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ABSITE 2024 comprehensive and latest study guide for exam revision/detailed, Study Guides, Projects, Research of Nursing

ABSITE 2024 comprehensive and latest study guide for exam revision/detailed

Typology: Study Guides, Projects, Research

2024/2025

Available from 10/19/2024

tizian-mwangi
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Download ABSITE 2024 comprehensive and latest study guide for exam revision/detailed and more Study Guides, Projects, Research Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

ABSITE 2024 comprehensive and latest study guide

for exam revision/detailed

  1. Minimum FEV1 for pneumonectomy? For lobectomy? For wedge resec- tion?: Pneumonectomy: FEV1 > 2 L Lobectomy: FEV1 > 1.5L Wedge resection: FEV1 > 0.8L 2.Anatomic borders of a superior lumbar hernia of Grynfeltt?: Latissimus dorsi, serratus posterior inferior, and posterior border of the internal oblique
  2. Anatomic borders of a inferior lumbar hernia of Petit?: Latissimus dorsi (pos- teriorly), iliac crest (inferiorly), posterior border of the external oblique (anteriorly)
  3. What are the diagnostic criteria for brain death?: 1) Normothermia for > 6 hours
  1. No brainstem reflexes
  2. Positive apnea test (PCO2 > 60 or >20mmHg above baseline after 10 minutes off ventilator)
  1. No paralytics, sedatives, or acid-base/electroyte disturbances
  1. What is the gold standard imaging test for brain death? What is an alterna- tive test?: Gold standard: 4-vessel angiography Backup test: radionucleotide scintigraphy
  2. What is the preop medication before resecting an aldosteronoma?: Spirono- lactone
  3. Treatment for an acute provoked VTE with modifiable risk factors?: Antico- agulation for at least 3 months, modify risk factors
  4. Treatment for an acute provoked PVE without modifiable risk factors?: In- definite anticoagulation 9.Treatment for an unprovoked VTE?: Indefinite anticoagulation 10.Branching fibrovascular core with epithelial + myoepithelial layers and cellular atypia = what is the diagnosis?: Intraductal papilloma 11.What is the threshold for empiric gallbladder polyp resection?: 10mm 12.Besides size > 10mm, what are the 7 indications for CCX for gallbladder polyps?: - increase >2mm on serial U/S
  • Native American ethnicity
  • sessile morphology
  • symptomatic
  • PSC
  • Age > 50 years
  • concurrent gallstones 13.Typical location for somatostatinomas?: Pancreatic head/ampulla 14.What are the 3 mechanisms by which full-thickness grafts survive at the donor site, in order?: 1) Plasmatic inbibition (passive absorption)
  1. Inosculation (forming vascular connections between graft and site)
  2. Angiogenesis 15.Mechanism of action of benzodiazepines?: Increase frequency of Cl- channel opening - GABA potentiator 16.What is the most serious complication of liver transplant? What are the symptoms? What is the treatment?: Primary graft non-function is the most serious complication. Symptoms are continued, progressive liver dysfunction after

transplantation. Treatment is emergent re-transplantation. 17.What is the best test to differentiate between esophageal motility disor- ders?: Manometry 18.Side effect of mafenide (sulfamylon)?: Metabolic acidosis (carbonic anhy- drase inhibitor) 19.Side effect of silver nitrate?: Methemoglobinemia, hyponatremia (think of the negative nitrate ion chelating positive ions) 20.Silver sulfadiazine (silvadene): Transient neutropenia 21.Bacitracin side effect?: Nephrotoxicity 22.What is the empiric dose of epinephrine for anaphylaxis: 0.3 mg 23.Name 4 genes associated with Lynch syndrome (HNPCC): MLH1, MSH2, MSH6, PMS

24. What are the two cancers associated with HNPCC/Lynch syndrome?: - Colon and endometrial cancer 25.When should patients with a Lynch syndrome diagnosis undergo colonoscopy screening?: At age 20-25, or 2-5 years before the earliest known case of cancer, whichever is earliest

26.How often should Lynch syndrome patients get screening colono- scopies?: Every 1-2 years 27.Colonoscopy screening age and interval, normal risk patient?: Age 45, every 10 years if normal, every 3-5 years if benign polyps are found 28.Colonoscopy screening age, prior history of abdominal RT?: 5 years after RT completion or age 30, whichever comes last; colonoscopy every 3-5 years 29.Colonoscopy screening age/interval, IBD patient?: 8 years after IBD diagno- sis, every 1-3 years 30.Colonoscopy screening age/interval, Lynch syndrome carriers?: Age 20-25 or 2-5 years before earliest known cancer case (whatever is earlier) - screening every 1-2 years 31.Colonoscopy screening guidelines, FAP gene carriers?: Screening at age 10-15, yearly screening until TAC is done 32.Indications for prophylactic CCX in asymptomatic patients?: - Sickle cell disease

  • Gallstone > 3cm diameter
  • GB polyps + cholelithiasis
  • Anomalous pancreatic drainage
  • Need for octreotide (e.g., PNET)
  • liver transplant
  • porcelain gallbladder (maybe) 33.Top etiology of cholangitis?: Choledocholithiasis 34.Most common bacterium in cholangitis? Second/third most- common?: 1) E. Coli (25-50%)
  1. Klebsiella (15-20%)
  2. Enterobacter (5-10%) 35.Describe the 5 classifications of Mirizzi syndrome: Class I - external com- pression of CHD without fistula Class II - fistula involving <1/3 of the CHD circumference Class III - fistula involving 1/3-2/ of the CHD Class IV - complete destruction of the CHD Class V - CHD obstruction + cholecystoenteric fistula 36.What are absolute contraindications to laparoscopic CCX?: 1)

Inability to tolerate pneumoperitoneum

  1. Uncontrolled coagulopathy 37.Endoscopic mucosal resection is limited to what stage esophageal can- cers? What pathologic depth does this correspond to?: EMR is only for Tis (epithelium) and T1a (has not penetrated into the submucosa) 38.Structural injury associated w/ posterior shoulder dislocation?: Axillary artery injury 39.Structural injury associated with anterior shoulder dislocation?: Axillary nerve injury 40.What is the RQ for lipid metabolization?: 0. 41.What are the six risk factors that make up the Revised Cardiac Risk Index?: - major surgery
  • IDDM
  • ischemic heart disease
  • CHF
  • Cr > 2.
  • prior CVA

42.Tumor marker for hepatoblastoma?: AFP 43.Most common extracranial solid tumor in children?: Neuroblastoma

44.Colonoscopy frequency if no polyps found?: 10 years 45.Colonoscopy frequency if <10mm hyperplastic polyps found: 10 years (considered normal) 46.Colonoscopy frequency, 3-10 tubular adenoma: 3 years 47.Colonoscopy frequency, >10 adenomas: 3 years + genetic counseling 48.Colonoscopy frequency, tubular adenoma > 10mm: 3 years 49.Colonoscopy frequency, villous adenoma: 3 years 50.Colonoscopy frequency, adenoma with high-grade dysplasia: 3 years 51.What are 5 high-risk findings on screening colonoscopy?: 1) 3- tubular adenomas

  1. 10 adenomas

  2. 1 tubular adenoma > 10mm
  3. Any villous adenoma
  4. Adenoma with high-grade dysplasia 52.What are first line treatments for desmoid tumors: NSAIDs (sulindac), ta- moxifen, TK inhibitors (sorafenib, sunitinib) 53.What cell cycle do carboplatin/cisplatin affect?: None - they are

not cell cycle-specific 54.BIRADS 1 = ?: Normal 55.BIRADS 2 = ?: Benign finding 56.BiRADS 3 = ?: Probably benign 57.BIRADS 4 = ?: Suspicious 58.BIRADS 5 = ?: Very suspicious 59.BIRADS 6 = ?: Biopsy-confirmed cancer 60.Malignancy risk, BIRADS 3?: <2% 61.Malignancy risk, BIRADS 4a?: 2-10% 62.Malignancy risk, BIRADS 4b?: 10-50% 63.Malignancy risk, BIRADS 4c?: 50-95% 64.Malignancy risk, BIRADS 5?: 95%+ 65.What chemoprevention is indicated for atypical ductal hyperplasia?: Ta- moxifen for 5 years

66. What is a treatment option for patients with side effects to tamoxifen?: - Low-dose tamoxifen 67.NCCN guidelines for age to start mammography?: 40

68.RR of breast cancer with atypical ductal hyperplasia?: 3-5X 69.What is the upgrade rate to DCIS from ADH?: 20% 70.NCCN breast cancer screening guidelines for patients with a hereditary breast cancer syndrome?: Annual breast MRI at 25, with annual mammograms at 30 71.Gene associated with Cowden syndrome: PTEN 72.What is the function of the PTEN gene: Tumor suppressor 73.Cowden syndrome - what cancers?: Breast, thyroid, endometrium, and hamartomas of the skin/mucosa 74.What spinal nerve roots does the pudendal nerve originate from?: S2- 75.T1 colon cancer depth?: Extends into the submucosa 76.T2 colon cancer depth?: Invading the muscularis propria 77.T3 colon cancer depth?: Through the muscularis propria into the perirectal tissues 78.T4 colon cancer depth?: Into adjacent organs or visceral peritoneum 79.Highest TNM staging for colon cancer to remain Stage I?: T2N 80.Highest TNM staging for colon cancer to remain Stage II?: T4N

81.Highest TNM staging for colon cancer to remain Stage III?: T4N 82.Name the syndrome: breast cancer, (osteo)sarcoma, brain tumors, adreno- cortical carcinoma, Wilms tumor, phyllodes, pancreatic cancer, leukemia, neu- roblastoma: Li-Fraumeni (TP53) 83.Mutation of Li-Fraumeni: TP 84.Syndrome: pancreatic islet cell tumors, parathyroid hyperplasia, pituitary adenomas: MEN 85.Mutation of MEN1: MENIN 86.Syndrome: medullary thyroid cancer, pheochromocytoma, parathyroid hy- perplasia: MEN 87.Mutation of MEN2: RET 88.Neurofibromas, neurofibrosarcoma, AML, brain tumors: NF 89.Atypical lobular hyperplasia = what increase in lifetime breast cancer risk?: 4X 90.E-cadherin+ stain = what diagnosis: Atypical ductal hyperplasia

91. Adjuvant treatment for triple-negative breast cancer following surgery?: - Olaparib (PARP inhibitor)

92.Next step after identifying LCIS on CNBx?: Surgical excision to rule out associated DCIS (10-20% risk) 93.non-calcified oval mass with focal asymmetry = diagnosis and manage- ment?: pseudoangiomatous stromal hyperplasia (PASH); benign, only excise if symptomatic 94.well-circumscribed solid mass with calcifications = diagnosis?: fibroade- noma 95.T1 breast cancer size?: <2 cm 96.T2 breast cancer size?: 2-5 cm 97.T3 breast cancer size?: >5cm 98.T4 breast cancer size?: Invades chest wall or skin 99.Midshaft humeral fx - what associated nerve injury?: Radial nerve

  1. Medial epicondylar fx - what associated nerve injury?: Ulnar nerve
  2. Elbow dislocation/supracondylar fx - what associated nerve injury?: Me- dian nerve
  3. Necessary tests before proceeding with anti-reflux surgery?:
  1. EGD (rule out cancer)
  1. 24-hour pH monitoring (prove severe reflux)
  2. Esophagram (rule out motility disorders)
  3. Manometry (rule out motility disorders)
  1. Where does Siewert Type II adenocarcinoma come from?: Gastric cardia
  2. First-line treatment and intervention for bleeding esophageal varices? Second-line? Third-line?: 1st line: airway protection, resuscitation/transfusion, an- tibiotics, octreotide or somatostatin; balloon tamponade if in extremis 2nd line: endoscopic ligation or sclerotherapy 3rd line: TIPS or surgery
  3. Surveillance frequency for Barrett's esophagus w/o dysplasia?: EGD every 3-5 years with 4-quadrant biopsy
  4. If insufficient biopsies for Barrett's, when should repeat EGD be done?: 1 year
  5. Barrett's biopsy indeterminate for dysplasia - when to repeat EGD?: In 2-6 months
  6. Barrett's biopsy = high-grade dysplasia, next steps?Wg:

Biopsy at 1cm intervals, endoscopic RFA

  1. Most accurate imaging for locoregional esophageal cancer staging?: Ul- trasound
  2. What is the anatomic cutoff for definitive RT for esophageal SCC?: Within 5cm of the cricopharyngeus
  3. Where is a Zenker's diverticulum located?: Inferior to thyropharyngeus, above cricopharyngeus
  4. Barrett's biopsy = low-grade dysplasia, next steps?: EGD in 6 months +/- endoscopic eradication
  5. What is a sentinel event: Safety mishap that causes patient death, harm, or risk of harm
  6. Threshold for corticosteroid therapy in ITP?: <30,000 platelets
  7. When should warfarin be stopped before low-risk, outpatient surgery?: 5 days before, no bridging
  8. When should dabigatran be stopped before colonoscopy?: 48 hours