ACEDS TEST 2024 | ACCURATE 2 REAL EXAM CURRENTLY TESTING VERSIONS WITH ACCURATE QUESTIONS, Exams of Nursing

Download ACEDS TEST 2024 | ACCURATE 2 REAL EXAM CURRENTLY TESTING VERSIONS WITH ACCURATE QUESTIONS and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

ACEDS TEST 2024 | ACCURATE 2 REAL EXAM CURRENTLY TESTING VERSIONS WITH ACCURATE

QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH A STUDY GUIDE | EXPERT VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS

ALREADY GRADED A+

When Considering the records management policies you should do all of the following EXCEPT? A. Conduct periodic surveys of an organization's digital landscape B. Document who has access to which records C. Assure no records are kept in the cloud D. Use Data Maps or data surveys of IT systems C. Assure no records are kept in the cloud Which of the following will NOT increase the cost of e-discovery? A. Delay in collecting ESI until the discovery requests have been received B. Communicating with the client about the benefits and risks of different approaches in the document review methods. C. Withholding information from the opposition about ESI D. A greater number of custodians B. Communicating with the client about the benefits and risks of different approaches in the document review methods.

What is the most important aspect of e-discovery? A. Budget B. E-discovery review team C. Third party service provider D. Data mapping A. Budget Which of the following WILL increase the cost of e-discovery? A. reviewing documents for all issues on the first pass B. starting with the smallest scope and increasing it only when necessary C. avoiding costs to deduplicate or de-NIST data D. working with opposing counsel to openly discuss relevant data in the possession of both parties. C. avoiding costs to deduplicate or de-NIST data The e-discovery folder created by the project management team should include all of the following section EXCEPT? A. Processing B. Preservation C. Presentation D. Production C. Presentation Fill in the blank. "FRCP Rule 30(b)(6) allows subpoenas to be served on __________?

A. non-party individuals B. attorneys C. corporations D. foreign nationals C. corporations The court could take several actions as to which party in the case bears the costs of electronic discovery. Which of the following is the least likely method it might use? A. cost- shifting B. weighing costs against benefits C. "to each his own" D. fair division D. fair division Which of the following is NOT a mandatory element of FRCP Rule 26(f) 'meet and confer' meeting? A. a discovery plan B. who will be deposed by each party C. any preservation of data issues D. each party's initial disclosure B. who will be deposed by each party Fill in the blank. "By signing a discovery request, response or objection, an attorney certifies that ______________."

A. he or she has good reason to delay the proceedings B. it is neither unreasonable nor unduly burdensome considering the adversary's means. C. he or she has consulted with the client on the request, response or objection at issue D. it is consistent with the FRCP D. it is consistent with the FRCP When potentially relevant Electronically Stored Information (ESI) is held by a third party, how can this information most reliably be obtained for litigation? A. in most states you will not be able to obtain third party information B. serve a subpoena requesting a litigation hold be put in place and request production of relevant information C. approach the third party to work out an agreement regarding the production of the information D. a strongly worded letter should be sent ordering information be produced B. serve a subpoena requesting a litigation hold be put in place and request production of relevant information Major cost drivers of the e-discovery process are all of the following EXCEPT? A. volume of data B. review of ESI C. number of custodians D. deduplication processing D. deduplication processing

Third party vendors are found in almost every e-discovery project. The least important factor to consider when evaluating third party vendors: A. payment structure B. long term storage or hosting fees C. economies of scale by using the same vendor for several aspects D. soliciting several bids for every aspect of the project A. payment structure E-discovery is often the most expensive part of litigation. What part of the discovery process is most expensive? A. collection B. processing C. review C. review Allowing extra time for the E-discovery process allows for all the following EXCEPT? A. lower overall cost B. fine-tuning data coding C. refining the scope D. greater number of reviewers D. greater number of reviewers Which of the following generally will NOT have an effect upon the cost of an e-discovery project?

A. the volume of ESI can be reviewed B. how easily ESI can transition from the application in which it is processed to the application in which it is hosted for review C. from what types of devices - desktop or laptop computers, servers or smart phones - ESI must be collected D. The processing charge for the number of duplicates removed during deduplication D. The processing charge for the number of duplicates removed during deduplication In order to properly document a legal hold you must preserve all of the following, EXCEPT? A. the legal hold notice itself B. evidence of distribution of the legal hold notice C. notes of witness interviews D. list of all non-party hosted information D. list of all non-party hosted information When an employee departs from a company, what should be done with the employee's ESI? A. all information should be deleted to ensure it is not shared with other employees or third parties B. efforts must be taken to ensure that information is not improperly deleted C. the employee should be interviewed to understand why they kept all of their data D. a copy should be made and kept with the IT department B. efforts must be taken to ensure that information is not improperly deleted A legal hold is implemented for any one of the following reasons, EXCEPT?

A. whenever litigation is reasonably anticipated B. when a party receives a complaint C. as part of litigation readiness planning D. for actual, imminent or anticipated government investigations C. as part of litigation readiness planning As part of information governance, a question that does not need to be answered for litigation readiness in regard to ESI, or "Pro-Active e-discovery," is? A. how safe is it? B. what is it? C. what does it cost to keep? D. how relevant is it? D. how relevant is it? All of the following are 'costs' associated with retaining data that can be minimized with a reduced data retention policy, EXCEPT? A. mandatory retention periods B. costs of operations staff C. increased legal liability and e-discovery costs D. management and maintenance costs A. mandatory retention periods A source of ESI not held by any specific person or company that is a party to the litigation is known as?

A. non-party hosted information B. non-party information C. custodial data D. non-custodial data D. non-custodial data For purposes of a litigation hold notice and implementation of a litigation hold plan, which of the following is not a likely location for ESI? A. home computers B. the cloud C. hanging file folders D. portable devices (i.e. flash drives, CDs, etc). C. hanging file folders Put the steps of litigation hold workflow process in the right order response distribution tracking reports follow-up interviews written notice periodic reminders release notice

1. written notice
2. distribution
3. response
4. follow-up interviews
5. periodic reminders

6. release notice
7. tracking reports which of the following is a step you should take to ensure data that can be overwritten is preserved: A. disable automated deletion systems B. focus on the continued existence of the source C. Design a system so custodians can preserve relevant items D. get a valid forensic image of the relevant devices D. get a valid forensic image of the relevant devices According to the Safe Harbor Protection under Rule 37, it is not permissible to allow what kind of data management system to continue to operate once a legal hold is issued? A. overwriting B. routine recycling C. automated deletion systems D. data held in temporary folders C. automated deletion systems Each of the following is a cost element of the e-discovery project, EXCEPT? A. number of custodians B. collection responsibilities C. number of pages D. volume per custodians C. number of pages

Which of the following non-party information would not be considered in the control of you client? A. an overseas data farm B. online collaborative tools such as for document writing C. surveillance tapes from a nearby building D. cloud based email applications C. surveillance tapes from a nearby building The following are all typically part of an e-discovery team EXCEPT? A. processing personnel B. IT personnel C. opposition's discovery liaison D. client contact C. opposition's discovery liaison Which would be a likely reason for a non-party host to want to produce raw data? A. confidentiality B. cost C. security D. timeliness B. cost All of the following are goals of project management in the context of an e-discovery project EXCEPT: A. planning the project B. controlling resources C. negotiating with opposing counsel D. motivating the team

C. negotiating with opposing counsel Evidence rule 502 protects attorneys from? A. sanctions B. prosecution C. accidental deletion D. inadvertent production D. inadvertent production rule 502 sets forth the conditions under which attorney-client or work product privilege is considered to have been waived. Rule 502(a) explicitly states that waiver is recognized when it is intentional, while Rule 502(b) stated that no waiver is thought to have occurred when "the disclosure is inadvertent." Under ABA Model Rule 1.1, which states that an attorney's duty of competence includes "keep[ing] abreast of changes in the law and its practice, who would NOT place an attorney inexperienced in e- discovery within compliance of the Rule when having to request or produce e-Discovery? A. associating with or consulting professionally another attorney reasonably believed to be competent. B. acquiring sufficient learning and skill before performance is required C. consulting with an outside technical consultant D. having a background in and understanding such benefits and risks C. consulting with an outside technical consultant simply consulting with someone who understands technology, however, would be insufficient, as that consultant would not be able to place the technical aspects within the legal concepts of what is "in accessible" because of "undue burden or cost," or other such concepts which merge legal, technical and practical concepts. Rule 34 of the FRCP states that data produced must be in what form? A. PDF form. B. the format the data is normally maintained in

C. image format with all related metadata D. native format with associated hash values B.the format the data is normally maintained in Rule 34(b)(1)(C) states that the requesting party may "specify the form or forms in which electronically stored information is to be produced. Rule 34(2)(D) states that the producing party may produce the ESI in the form requested (if a form was requested). Rule 34(b)(2)(E)(ii) states that if the requesting party does not request a form of production, the ESI "must be produced in a form or forms in which it is ordinarily maintained or in a reasonably usable form or forms." The format (or form) in which the data is normally maintained is another form required by the Rules. The safe harbor limit on sanctions under the 2006 FRCP Rule 37 protected the holder of the ESI from sanctions due to data destruction based on? A. Destruction due to accidental deletion B. destruction due to malicious third parties C. destruction due to routine computer operations D. after a litigation trigger, destruction due to autodelete policies to keep the volume of email low. C. destruction due to routine computer operations Rule 37(e) states that "absent exceptional circumstances a court may not impose sanctions under these rules on a party for failing to provide electronically stored information lost as a result of the routine, good-faith operation of an electronic information system." thus this type of destruction of data is protected under the Rule. Under Rule 26 of the FRCP, what is not required to be in the discovery plan to be submitted to the parties (choose two) A. agreement by the parties to the plan B. the projected cost of discovery C. any issues regarding claims of privilege A. agreement by the parties to the plan B. the projected cost of discovery

rule 26 lists six elements that must be addressed in discovery plan - see notes: In order to ensure forensic defensibility the technician should do all of the following EXCEPT? A. write protect all files during collection B. preserve all metadata C. use only standard forensic protocols D. maintain a chain of custody record C. use only standard forensic protocols there are no standard protocols for forensic inspection. the forensic protocol is created by the parties based upon the facts of the case and employs sound procedures which will produce reliable information consistently. they are created not only to protect potentially relevant data but also to reduce/eliminate the risk of disclosure of irrelevant or protected information All of the following are shared network resources EXCEPT A. sharepoint servers B. mail servers C. file servers D. configuration servers D. configuration servers configuration servers are generally only accessed by a few people versus the entire network. configuration sets the procedures, protocols, inputs and traffic across the network forensic collection is an expensive and often unnecessary collection method. however it is required to recover which of the following? A. encrypted data B. overwritten data C. unallocated space

D. saved data C. unallocated space unallocated space is the area on a hard drive where data is able to be written to. It is not viewable to the typical user, it can contain deleted files or partially deleted files. When a file is deleted, the pointers to the file are removed, but the data remains within the unallocated space until such time it is overwritten by another file. file metadata will typically include all of the following EXCEPT A. date file was last modified B. all locations where the file is physically located C. creation, time of the file D. author information, such as their name B. all locations where the file is physically located this information would be found within the system metadata the most persistent type of data storage is: A. floppy disks B. temporary internet files C. USB flash drives D. hard drives D. hard drives unless it is an external hard drive, a hard drive is built into a device and is not easily removed. All of the following are challenges of processing data EXCEPT A. necessitates validation B. often requires special software for review C. reduced upfront expenses

D. requires additional time before review reduced upfront expenses document review platform is generally more efficient way to review documents, there are up-front processing costs associated which will be incurred in order to prepare the data for loading to the platform. these up-front costs can often become a hurdle as clients struggle to understand the necessity and the costs can vary greatly depending upon the amount of data, service provider and/or processing tools selected some file types are better suited for native delivery. which of the following file types is the LEAST likely to be delivered natively? A. outlook files B. text files C. databases D. spreadsheets A. outlook files All of the following are types of searches EXCEPT? A. chronological B. proximity C. boolean D. basic keyword A. chronological Data processing offers all of the following capabilities EXCEPT? A. De-NISTing B. filtering by date C. filtering by privilege

D. de-duplication C. filtering by privilege Which of the following is true about data extraction? A. is typically done after the budget is calculated B. more expensive than data processing C. will reflect the true data size for the project D. usually results in some data loss C. will reflect the true data size for the project due to the prevalence of compressed file types in most business environments, PSTs, ZIP and RAR files, these files must first be extracted or uncompressed in order to determine the true size of data at hand After culling, most workflows call for an initial sample from the collection. This sample is used for? A. to code the rest of the documents B. to teach the system C. to estimate the yield D. to refine the prediction scores C. to estimate the yield in many workflows, the purpose of the initial sample is not to teach the system but rather to estimate the prevalence of responsive documents in the collection Which of the following would be the most appropriate cases to use predictive coding? A. cases with low document volumes B. cases with documents that are not text based C. cases with clear issues or definitions D. cases with documents in multiple languages

C. cases with clear issues or definitions the most appropriate cases for predictive coding including cases with large volumes, significant numbers of custodians, cases with clear issues or definitions for relevance and cases with very tight timeframes. The following can all be considered benefits of predictive coding EXCEPT? A. confidentiality B. replicability C. transparency D. infallibility D. infallibility there is no way to get perfect results with a large volume of documents. studies have shown predictive coding can be more accurate than traditional review but it is not infallible. Which of the following is a benefit of predictive coding? A. predictive coding can be more accurate than linear review B. predictive coding eliminates the need for culling before the review begins C. predictive coding eliminates the need for expert human reviewers. D. predictive coding is today considered more defensible by courts than linear review A. predictive coding can be more accurate than linear review studies suggest coding quality and consistency can be superior for cases that use predictive coding than cases with traditional review Which of the following is not a form of a TAR (technology assisted review)? A. Discussion threading B. predictive coding C. clustering D. near duplicate analysis

E. concept searching F. keyword searching G. root training G. root training TAR includes a variety of software tools to facilitate document review, including keyword searching, concept searching, clustering, discussion threading and near duplicate analysis. it does not include root training. De-NISTing removes files that are typically non-responsive to a case. what types of files would appear on the NIST list? A. operating system files B. image files C. application configuration files D. temporary internet files A. Operating system files the name De-NIST is derived from the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), which is developed and maintains the list that contains millions of documents/files that are known to be associated with computer system files. all of the following can cause errors in data processing EXCEPT? A. password protected files B. image files C. legacy files D. encrypted files B. image files ESI can be produced in different formats such as imaged format which includes TIFF or PDF. this is the electronic equivalent to printing it out and creating a static image with distinct pagination which can be labeled with numbering and protective order designation.

The most complete form of de-duplicated discovery production to the opposition would use the following method? A. duplicate suppression method B. across-custodian method C. within-custodian method D. multiple-custodian method A. duplicate suppression this method of de-duplication hides rather than removal of duplicate files. upon completion of the review, the suppressed duplicates may be reinserted back into the production set. this method is more commonly used once the review is complete Steps to validate a processed data set include all of the following EXCEPT? A. review of error logs B. cataloging and indexing of data C. scraping data sets D. conversion of legacy items C. scraping data sets arrangements should be made to store and maintain processed data until counsel determines all productions are complete The removal of exact copies of documents submitted for review is known as? A. reduction B. copy removal C. de-duplication D. extraction C. de-duplication

it's the process of removing exact copies and sometimes near matches of the same message or file from a data set, thus reducing the number of files that need to be review. other methods can include "within custodian, across, and duplicate suppression." which is not an attribute of File metadata? A. size B. timestamps C. author D. revision A. size timestamp info is available in both system and file metadata size is an attribute of system metadata. System Metadata system metadata are attributes recorded by the operating system of a file. these attributes may include timestamps (create, last modified, last accessed) size, location, name of the the computer and owner of the file Which of the following is NOT a viable collection method? A. passive B. active C. self D. forensic A. passive what are the 5 collection methods?

active, forensic, self, backup tape recovery, and remote Which is not an advantage of processing data in house? A. easier solution B. in house 1st pass review C. increased security D. spending less on processing costs A. easier solution disadvantages of processing data in house includes additional staff is needed; there are additional risks; and the need to explain exceptions (why certain files were not processed) Why is the volume of the data that organizations maintain been growing exponentially? A. document retention policies are carefully enforced B. data is being created faster than it is deleted C. users delete data at an alarming rate D. there is no good model for record retention policies B. data is being created faster than it is deleted business units continue to produce data without enforcing regular destruction policies How can a forensic examiner capture and review social media content for litigation? A. social media evidence can simply be downloaded from the web B. social media evidence can only be acquired directly from the social media provider C. social media content is discoverable through the same steps as other data types D. social media can be ignored in litigation. C. social media content is discoverable through the same steps as other data types

it can be changed, corrupted or hacked easily, which means forensic examiners need to follow established protocol for discovery when training reviewers, all of the following are important to consider except? A. codes being used B. the oppositions review set C. privilege and confidentiality D. facts or issues in the matter B. the opposition's review set in response to a government subpoena, a law firm produces hundreds of thousands of documents from more than 160 custodians. Privileged documents are accidentally also produced because the vendor failed to apply privilege filters to a portion of the files. In this case, what might be the potential consequences? A. the vendor must pay and goes out of business B. the client is sued for failing to supervise their law firm C. there will be no negative consequences D. the law firm gets sues for malpractice for failing to supervise their vendor D. the law firm gets sues for malpractice for failing to supervise their vendor law firms have frequently been penalized or even sanctioned for failures committed by 3rd party vendors A proper quality control program can include all of the following EXCEPT? A. QC restrictions to families of documents such as threaded emails. B. third party review of final data set C. random reviewers of the team's coding D. a second-level review by senior attorneys B. third party review of final data set

do not rely on a third party to attest to quality it is your team that is on the hook legally and financially for any mistakes The review process is all of the following except? A. is where the privilege log is created B. benefits from economies of scale C. cannot be outsourced to third parties. D. the most consuming, error prone, and costly party of the review process. C. cannot be outsourced to third parties in fact, many third party organizations and software vendors exist solely for the review of ESI in litigation regarding "quick peek" agreements, which of the following is NOT correct: A. they allow for the parties to have no concerns about production of privileged or otherwise non- responsive material B. they provide for the return of inadvertently produced privileged material C. they have risk in producing material that is not responsive to the current requests but lead to parties to raise other issues they discover in the documents D. they allow a producing party to produce documents without incurring review costs, the most significant cost component of the review. A. they allow for the parties to have no concerns about production of privileged or otherwise non- responsive material parties still need to make a good faith effort to protect privilege. when considering data sets and data ownership, which of the following is NOT a typical form of data ownership? A. system collaborative B. public data C. single custodian

D. orphaned data B. public data publicly available information can obviously be obtained for litigation, but is not part of a review set of discoverable information the coding frame for the document review process typically contains which TWO of the following fields to be input by the reviewer? (select two answers) A. status B. reviewer C. responsive D. privileged responsive and privileged Which is not a viable way of organizing data? A. alphabetically B. concept grouping C. association D. chronologically C. association how can data set be organized? chronologically, by custodian, location, documents containing certain search terms, alphabetically, by concept, or by email chain (conversation threads) De-duplication can be done by? A. data

B. file type C. custodian D. file age C. custodian some custodians may not be involved in a given matter and can be excluded from a review Which of the following is a viable hash function? A. kernel B. MD5 C. SHA- 3 D. Binary B MD5 what are the three major has techniques used? MD5 SHA- 1 and SHA- 2 even when image format is preferred by both parties, which of the following are usually produced in native format regardless? A. .PST B. .NSF C. .DOC D. .XLS D. XLS