ACLS: FINAL TEST QUESTIONS WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS, Exams of Nursing

Download ACLS: FINAL TEST QUESTIONS WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! ACLS: FINAL TEST QUESTIONS WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS 2. Your patient is in cardiac arrest and has been intubated. To assess CPR quality, which should you do? CORRECT ANSWER A) Monitor the patient's PETCO2 3. Which facility is the most appropriate EMS destination for a patient with sudden cardiac who achieved return of spontaneous circulation in the field? CORRECT ANSWER D) Coronary reperfusion-capable medical center 4. Which of the following signs is a likely indicator of cardiac arrest in an unresponsive patient? CORRECT ANSWER C) Agonal gasps 6. To properly ventilate a patient with a perusing rhythm, how often do you squeeze the bag? CORRECT ANSWER B) Once every 5 to 6 seconds. 7. In addition to clinical assessment, which is the most reliable method to confirm and monitor correct placement of an endotracheal tube? CORRECT ANSWER C) Continuous waveform capnography 8. You are caring for a patient with a suspected stroke whose symptoms started 2 hours ago. The CT scan was normal, with no signs of hemorrhage. The patient does not have any contraindications to fibrinolytic therapy. Which treatment is the best for this patient? CORRECT ANSWER B) Start fibrinolytic therapy as soon as possible. 10. What is the recommended range from which a temperature should be selected and maintained constantly to achieve targeted temperature management after cardiac arrest? CORRECT ANSWER C) 32 to 36 Degrees Celsius 11. Which is the recommended first intravenous dose of amiodarone for a patient with refractory ventricular fibrillation? CORRECT ANSWER D) 300 mg 12. What is the primary of a medical emergency team or rapid response team? CORRECT ANSWER B) Improving patient outcomes by identifying and treating early clinical deterioration. 13. What is the recommended next step after a defibrillation attempt? CORRECT ANSWER D) Resume CPR, starting with chest compressions 14. EMS providers are treating a patient with suspected stroke. According to the Adult Suspected Stroke Algorithm, which critical action performed by the EMS team will expedite this patient's care on arrival and reduce the time to treatment? CORRECT ANSWER A) Alert the hospital. 16. Your rescue team arrives to find a 59-year-old man lying on the kitchen floor. You determine that he is unresponsive. Which is the next step in your assessment and management of this patient? CORRECT ANSWER B) Check the patient's breathing and pulse. 31. Which is the recommended oral dose of aspirin for a patient with a suspected acute coronary syndrome? CORRECT ANSWER C) 160 to 325 mg. 32. A team member is unable to perform an assigned task because it is beyond the team member's scope of practice. Which action should the team member take? CORRECT ANSWER A) Ask for a new task or role. 33. As the team leader, when do you tell the chest compressors to switch? CORRECT ANSWER B) About every 2 minutes. 34. You are performing chest compressions during an adult resuscitation attempt. Which rate should you use to perform the compressions? CORRECT ANSWER C) 100 to 120/min. 35. A patient is being resuscitated in a very noisy environment. A team member thinks he heard an order for 500 mg of amiodarone IV. Which is the best response? CORRECT ANSWER D) I have an order to give 500 mg of amiodarone IV. 36. A patient in stable narrow-complex tachycardia with a peripheral IV in place is refractory to the first dose of adenosine. Which dose would you administer next? CORRECT ANSWER B) 12 mg. 37. A patient has a witnessed loss of consciousness. The lead II ECG reveals this rhythm. Which is the appropriate treatment? CORRECT ANSWER C) Defibrillation 38. Which of these tests should be performed for a patient with suspected stroke within 25 minutes of hospital arrival? CORRECT ANSWER D) Noncontrast CT scan of the head. 39. What is the minimum systolic blood pressure one should attempt to achieve with fluid administration or vasoactive agents in a hypotensive post-cardiac arrest patient who achieves return of spontaneous circulation? CORRECT ANSWER D) 90 mm Hg. 40. You have completed 2 minutes of CPR. The ECG monitor displays the lead II rhythm shown here, and the patient has no pulse. Another member of your team resumes chest compressions, and an IV is in place. What do you do next? CORRECT ANSWER C) Give epinephrine 1 mg IV. 41. Based on this patient's initial presentation, which condition do you suspect led to the cardiac arrest? CORRECT ANSWER A) Acute Coronary Syndrome. 42. In addition to defibrillation, which intervention should be performed immediately? CORRECT ANSWER C) Chest Compressions. 43. Despite 2 Defibrillation attempts, the patient remains in ventricular fibrillation. Which drug and dose should you administer first to this patient? CORRECT ANSWER A) Epinephrine 1 mg. 44. Despite the drug provided above and continued CPR, the patient remains in ventricular fibrillation. Which other drug should be administered next? CORRECT ANSWER D) Amiodarone 300 mg. 45. The patient has return of spontaneous circulation and is not able to follow commands. Which immediate post-cardiac arrest care intervention do you choose for this patient? CORRECT ANSWER A) Initiate targeted temperature management. 46. Which would you have done first if the patient had not gone into ventricular fibrillation? CORRECT ANSWER D) Performed synchronized cardioversion. 47. Based on this patient's initial assessment, which adult ACLS algorithm should you follow? CORRECT ANSWER B) Tachycardia. 48. The patient's pulse oximeter shows a reading of 84% on room air. Which initial action do you take? CORRECT ANSWER C) Apply oxygen. 49. After your initial assessment of this patient, which intervention should be performed next? CORRECT ANSWER A) Synchronized cardioversion. 50. If the patient became apneic and pulseless but the rhythm remained the same, which would take the highest priority? CORRECT ANSWER D) Perform defibrillation.