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ACLS FINAL TEST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS, Exams of Nursing

ACLS FINAL TEST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 12/23/2024

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ACLS FINAL TEST QUESTIONS AND

ANSWERS

  1. Which type of atrioventricular block best describes this rhythm? - Correct Ans: C) Second-degree type II
  2. Your patient is in cardiac arrest and has been intubated. To assess CPR quality, which should you do? - Correct Ans: A) Monitor the patient's PETCO
  3. Which facility is the most appropriate EMS destination for a patient with sudden cardiac who achieved return of spontaneous circulation in the field? - Correct Ans: D) Coronary reperfusion-capable medical center
  4. Which of the following signs is a likely indicator of cardiac arrest in an unresponsive patient? - Correct Ans: C) Agonal gasps
  5. Which type of atrioventricular block best describes this rhythm? - Correct Ans: B) Second-degree atrioventricular block type I
  6. To properly ventilate a patient with a perfusing rhythm, how often do you squeeze the bag? - Correct Ans: B) Once every 5 to 6 seconds.
  7. In addition to clinical assessment, which is the most reliable method to confirm and monitor correct placement of an endotracheal tube? - Correct Ans: C) Continuous waveform capnography
  8. You are caring for a patient with a suspected stroke whose symptoms started 2 hours ago. The CT scan was normal, with no signs of hemorrhage. The patient does not have any contraindications to fibrinolytic therapy. Which treatment is the best for this patient? - Correct Ans: B) Start fibrinolytic therapy as soon as possible.
  9. Which best describes this rhythm? - Correct Ans: D) Third-degree atrioventricular block.
  1. What is the recommended range from which a temperature should be selected and maintained constantly to achieve targeted temperature management after cardiac arrest? - Correct Ans: C) 32 to 36 Degrees Celsius
  2. Which is the recommended first intravenous dose of amiodarone for a patient with refractory ventricular fibrillation? - Correct Ans: D) 300 mg
  3. What is the primary of a medical emergency team or rapid response team? - Correct Ans: B) Improving patient outcomes by identifying and treating early clinical deterioration.
  4. What is the recommended next step after a defibrillation attempt? - Correct Ans: D) Resume CPR, starting with chest compressions
  5. EMS providers are treating a patient with suspected stroke. According to the Adult Suspected Stroke Algorithm, which critical action performed by the EMS team will expedite this patient's care on arrival and reduce the time to treatment? - Correct Ans: A) Alert the hospital.
  6. A responder is caring for a patient with a history of congestive heart failure. The patient is experiencing shortness of breath, a blood pressure of 68/50 mmHg, and a heart rate of 190/min. The patient's lead II ECG is displayed here. Which best characterizes this patient's rhythm? - Correct Ans: D) Unstable supraventricular tachycardia
  7. Your rescue team arrives to find a 59-year-old man lying on the kitchen floor. You determine that he is unresponsive. Which is the next step in your assessment and management of this patient? - Correct Ans: B) Check the patient's breathing and pulse.
  8. Which best describes the length of time it should take to perform a pulse check during the BLS assessment? - Correct Ans: B) 5 to 10 seconds
  9. You instruct a team member to give 1 mg Atropine IV. Which is the best example of closed-loop communication? - Correct Ans: C) I'll draw up 1 mg of Atropine.
  10. What is an effect of excessive ventilation? - Correct Ans: A) Decreased cardiac output.
  1. Three minutes into a cardiac resuscitation attempt, one member of your team inserts an endotracheal tube while another performs chest compressions. Capnography shows a persistent waveform and a PETCO2 of 8 mmHg. Which is the significance of this finding? - Correct Ans: A) Chest compressions may not be effective.
  2. Which is the recommended oral dose of aspirin for a patient with a suspected acute coronary syndrome? - Correct Ans: C) 160 to 325 mg.
  3. A team member is unable to perform an assigned task because it is beyond the team member's scope of practice. Which action should the team member take? - Correct Ans: A) Ask for a new task or role.
  4. As the team leader, when do you tell the chest compressors to switch? - Correct Ans: B) About every 2 minutes.
  5. You are performing chest compressions during an adult resuscitation attempt. Which rate should you use to perform the compressions? - Correct Ans: C) 100 to 120/min.
  6. A patient is being resuscitated in a very noisy environment. A team member thinks he heard an order for 500 mg of amiodarone IV. Which is the best response? - Correct Ans: D) I have an order to give 500 mg of amiodarone IV.
  7. A patient in stable narrow-complex tachycardia with a peripheral IV in place is refractory to the first dose of adenosine. Which dose would you administer next? - Correct Ans: B) 12 mg.
  8. A patient has a witnessed loss of consciousness. The lead II ECG reveals this rhythm. Which is the appropriate treatment? - Correct Ans: C) Defibrillation
  9. Which of these tests should be performed for a patient with suspected stroke within 25 minutes of hospital arrival? - Correct Ans: D) Noncontrast CT scan of the head.
  10. What is the minimum systolic blood pressure one should attempt to achieve with fluid administration or vasoactive agents in a hypotensive post-cardiac arrest patient who achieves return of spontaneous circulation? - Correct Ans: D) 90 mm Hg.
  1. You have completed 2 minutes of CPR. The ECG monitor displays the lead II rhythm shown here, and the patient has no pulse. Another member of your team resumes chest compressions, and an IV is in place. What do you do next? - Correct Ans: C) Give epinephrine 1 mg IV.
  2. Based on this patient's initial presentation, which condition do you suspect led to the cardiac arrest?
  • Correct Ans: A) Acute Coronary Syndrome.
  1. In addition to defibrillation, which intervention should be performed immediately? - Correct Ans: C) Chest Compressions.
  2. Despite 2 Defibrillation attempts, the patient remains in ventricular fibrillation. Which drug and dose should you administer first to this patient? - Correct Ans: A) Epinephrine 1 mg.
  3. Despite the drug provided above and continued CPR, the patient remains in ventricular fibrillation. Which other drug should be administered next? - Correct Ans: D) Amiodarone 300 mg.
  4. The patient has return of spontaneous circulation and is not able to follow commands. Which immediate post-cardiac arrest care intervention do you choose for this patient? - Correct Ans: A) Initiate targeted temperature management.
  5. Which would you have done first if the patient had not gone into ventricular fibrillation? - Correct Ans: D) Performed synchronized cardioversion.
  6. Based on this patient's initial assessment, which adult ACLS algorithm should you follow? - Correct Ans: B) Tachycardia.
  7. The patient's pulse oximeter shows a reading of 84% on room air. Which initial action do you take? - Correct Ans: C) Apply oxygen.
  8. After your initial assessment of this patient, which intervention should be performed next? - Correct Ans: A) Synchronized cardioversion.