ABSITE EXAM TEST BANK LATEST UPDATE THIS YEAR WITH 600 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS JUST, Exams of Nursing

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ABSITE EXAM TEST BANK LATEST UPDATE THIS YEAR

WITH 60 0 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS JUST

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QUESTION: What is the main nutrient for colonocytes? a.) Glutamine b.) Alanine c.) Short chain fatty acids d.) Glucose - ANSWER-(c) Short chain fatty acids (Note: the primary fuel source though for enterocytes is glutamine) QUESTION: What chemotherapy agent leads to pulmonary fibrosis? a.) Doxorubicin b.) Methotrexate c.) Bleomycin

d.) Vincristine e.) Cyclophosphamide - ANSWER-(c) QUESTION: What is the most useful serum marker for cancer screening? a.) PSA b.) CEA c.) AFP d.) CA 19- 9 e.) CA 15- 3 - ANSWER-(a) All others are used for follow-up or diagnosis QUESTION: What is the embryologic origin of the inferior parathyroid gland? a.) 4th arch b.) 4th pouch c.) 3rd arch

d.) 3rd pouch - ANSWER-(d) Derivatives of the 3rd pouch include the inferior parathyroid glands and the thymus. The main nerve supply is the glossopharyngeal nerve. Superior parathyroids come from the 4th pouch QUESTION: What is the cause of hypotension and decreased EtCO2 during laparoscopic surgery a.) Tension pneumothorax b.) Inferior vena cava compression c.) CO2 embolus d.) Anesthetic overdose - ANSWER-(c) QUESTION: Increased levels of glutamine are associated with all of the following EXCEPT: a.) decreased incidence of clinical infections in patients receiving bone marrow transplantation b.) vitro suppression of hepatoma growth c.) alleviation of depletion of muscle glutamine stores d.) decreased glutathione levels in tumor cells during radiation therapy or chemotherapy

e.) increased tumor growth in patients with advanced malignant disease - ANSWER-(e) Glutamine, the most abundant amino acid in the body, can be trapped by a growing tumor, depleting the body's glutamine stores and producing cachexia. A prospective, randomized, double-blind trial demonstrated that patients undergoing bone marrow transplantation had significantly decreased clinical infections when they received supplemental glutamine. Glutamine also reduced the glutathione levels in tumor cells of patients undergoing chemotherapy or radiation therapy. The concern that administering glutamine would promote tumor growth has proven unfounded. QUESTION: Which of the following is an inhibitor of wound contraction? a.) Aspirin b.) d-penicillamine c.) Colchicine d.) Glucocorticoids - ANSWER-(c) QUESTION: In contrast to adults, fetal wound healing biochemistry is characterized by which of the following? a.) ↑ inflmmatory phase

b.) ↑ content of type III collagen c.) ↑ level of transforming growth factor-B d.) ↓ hyaluronic acid synthesis - ANSWER-(a) QUESTION: Death from postoperative renal failure is most commonly due to? a.) Myocardial infarction b.) Bleeding c.) Sepsis d.) Liver failure - ANSWER-(c) Which nutrient is poorly absorbed in achlorhydria? a.) Vitamin D b.) Vitamin B c.) Bile salts d.) Proteins e.) Fats - ANSWER-(b)

Vitamin B QUESTION: Hypophosphatemia has been associated with all of the following EXCEPT: a.) impaired diaphragmatic contractility b.) treated diabetic ketoacidosis c.) malabsorption coupled with carbohydrate refeeding d.) chronic alcoholism e.) respiratory muscle hyperresponsiveness - ANSWER-(e) It is seen in patients with chronic alcoholism, diabetic ketoacidosis, sepsis, and severe malnutrition after carbohydrate refeeding. It can also be seen in surgical patients who are not receiving enough phosphate repletion from parenteral nutrition. Hypophosphatemia causes muscle weakness, and probably affects the diaphragm more than other muscles, therefore leading to respiratory failure. Studies have shown lower contractility of the diaphragm Phosphorus deficiency may lead to insulin resistance as well QUESTION: In hyperacute rejection of a recently transplanted kidney, the event associated with organ loss is:

a.) Direct antibody effect on interstitial stromal cells. b.) Ischemia. c.) Antigen antibody complexes obstructing the proximal convoluted tubule. d.) Direct antibody effect on the glomerulus. e.) Destruction of the Loop of Henle. - ANSWER-(b) Preformed anti-donor antibodies that then target the surface of vascular endothelial cells and graft parenchymal cells. (occurs with minutes to hours and treatment is removal of organ) Circulating complement is fixed in the vascular compartment and the environment changes from anticoagulant to procoagulant and vascular thrombosis occurs. Death of the organ is secondary to ischemia. QUESTION: Which of the following statements about fetal circulation are true? a.) Approximately 25% of all blood volume is passed through the fetal lung; the remainder is shunted into the left ventricle. b.) The umbilical arteries carry oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus. c.) Failure of pulmonary vascular resistance to fall immediately following birth will result in neonatal respiratory failure.

d.) The ductus arteriosus closes anatomically in the first hour of life. - ANSWER-(c) With the first breath, the oxygen delivered to the neonatal lung stimulates a fall in pulmonary vascular resistance. This results in a decrease, then obliterated, right-to-left shunt through the foramen ovule and ductus arteriosus. Only 7% of blood is sent to the lungs in utero QUESTION: Follicular thyroid carcinoma a.) Is the most common thyroid cancer b.) Is readily diagnosed with FNA c.) Spreds via the hematogenous route d.) Is commonly multifocal - ANSWER-(c) QUESTION: What genetic mutation is associated with MEN syndromes? a.) RET b.) APC c.) MSH

d.) p e.) N-myc - ANSWER-(a) RET-proto-oncogene QUESTION: What is the treatment of failed chemo/radiation for anal canal cloacogenic carcinoma? (a) LAR (b) More chemo/radiation (c) APR (d) Sigmoid colectomy - ANSWER-(c) In cases followed up with surveillance bipsies, if positive can undergo salvage APR (abdomino- perineal resection) QUESTION: Most common groin hernia in women? a.) Direct inguinal

b.) Femoral c.) Indirect inguinal d.) Obturator - ANSWER-(c) Indirect inguinal hernia is still the most common, even in women QUESTION: What is the most common visceral arterial aneurysm? a.) SMA b.) Splenic c.) GDA d.) Celiac - ANSWER-(b) Splenic artery aneurysm, fix when > 2.5cm or symptomatic QUESTION: Gastroschisis a.) Is usually associated with hepatomegaly

b.) Is associated with chromosomal disorders c.) Is located on the left side of the umbilical cord d.) Repair is followed by prolonged ileus due to intestinal atresia - ANSWER-(d) Gastroschisis represents a congenital defect characterized by a defect in the anterior abdominal wall through which the abdominal contents freely protrude. There is NO overlying sac and the size of the defect is usually less than 4 cm. The abdominal wall defect is located at the junction of the umbilicus and normal skin, and is almost always to the RIGHT of the umbilicus. Associated with intrauterine rupture of umbilical cord. QUESTION: The cremaster muscle is derived from what structure? a.) External oblique b.) Internal oblique c.) Transversalis d.) Rectus sheath - ANSWER-(b) QUESTION: A complication that enteral and parenteral feeding have in common is a.) Increased incidence of sepsis

b.) Intestinal villous atrophy c.) Elevated liver transaminases d.) Hyperosmolar Nonketotic coma e.) Diarrhea - ANSWER-(d) QUESTION: A patient on POD1 has a fever of 104F and grey wound drainage. What is the most likely organism? a.) Strep b.) Staph c.) E. Coli d.) C. Perfringens e.) C. Difficile - ANSWER-(d) Clostridium perfringens (Gram +, spore forming rod) QUESTION: A hemodynamic effect of CO2 pneumoperitoneum is

a.) ↓ Cardiac Index b.) ↓ in the SVR c.) ↓ in the MAP d.) ↑ inflammatory response e.) ↑ Cardiac index - ANSWER-(a) QUESTION: In the diabetic foot a.) Atherosclerosis often involves the pedal arteries b.) Foot sepsis is often polymicrobial c.) ABI correctly measure the degree of ischemia d.) Diabetic neuropathy only involves the peripheral nerves - ANSWER-(b) QUESTION: Decreased hemoglobin affinity to oxygen at the tissue level is caused by which of the following? a.) ↑ Body temperature b.) ↓ 2,3-diphosphoglycerate

c.) ↓ PCO d.) ↑ pH e.) none of the above - ANSWER-(a)

1. ↑ body temp 2) ↑ 2,3 DPG 3) ↑ [H+] ALL REDUCE AFFINITY QUESTION: Which of the following statements regarding antithrombin III is correct? a.) It is activated by hirudin. b.) It synthesis is decreased by coumarin. c.) It is a necessary cofactor for heparin. d.) Its deficiency states have not been identified. e.) It is secreted by the endothelial cells. - ANSWER-(c) Heparin potentiates effects of Anti-Thrombin III. Antithrombin IIIin turn is a major inhibitor of thrombin and Xa, with some inhibition of factors IX, XI and XII.

QUESTION: Which of the following statements regarding the human sphincter of Oddi is correct? a.) Influenced by hormonal but not neural factors. b.) Actively pumps bile and pancreatic juice in response to a meal. c.) Has phasic wave activity which increases in response to cholecystokinin. d.) Prevents reflux of duodenal contents into the biliary tree. e.) Plays no role in refilling an empty gallbladder. - ANSWER-(d) The intact sphincter of Oddi functions to separate duodenal contents from the biliary tree. Flow of bile between the gallbladder & the duodenum is dependent on the relaxation of this sphincter. Simultaneous to meal-induced gallbladder contraction, CCK induces an indirect relaxation effect on the sphincter of Oddi. This is a neurohumoral reflex mediated by vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP). VIP is a neuropeptide present throughout the gut that acts as a neurotransmitter to cause smooth muscle relaxation. QUESTION: The treatment of malignant hyperthermia involves administration of all of the following EXCEPT: a.) Oxygen. b.) Mannitol.

c.) Potassium supplementation. d.) Bicarbonate. e.) Dantrolene. - ANSWER-(a) Potassium salts may actually trigger susceptible patients. In addition, serum potassium levels are usually increased due to acidosis. Additionally, renal dysfunction may develop leading to elevated potassium levels. Fluid administration and mannitol administration should take place to ensure brisk diuresis. QUESTION: The most common presentation of blunt myocardial injury a.) Atrioventciular block b.) Atrial flutter c.) PVCs d.) PACs e.) Atrial fibrillation - ANSWER-(c) QUESTION: The most common injured nerve during general anesthesia is

a.) Radial b.) Brachiocephalic c.) Ulnar d.) Spinal e.) Brachial plexus - ANSWER-(c) Six hundred seventy (16% of 4,183) claims were for anesthesia-related nerve injury. The most frequent sites of injury were the ulnar nerve (28%), brachial plexus (20%), lumbosacral nerve root (16%), and spinal cord (13%). Ulnar nerve (85%) injuries were more likely to have occurred in association with general anesthesia QUESTION: Which of the following contributes to the arterial supply of the thoracic esophagus? a.) Right gastric artery b.) Bronchial artery c.) Pulmonary artery d.) Innominate artery - ANSWER-(b)

The left bronchial arteries (superior & inferior) usually arise directly from the thoracic aorta. The single right bronchial artery usually arises from the thoracic aorta but may vary more. Each bronchial artery also has a branch that supplies the esophagus. QUESTION: The most common cardiac defect in adults is? a.) ASD b.) VSD c.) PDA d.) Endocardial cushion defect - ANSWER-(a) ASD in Adults VSD in children QUESTION: Which one of the following is true regarding respiratory depression from epidural morphine? a.) Late respiratory depression is more likely with fentanyl than with morphine. b.) Respiratory depression from epidural morphine is biphasic.

c.) Caudal spread of epidural morphine is responsible for respiratory depression. d.) Respiratory depression from epidural narcotics is difficult to treat once recognized. e.) Respiratory depression from epidural narcotics is not potentiated by intravenous sedation and analgesia. - ANSWER-(b) The respiratory depression from epidural morphine is biphasic. The first phase is caused by intravenous absorption of morphine, whereas the second or late phase is due to cephalad spread of epidural morphine. Spread is cephalad QUESTION: A femoral hernia often causes strangulation. What is the lateral boundary of the femoral canal? a.) inguinal ligament b.) lacunar ligament c.) femoral vein d.) iliacus and psoas tendons e.) fascia of pectineus - ANSWER-(c)

1. superior -- inguinal ligament
2. medial -- lacunar ligament

3. lateral -- femoral vein
4. posterior (floor) -- iliacus and psoas tendons, fascia of pectineus QUESTION: An aldosteronoma is associated with which of the following? a.) HTN, ↓K, ↑ Aldosterone, ↑ Renin b.) HTN, ↑K, ↑ Aldosterone, ↓ Renin c.) HTN, ↑K, ↑ Aldosterone, ↑ Renin d.) HTN, ↓K, ↑ Aldosterone, ↓ Renin - ANSWER-(d) This is also known as primary aldosteronism or Conn Syndrome. It is characterized by:
5. HTN 2) ↑ Na 3) Metabolic Alkalosis 4) Aldosterone:Renin > 30 5) ↓K QUESTION: Regarding the adrenal gland a.) The adrenal cortex does not have a nerve supply b.) The medulla is supplied by postganglionic adrenergic fibers c.) The right adrenal vein drains into the renal vein

d.) The left adrenal vein drains into the inferior vena cava - ANSWER-(a) The medulla has postganglionic adrengic fibers while the cortex has NO nerve supply making it unique. QUESTION: At an operation for appendicitis, the appendix is found to be normal but the fallopian tube is found to be thickened with surrounding purulent material and exudate. The operative management should be? a.) Appendectomy b.) Appendectomy and salpingectomy c.) Salpingectomy d.) No operative intervention - ANSWER-(a) appendectomy, leave tube alone QUESTION: A 52yr old patient is diagnosed as having a left adrenal pheochromocytoma. Peroperative management should include? a.) α-blockade then β-blockade

b.) β-blockade then α-blockade c.) α-blockade alone d.) β-blockade alone e.) Nitroprusside - ANSWER-(a)

1. α-blockade (prazosin, etc)
2. β-blockade QUESTION: A patient with a known history of abdominal wall desmoid tumors should be screened for a.) Lung cancer b.) Colon polyps c.) Breast cancers d.) Medullary thyroid cancer e.) Pancreatic cancer - ANSWER-(b) Gardener's syndrome is colon polyps with desmoid tumors. The gene responsible is APC and is inherited in a autosomal dominant pattern

QUESTION: Which chemotherapy agent causes neutropenic enterocolitis a.) Vincristine b.) Cisplatin c.) Cyclophosphamide d.) 5-FU e.) Cytarabine - ANSWER-(e) Cytarabine QUESTION: Which chemotherapy agent causes severe peripheral neuropathy? a.) Vincristine b.) Methotrexate c.) Tamoxifen d.) 5-FU e.) Cisplatin - ANSWER-(e)

QUESTION: A 43yr old presents with weight loss & watery diarrhea. Investigation reveals hypokalemia with a pancreatic mass. Which of the following would support the diagnosis of a VIPoma? a.) Achlorhydria b.) Hypoglycaemia c.) Increased Pancreatic polypeptide d.) Migratory erythema e.) Pellagra - ANSWER-(a) 1.) Watery diarrhea 2.) ↓Cl 3.) Acidosis 4.) ↓K QUESTION: Which of the following does NOT form part of the somatostatinoma syndrome? a.) Hypoglycemia b.) Gallbladder disease c.) Diarrhea d.) Steatorrhea

e.) None of the above - ANSWER-(a)

1. Diabetes 2) Diarrhea 3) Gallstones QUESTION: An inhibitor of platelet aggregation is a.) Prostacyclin I b.) Thromboxane A2 c.) Adenosine Diphosphate d.) Serotonin e.) vWF - ANSWER-(a) It counters the action of Thromboxane A2 which is a potent vasoconstrictor and platelet aggregator PGI (prostacyclin): platelet inhibition, vasodilation and bronchodilation QUESTION: The most common cause of GI bleeding in children is