assessment of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear wheezing when listening to breath sounds. This indicates:Select one A. fluid in the alveoli. B. secretions in the airway. C. a lower airway obstruction. D. swelling of the upper airway. - Correct Answer-C. a lower airway obstruction The physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs is called: Select one: A. diffusion. B. ventilation. C. respiration. D. oxygenation. - Correct Answer-B. ventilation. When testing a mechanical suctioning unit, you should turn on the device, clamp the tubing, and ensure that it generates a vacuum pressure of more than: Select one: A. 100 mm Hg. B. 200 mm Hg. C. 300 mm Hg. D. 400 mm Hg - Correct Answer-C. 300 mm Hg. Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called: Select one: A. ataxic respirations. B. agonal respirations. C. eupneic respirations. D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations - Correct Answer-D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations Which of the following statements regarding breathing adequacy is correct? Select one: A. Patients with a grossly irregular breathing pattern usually do not require assisted ventilation. B. The single most reliable sign of breathing adequacy in the adult is his or her respiratory rate. C. Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate. D. A patient with slow respirations and adequate depth will experience an increase in minute volume - Correct Answer-C. Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate. What occurs when a patient is breathing very rapidly and shallowly?Select one: A. Minute volume increases because of a marked increase in both tidal volume and respiratory rate. B. Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange. C. Air is forcefully drawn into the lungs due to the negative pressure created by the rapid respirations. D. The majority of tidal volume reaches the lungs and diffuses across the alveolar- capillary membrane. - Correct Answer-B. Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange. Which of the following statements regarding oxygen is correct?Select one: A. Oxygen cylinders must always remain in an upright position. B. Oxygen is flammable and may explode if under high pressure. C. Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire. D. Oxygen is most safely administered in an enclosed environment. - Correct Answer-C. Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire. You are ventilating a patient with a stoma; however, air is escaping from the mouth and nose. To prevent this, you should: Select one: A. thrust the jaw forward. B. seal the mouth and nose. C. ventilate with less pressure. D. thoroughly suction the stoma. - Correct Answer-B. seal the mouth and nose. The nasopharyngeal airway is MOST beneficial because it: Select one: A. can effectively stabilize fractured nasal bones if it is inserted properly. B. is generally well tolerated in conscious patients with an intact gag reflex. C. effectively maintains the airway of a patient in cardiopulmonary arrest. D. can maintain a patent airway in a semiconscious patient with a gag reflex. - Correct Answer-D. can maintain a patent airway in a semiconscious patient with a gag reflex. How does CPAP improve oxygenation and ventilation in patients with certain respiratory problems? Select one: A. It forces the alveoli open and pushes oxygen across the alveolar membrane. B. It pushes thick, infected pulmonary secretions into isolated areas of the lung. C. It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which allows more room for lung expansion. D. It prevents alveolar collapse by pushing air into the lungs during inhalation. - Correct Answer-A. It forces the alveoli open and pushes oxygen across the alveolar membrane. Advil, Nuprin, and Motrin are trade names for the generic medication: a. aspirin d. displacement of her uterus allowed her lungs to expand more fully, which restored her pulse - Correct Answer-b. pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved chest compression effectiveness CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is: Select one: A. horizontal. B. on a firm surface. C. supine. D. prone. - Correct Answer-d. prone CPR should be initiated when: Select one: A. rigor mortis is obvious. B. signs of putrefaction are present. C. the carotid pulse is very weak. D. a valid living will is unavailable. - Correct Answer-D. a valid living will is unavailable. when performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest: a. until the radial pulse is felt b. with one or two hands c. to a depth of 1 to 2 inches d. 80 to 100 times per minute - Correct Answer-b. with one or two hands Basic life support (BLS) is defined as: a. basic lifesaving treatment that is performed by bystanders while EMS providers are en route to the scene of an emergency. b. any form of emergency medical treatment that is performed by advanced EMTs, paramedics, physicians, and emergency nurses. c. invasive emergency medical interventions such as intravenous therapy, manual defibrillation, and advanced airway management. d.noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest. - Correct Answer-d. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest. Your partner is performing one-rescuer CPR on a middle-aged woman in cardiac arrest. When you apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the AED pads will be placed. You should: a. apply the AED pad at least 1 inch away from the medication patch to avoid skin burns b. continue CPR until you can determine the name of the medication contained in the patch c. move the patch to another area of the patients chest and then properly apply the AED pads d. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply AED pads - Correct Answer-d. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply AED pads Foods, medications, and insects are common causes of ________. Select one: A. anaphylactic shock B. septic shock C. neurogenic shock D. psychogenic shock - Correct Answer-A. anaphylactic shock Shock due to severe infection is called ________. Select one: A. anaphylactic shock B. septic shock C. hypovolemic shock D. neurogenic shock - Correct Answer-B. septic shock pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during: a. anaphylactic shock b. cardiogenic shock c. hypovolemic shock d. neurogenic shock - Correct Answer-b. cardiogenic shock a 20 year old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. you should: a. apply pressure b. apply a tourniquet c. administer high flow supplemental oxygen d. wrap the towel with pressure bandages - Correct Answer-b. apply a tourniquet your patient has a decreased cardiac output and poor myocardial contractility. this will likely lead to a. hypovolemic shock b. cardiogenic shock c. neurogenic shock d. septic shocl - Correct Answer-b. cardiogenic shock when assessing a patient with signs and symptoms of shock, it is important to remember that: a. the patients respirations are deep during the early stages of shock b. blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock c. multiple fractures are the most common cause of hypovolemic shock d. irreversible shock often responds well to a prompt blood transfusion - Correct Answer-b. blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT: a. rib fractures b. liver laceration c. gastric distention d. fractured sternum - Correct Answer-c. gastric distention your patient is in shock, but the bodys defense mechanisms are currently able to maintain adequate circulation. this is called ____. a. compensated shock b. decompensated shock c. late shock d. irreversible shock - Correct Answer-a. compensated shock what is the correct compression to ventilation ratio for adult CPR? a. 30:1 b. 5:1 c. 3:2 d. 30:2 - Correct Answer-d. 30:2 Gastric distention will MOST likely occur: a. in patients who are intubated. b. if you ventilate a patient too quickly c. when you deliver minimal tidal volume d. when the airway is completely obstructed - Correct Answer-b. if you ventilate a patient too quickly In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by: a. a drug overdose b. respiratory arrest c. severe chest trauma d. a cardiac dysrhythmia - Correct Answer-b. respiratory arrest You suspect your patient is in shock. You note the patient's skin is pale. This is likely due to ___________. a. increased heart rate b. peripheral vasodilation c. peripheral vasoconstriction d. hypothermia - Correct Answer-c. peripheral vasoconstriction a 25 year old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her chest when her car hit a tree while traveling at a high rate of speed. she has signs and symptoms of shock, which you suspect are the results of intrathoracic bleeding. which of the following interventions will provide this patient with the greatest chance for survival? a. high flow oxygen administration b. full immobilization of her spine c. intravenous fluid administration Hepatitis B is more virulent than hepatitis C, which means that it: - Correct Answer-it has a greater ability to produce disease Most treatments provided in the prehospital setting are intended to _________. - Correct Answer-address the patients symptoms It is especially important to assess pulse, sensation, and movement in all extremities as well as pupillary reactions in patients with a suspected ___________ problem. - Correct Answer-neurologic you are called to the scene of a 56-year-old female patient who was the driver of a car that struck a telephone pole. The patient is sitting in her vehicle with her seat belt on and the airbag is deployed. a bystander approaches as you arrive and informs you that he is an off duty firefighter and was first on the scene. the bystander wishes to provide you with a patient care report. you should: - Correct Answer-ask your partner to perform the primary survey while you listen to the report Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test, which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that: - Correct Answer-you were exposed to another infected person pror to treating the 34 year-old patient health care teams that infrequently train and work together: a. can create delays in patient care b. need less explicit verbal direction c. often work better under pressure d. are unable to accomplish their tasks - Correct Answer-a. can create delays in patient care When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember that: - Correct Answer-the conditions of many medical patient may not appear serious at first The concept of consistent care across the entire health care team from first patient contact to patient discharge is called: - Correct Answer-the continuum of care the determination of whether a medical patient is a high priority or low priority transport is typically made: - Correct Answer-after the primary assessment has been completed When the EMT assists a paramedic with an advanced intervention, he or she should recall that the focus of the intervention is on: - Correct Answer-solving a clinical problem You are attending to a 54-year-old female patient in a homeless shelter. The patient tells you that she had the flu a couple of weeks ago, and she has not gotten over it. She has been tired and keeps waking up at night, sweating. She has been coughing up green sputum occasionally and has been experiencing episodes of chest pain that get worse when she breathes. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from: a. influenza type a b. pneumonia c. COPD d. tuberculosis - Correct Answer-d. tuberculosis In what area of the lungs does respiration occur? A. alveoli B. trachea C. bronchi D. capillaries - Correct Answer-A. alveoli which of the following must be assessed in every respiratory patient? a. lung sounds b. blood glucose levels c. distal pulse, motor, sensation d. orthostatic vital signs - Correct Answer-a. lung sounds While auscultating an elderly woman's breath sounds, you hear low-pitched "rattling" sounds at the bases of both of her lungs. This finding is MOST consistent with which of the following conditions? A. acute asthma attack b. widespread atelectasis c. aspiration pneumonia d. early pulmonary edema - Correct Answer-c. aspiration pneumonia which of the follow conditions would be LEAST likely to result in hypoxia? a. pleural effusion b. severe anxiety c. pulmonary edema d. narcotic overdose - Correct Answer-b. severe anxiety When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has: A. normal breath sounds B. abnormal breath sounds C. diminished breath sounds D. an absence of breath sounds - Correct Answer-B. abnormal breath sounds You are assisting an asthma patient with his prescribed metered-dose inhaler. After the patient takes a deep breath and depresses the inhaler, you should: a. instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can b. immediately reapply the oxygen mask and reassess his condition c. advise him to exhale forcefully to ensure medication absorption d. allow him to breathe room air and assess his oxygen saturation - Correct Answer-a. instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing? a. 22 breath/minute with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis b. 20 breath/minute with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor c. 24 breath/minute with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin d. 30 breath/minute with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin - Correct Answer- c. 24 breath/minute with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin your patient has a chronic respiratory condition. his stimulus to breathe is triggered by low oxygen levels in the blood. this is known as the ______. a. hypoxic drive b. co2 drive c. alternate drive d. copd drive - Correct Answer-a. hypoxic drive Crackles (rales) are caused by _________. A. mucus in the larger airways B. narrowing of the upper airways C. severe bronchoconstriction D. air passing through fluid - Correct Answer-D. air passing through fluid When assessing a patient with abdominal pain, you should: - Correct Answer-palpate the abdomen in a clockwise direction, beginning with the quadrant after the one the patient indicates is painful A 47-year-old male presents with severe abdominal pain of 3 hours' duration. His abdomen is distended and guarded. Your MOST important consideration for this patient should be to: - Correct Answer-be alert for signs and symptoms of shock A 59-year-old male presents with sudden-onset severe lower back pain. He is conscious and alert, but very restless and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals a pulsating mass to the left of his umbilical you should: - Correct Answer-administer oxygen and prepare for immediate transport Pain that may be perceived at a distant point on the surface of the body, such as the back or shoulder, is called: - Correct Answer-referred pain Urinary tract infections are more common in ____________. - Correct Answer-women Which of the following helps filter the blood and has no digestive function? - Correct Answer-spleen Which of the following is correct about the secondary assessment for a high-priority patient? - Correct Answer-you may not have time to complete a secondary assessment