AAPC Final Exam With 100% Correct And Verified Answers, Exams of Advanced Education

Download AAPC Final Exam With 100% Correct And Verified Answers and more Exams Advanced Education in PDF only on Docsity!

AAPC Final Exam With 100% Correct

And Verified Answers

What form is provided to a patient to indicate a service may not be covered by medicare and the patient may be responsible for the charges? - Correct Answer-ABN Under HIPAA what would be a policy requirement for "minimum necessary"? - Correct Answer-Only individuals whos job requires it may have access to protected health information What document is referenced to when looking for potential problem areas indentified by the government indicating scrutiny of the service? - Correct Answer-OIG work plan Select the true statement regarding ABNs - Correct Answer-A. ABNs may not be recognized by non medicare payers Which act was enacted as part of the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 (ARRA) and affected privacy and security? - Correct Answer-HITECH When presenting a cost estimate of an ABN for potentially non covered service, the cost estimate should be written what range of the actual cost? - Correct Answer-$100 or 25% According to the example LCD from novitas solutions, which of the following conditions is considered a systematic condition that may result in the need for routine foot care? - Correct Answer-Chronic Venous Insufficiency Who would NOT be considered a covered enity under HIPAA - Correct Answer-Patients What document assists provider offices with the development of compliance manuals? - Correct Answer-OIG complaince program guidance Which statement describes a medically necessary service? - Correct Answer-Using the least radical service/ procedures that allow for effective treatment of the patient's complaints or condition What type of profession, other than coding, might skilled coders enter? - Correct Answer-Consultants, educators, medical auditors What is the difference between outpatient and inpatient coding? - Correct Answer- Inpatient coders use ICD-10-CM and ICD-10-PCS What is a mid level provider? - Correct Answer-mid-level providers include physician assistants (PA) and nurse practitioners (NP)

What one is the difference parts of medicare? - Correct Answer-Part A,B,C,D Evaluation and Management (E/M) services are often provided and documented in a standard format. One such as SOAP notes. What does SOAP represent? - Correct Answer-Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan What are five tips for coding operative (OP) reports - Correct Answer-diagnosis code reporting, Start with the procedures listed, Look for key words, highlight unfamiliar words, read the body What is medical necessity? - Correct Answer-Relates to whether a procedure or service is considered appropriate in a given circumstance. What is NOT a common reason medicare may deny a procedure or service? - Correct Answer-covered service Under the Privacy rulem the minimum necessary standard does not apply to what type of disclosures? - Correct Answer-Disclosures to the individual who is the subject of the information Which is NOT one of the seven key components of internal complaince plan? - Correct Answer-Conduct training but not perform education on practice standards and procedures ABN stands for? - Correct Answer-Advance Beneficiary Notice What does the abbreviation MAC stand for? - Correct Answer-Medicare Administration Contractor The OIG recommends that provider practices enforce disciplinary actions through well publicized compliance guidelines to ensure actions that are? - Correct Answer- Consistent and appropriate EHR stands for? - Correct Answer-electronic health record Which of the following is a benefit of electronic transactions? - Correct Answer-Timely submission of claims What year was HITECH enacted as part of the American Recovery and Reinforcment Act - Correct Answer- When are providers responsible for obtaining on ABN for a service NOT considered medically necessary? - Correct Answer-Prior to providing a service or item to a beneficiary

In what year did HIPAA became law? - Correct Answer- Local coverage determination are administered by whom? - Correct Answer-Each Regional MAC Which of the following choices is NOT a benefit of an active complaince plan? - Correct Answer-Eliminates risk of an audlit LCDs only have jurisdiction in their? - Correct Answer-Region The OIG releases a? outlining its priorities for the fiscal year ahead and beyond - Correct Answer-Work Plan The AAPC offers 500 local chapters across the country for the purpose of? - Correct Answer-Continuing education and networking The medicare program is made up of several parts. Which part covers provider fees without the use of a private insurer - Correct Answer-Part B What type of provider goes through approximately 26 1/2 months of education after completion of a bachelors degree and is licensed to practice medicine with the oversight of a physician? - Correct Answer-Physician assistant (PA) A covered enity may obtain consent from an individual to use or disclose protected health information to carry out all of the following except for what? - Correct Answer- Research What is PHI - Correct Answer-Protected Health Information When coding an operative report, what action would NOT be recommended? - Correct Answer-Coding from the header without reading the body of the report What does CMS-HCC stand for? - Correct Answer-Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services - Hierarchal Condition Category What type of health insurance provides coverage for low-income families? - Correct Answer-Medicaid What will the scope of a complaince program depend on? - Correct Answer-The size and recources of the providers practice HIPAA stands for? - Correct Answer-Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act Which coding manuals do outpatient coders focus on learning? - Correct Answer-CPT, HCPCS Level II, and ICD-10-CM

Which option below is NOT covered enity under HIPAA - Correct Answer-Worker's compensation Where is gas exchanged and moved from the respiratory system onto the circulatory system? - Correct Answer-Alveoli and capillaries A cystourethroscopy is examination of what structures? - Correct Answer-bladder and urethra What type of cell is housed by the lymphatic system to help the body's defense system?

• Correct Answer-Phagocytes Which layer is the middle layer of the eyeball - Correct Answer-choroid The heart circulates blood through the lungs and is sent back into the left atrium of the heart via which vessel? - Correct Answer-left and right pulmonary veins What is the medical term for a congenital defect in which the urethra opens on the dorsum of the penis? - Correct Answer-epispadias What is a thoractomy? - Correct Answer-incision into the chest wall Based on words parts, what is the definition of a glossectomy? - Correct Answer- Surgical removal of the tongue What is the root meaning joint? - Correct Answer-Arthr/o what type of membrane is found lining the interior walls of the digestive system? - Correct Answer-mucous membrane Diagnosis: Calcification left basal ganglia. Where are the basal ganglia located? - Correct Answer-cerebral cortex Diagnosis: Vesicoureteral reflux. What is this a reflux of? - Correct Answer-Urine Back flow from bladder into ureteres Documentation: The posterior vaginal fornex and outer cerrical os were prepped with a cleansing solution. In this statement what does "os" stand for? - Correct Answer-Ostium (opening) hysterosalpingogram report: "right cornval contor abnormalities ". where is the cornu (plural cornua) found automatically for this case? - Correct Answer- where the fallopian tubes connect to the fundus

surgical procedure: myringotomy what anatomic location is being operated on? - Correct Answer-ear documentation: there was no cleft of the uvula or submuscal palate by visual and papable exam. what is being examined? - Correct Answer-oral cavity documentation: recession of the left inferior rectus muscle, 5mm what anatomic location is being operated on? - Correct Answer-eye Diagnosis: Kyphosis. What anatomic location does this diagnosis refer to? - Correct Answer-Thoracic Spine Documentation: supra peteller recess showed no evidence of loose bodies or joint pathology what anatomic location does this refer to? - Correct Answer-kneww (above the petella) Colles fracture what anatomic location does this refer to? - Correct Answer-wrist which of the following are auditary ossicles? - Correct Answer-stapes and incus what is the function of the cowpers glands - Correct Answer-Helps lubricate the urethra What is a myocardial infarction? - Correct Answer-look for oxygen to the heart tissue, resulting in tissue death An ectotherm is is a complication in which the feetilized ovum is implanted in any tissue other than the? - Correct Answer-uterne wall the mediastinum contains all of the following except - Correct Answer-lungs which resporitory structure is comprised of cartilage and ligaments? - Correct Answer- trachea what is the function of thyroid gland? - Correct Answer-It secretes hormones regulating body metabolism and blood calcium Muscle is attached to bone by what method? - Correct Answer-Tendons, aponeurosis and directly to bone which of the following is NOT true of the thoracic diaphragm? - Correct Answer-It is a frequent site of a Spigelian (lateral ventral) hernia What is affected by myasthenia gravis? - Correct Answer-neuromuscular junction

What is endometriosis? - Correct Answer-When the endometrium grows outside of the uterus which of the following conditions results from injury to the head? the symptoms include headache, dizziness, and vomiting - Correct Answer-concussion adrenomedaly is defined as - Correct Answer-enlargment of the adrenal glands a medical treatment used to remove the waste products in the blood is? - Correct Answer-hemodialysis A form of milk produced the first few days after giving birth is: - Correct Answer- colostrum the word describing the presense of blood in the plural cavity is? - Correct Answer- hemothorax Cytopathology is the study of: - Correct Answer-cells Pronation is turning the hand to have the palm face: - Correct Answer-downward the term for shaking or involuntary movement is? - Correct Answer-tremor Restriction of blood supply, commonly due to factors in the blood vessel, that can result in damage or dysfunction of tissue is known as: - Correct Answer-ischemia Destruction of lesions of the vulva can be done with "cryosurgery". This method uses: - Correct Answer-extreme cold A meningioma is defined as: - Correct Answer-tumor of the meninges Impetigo is best described as: - Correct Answer-bacterial skin infection the operative overlapping of tissue to repair a defect in the diaphragm is called? - Correct Answer-imbrication