ACLS Practice Exam Questions and answers 2024/2025, Exams of Medicine

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ACLS Practice Exam

a) Administer adenosine 6 mg IV push - A monitored patient in the ICU developed a sudden onset of narrow-complex tachycardia at a rate of 220/min. The patient's blood pressure is 128/58 mm Hg, the PETCO2 is 38 mm Hg, and the pulse oximetry reading is 98%. There is vascular access in the left arm, and the patient has not been given any vasoactive drugs, A 12-lead ECG confirms a superventricular tachycardia with no evidence of ischemia or infarction. The heart rate has not responded to vagal maneuvers. What is your next action? a) Administer adenosine 6 mg IV push b) Administer adenosine 300 mg IV push c) Perform synchronized cardioversion at 50 J d) Perform synchronized cardioversion at 200 J b) Amiodarone 300 mg - A patient is in pulseless ventricular tachycardia.Two shocks and 1 dose of epinephrine have been given. Which drug should be given next? a) Adenosine 6 mg b) Amiodarone 300 mg c) Epinephrine 3 mg d) Lidocaine 0.5 mg/kg c) Epinephrine - Which intervention is more appropriate for the treatment of a patient in asystole? a) Atropine b) Defibrillation c) Epinephrine d) Transcutaneous pacing a) Adenosine 6 mg - A 35-year-old woman has palpitations, light-headedness, and a stable tachycardia. The monitor shows a regular narrow-complex QRS at a rate of 180/min. Vagal maneuvers have not been effective in terminating the rhythm. An IV has been established. Which drug should be administered?

a) Adenosine 6 mg b) Atropine 0.5 mg c) Epinephrine 2 to 10 mcg/kg per minute d) Lidocaine 1 mg/kg b) Establish IV or IO access - You arrive on the scene with the code team. High-quality CPR is in progress. An AED has previously advised "no shock indicated." A rhythm check now finds asystole. After resuming high-quality compressions, which action do you take next? a) Call for a pulse check b) Establish IV or IO access c) Insert a laryngeal airway d) Perform endotracheal intubation c) Pulseless ventricular tachycardia-associated torsades de pointes - What is the indication for the use of magnesium in cardiac arrest? a) Ventricular tachycardia associated with a normal QT interval b) Shock-refractory monomorphic ventricular tachycardia c) Pulseless ventricular tachycardia-associated torsades de pointes d) Shock-refractory ventricular fibrillation d) Hold asprin for at least 24 hours if rtPA is administered - A 62-year-old man suddenly experienced difficulty speaking and left-sided weakness. He meets initial criteria for fibrinolytic therapy, and a CT scan of the brain is ordered. Which best describes the guidelines for antiplatelet and fibrinolytic therapy? a) Give asprin 160 to 325 mg to be chewed immediately b) Give asprin 160 mg and clopidogrel 75 mg orally c) Give heprin if the CT scan is negative for hemorrhage d) Hold asprin for at least 24 hours if rtPA is administered b) Hypertension - In which situation does bradycardia require treatment?

a) 12-lead ECG showing a normal sinus rhythm b) Hypertension c) Diastolic blood pressure greater than 90 mm Hg d) Systolic blood pressure greater than 100 mm Hg c) Perform electrical cardioversion - A 57-year-old woman has palpitations, chest discomfort, and tachycardia. The monitor shows a regular wide-complex QRS at a rate of 100/min. She becomes diaphoretic, and her blood pressure is 80/60 mm Hg. Which action do you take next? a) Establish IV access b) Obtain a 12-lead ECG c) Perform electrical cardioversion d) Seek expert consultation a) Give asprin 160 to 325 mg to chew - A patient with STEMI has ongoing chest discomfort. Heparin 4000 units IV bolus and a heparin infusion of 1000 units per hour are being administered. The patient did not take asprin because he has a history of gastritis, which was treated 5 years ago. What is your next action? a) Give asprin 160 to 325 mg to chew b) Give clopidogrel 300 mg orally c) Give enteric-coated asprin 75 mg orally d) Give enteric-coated asprin 325 mg rectally a) Epinephrine 1 mg - A patient is in refractory ventricular fibrillation. High-quality CPR is in progress. One dose of epinephrine was given after the second shock. An antiarrhythmic drug was given immediately after the third shock. You are the team leader. Which medication do you order next? a) Epinephrine 1 mg b) Epinephrine 3 mg c) Sodium bicarbinate 50 mEq d) A second dose of the antiarrhythmic drug

b) Epinephrine 2 to 10 mcg/min - A patient has sinus bradycardia with a heart rate of 36/min. Atropine has been administered to a total dose of 3 mg. A transcutaneous pacemaker has failed to capture. The patient is confused, and her blood pressure is 88/56 mm Hg. Which therapy is now indicated? a) Atropine 1 mg b) Epinephrine 2 to 10 mcg/min c) Adenosine 6 mg d) Normal saline 250 mL to 500 mL bolus d) Use of a phosphodiesterase inhibitor within the previous 24 hours - A patient with possible STEMI has ongoing chest discomfort. What is a contraindication to nitrate administration? a) Anterior wall myocardial infarction b) Heart rate less than 90/min c) Systolic blood pressure greater than 180 mm Hg d) Use of a phosphodiesterase inhibitor within the previous 24 hours b) Epinephrine 1 mg IV/IO - A patient is in cardiac arrest. Ventricular fibrillation has been refractory to a second shock. Which drug should be administered first? a) Atropine 1 mg IV/IO b) Epinephrine 1 mg IV/IO c) Lidocaine 1 mg/kg IV/IO d) Sodium bicarbonate 50 mEq IV/IO d) Epinephrine 1 mg IV/IO - A patient is in cardiac arrest. High-quality chest compressions are being given. The patient is intubated, and an IV has been started. The rhythm is asystole. What is the first drug/dose to administer? a) Atropine 0.5 mg IV/IO b) Atropine 1 mg IV/IO

c) Dopamine 2 to 20 mcg/kg per minute IV/IO d) Epinephrine 1 mg IV/IO c) 150 mg IV push - A patient is in refractory ventricular fibrillation and has received multiple appropriate defibrillation shocks, epinephrine 1 mg IV twice, and an initial dose of amiodarone 300 mg IV. The patient is intubated. Which best describes the recommended second dose of amiodarone for this patient? a) 1 mg/kg IV push b) 1 to 2 mg/min infusion c) 150 mg IV push d) 300 mg IV push d) IV or IO - A patient is in cardiac arrest. Ventricular fibrillation has been refractory to an initial shock. If no pathway for medication administration is in place, which method is preferred? a) Central line b) Endotracheal tube c) External jugular vein d) IV or IO a) Asprin - You are caring for a 66-year-old man with a history of a large intracerebral hemorrhage 2 months ago. He is being evaluated for another acute stroke. The CT scan is negative for hemorrhage. The patient is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min, and an IV has been established. His blood pressure is 180/100 mm Hg. Which drug do you anticipate giving to this patient? a) Asprin b) Glucose (D50) c) Nicaripine d) rtPA b) 0.5 mg - A patient with sinus bradycardia and a heart rate of 42 /min has diaphoresis and a blood pressure of 80/60 mm Hg. What is the initial dose of atropine?

a) 0.1 mg b) 0.5 mg c) 1 mg d) 3 mg d) Seeking expert consultation - A patient has a rapid irregular wide-complex tachycardia. The ventricular rate is 138/min. He is asymptomatic, with a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg. He has a history of angina. What action is recommended next? a) Giving adenosine 6 mg IV bolus b) Giving adocaine 1 to 1.5 mg IV bolus c) Performing synchronized cardioversion d) Seeking expert consultation c) Give epinephrine 1 mg IV/IO - After initiation of CPR and 1 shock for ventricular fibrillation, this rhythm is present on the next rhythm check. A second shock is given, and chest compressions are resumed immediately. An IV is in place, and no drugs have been given. Bag-mask ventilations are producing visible chest rise. What is your next intervention? a) Administer 3 sequential (stacked) shocks at 360 J (monophasic defibrillator) b) Give amiodarone 300 mg IV/IO c) Give epinephrine 1 mg IV/IO d) Intubate and administer 100% oxygen a) Administer adenosine 12 mg IV - A 45-year-old woman with a history of palpitations develops light-headedness and palpitations. She has received adenosine 6 mg IV for the rhythm shown here, without conversion of the rhythm. She is now extremely apprehensive. Her blood pressure is 128/ mm Hg. What is the next appropriate intervention? a) Administer adenosine 12 mg IV b) Perform unsynchronized cardioversion c) Perform vagal maneuvers d) Perform synchronized cardioversion

c) Epinephrine 1 mg - You are the code team leader and arrive to find a patient with CPR in progress. On the next rhythm check, you see the rhythm shown here. Team members tell you that the patient was well but reported chest discomfort and then collapsed. She has no pulse or respirations. Bag- mask ventilations are producing visible chest rise, and IO access has been established. Which intervention would be our next action? a) Atropine 1 mg b) Dopamine at 10 to 20 mcg/kg per minute c) Epinephrine 1 mg d) Intubation and administration of 100% oxygen a) 10 seconds - What is the maximum interval for pausing chest compressions? a) 10 seconds b) 15 seconds c) 20 seconds d) 25 seconds a) Ventilating until you see the chest rise - What action minimizes the risk of air entering the victim's stomach during bag-mask ventilation? a) Ventilating until you see the chest rise b) Ventilating as quickly as you can c) Squeezing the bag with both hands d) Delivering the largest breath you can b) Epinephrine 1 mg IV - You arrive on the scene to find CPR in progress. Nursing staff report the patient was recovering from a pulmonary embolism and suddenly collapsed. Two shocks have been delivered, and an IV has been initiated. What do you administer now? a) Atropine 0.5 mg IV b) Epinephrine 1 mg IV c) Endotracheal intubation

d) Transcutaneous pacing a) Give an immediate unsynchronized high-energy shock (defibrillation dose) - A patient has been resuscitated from cardiac arrest. During post-ROSC treatment, the patient becomes unresponsive, with the rhythm shown here. Which action is indicated next? a) Give an immediate unsynchronized high-energy shock (defibrillation dose) b) Give lidocaine 1 to 1.5 mg/kg IV c) Perform synchronized cardioversion d) Repeat amiodarone 300 mg IV a) About every 5-6 seconds - You are providing bag-mask ventilations to a patient in respiratory arrest. How often should you provide ventilations? a) About every 5-6 seconds b) About every 8-20 seconds c) About every 12 - 14 seconds d) About every 17-18 seconds b) Start high-quality CPR - A patient becomes unresponsive. You are uncertain if a faint pulse is present. The rhythm shown here is seen on the cardiac monitor. An IV is in place. Which action do you take next? a) Begin transcutaneous pacing b) Start high-quality CPR c) Administer atropine 1 mg d) Administer epinephrine 1 mg IV a) Atropine 0.5 mg IV - Your patient is a 56-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes who reports feeling dizzy. She is pale and diaphoretic. Her blood pressure is 80/60 mm Hg. The cardiac monitor documents the rhythm shown here. She is receiving oxygen at 4 L/min by nasal cannula, and an IV has been established. What do you administer next? a) Atropine 0.5 mg IV

b) Dopamine at 2 to 10 mcg/kg per minute c) Glucose 50% IV push d) Morphine sulfate 4 mg IV b) At least 2 inches - What is the recommended depth of chest compressions for an adult victim? a) At least 1.5 inches b) At least 2 inches c) At least 2.5 inches d) At least 3 inches a) Allows maximum blood return to the heart - How does complete chest recoil contribute to effective CPR? a) Allows maximum blood return to the heart b) Reduces rescuer fatigue c) Reduces the risk of rib fractures d) Increases the rate of chest compressions d) Resume high-quality chest compressions - A patient was in refractory ventricular fibrillation. a third shock has just been administered. Your team looks to you for instructions. What is your next action? a) Check the carotid pulse b) Give amiodarone 300 mg IV c) Give atropine 1 mg IV d) Resume high-quality chest compressions c) Resume chest compressions - Which action should you take immediately after providing an AED shock? a) Check the pulse rate

b) Prepare to deliver a second shock c) Resume chest compressions d) Start rescue breathing d) Start rescue breathing - Your patient is not responsive and is not breathing. You can palpate a carotid pulse. Which action do you take next? a) Apply an AED b) Obtain a 12-lead ECG c) Start an IV d) Start rescue breathing b) Ventilating too quickly - Which action is likely to cause air to enter the victim's stomach (gastric inflation) during bag-mask ventilation? a) Giving breaths over 1 second b) Ventilating too quickly c) Providing a good seal between the face and the mask d) Providing just enough volume for the chest to rise d) Reperfusion therapy - A patient's 12-lead ECG is transmitted by the paramedics and shows a STEMI. When the patient arrives in the emergency department, the rhythm shown here is seen on the cardiac monitor. The patient has resolution of moderate (5/10) chest pain after 3 doses of sublingual nitroglycerin. Blood pressure is 104/70 mm Hg. Which intervention is most important in reducing this patient's in-hospital and 30-day mortality rate? a) Application of transcutaneous pacemaker b) Atropine administration c) Nitroglycerine administration d) Reperfusion therapy d) 100 to 120 compressions per minute - What is the recommended compression rate for high- quality CPR?

a) 50 to 60 compressions per minute b) 70 to 80 compressions per minute c) 90 to 100 compressions per minute d) 100 to 120 compressions per minute a) About every 2 minutes - How often should you switch chest compressors to avoid fatigue? a) About every 2 minutes b) About every 3 minutes c) About every 4 minutes d) About every 5 minutes d) Vagal maneuvers - A 35-year-old woman presents with a chief complaint of palpitations. She has no chest discomfort, shortness of breath, or light-headedness. Her blood pressure is 120/78 mm Hg. Which intervention is indicated first? a) Adenosine 3 mg IV bolus b) Adenosine 12 mg IV slow push (over 1 to 2 minutes) c) Metoprolol 5 mg IV and repeat if necessary d) Vagal maneuvers d) Give epinephrine 1 mg IV - You have completed 2 minutes of CPR. The ECG monitor displays the lead II rhythm shown here, and the patient has no pulse. Another member of your team resumes chest compressions, and an IV is in place. Which do you do next? a) Insert an advanced airway b) Start a dopamine infusion c) Give atropine 0.5 mg d) Give epinephrine 1 mg IV b) Synchronized cardioversion - A patient has a witnessed loss of consciousness. The lead II ECG reveals this rhythm. Which is the appropriate treatment?

a) Administration of adenosine 6 mg IV push b) Synchronized cardioversion c) Administration of epinephrine 1 mg IV push d) Defibrillation c) Continue CPR while the defibrillator charges - Which is one way to minimize interruptions in chest compressions during CPR? a) Use an AED to monitor the patient's rhythm b) Check the pulse immediately after defibrillation c) Continue CPR while the defibrillator charges d) Administer IV medications only when delivering breaths c) Start fibrinolytic therapy as soon as possible - You are caring for a patient with a suspected stroke whose symptoms started 2 hours ago. The CT scan was normal, with no signs of hemorrhage. The patient does not have any contraindications to fibrinolytic therapy. Which treatment approach is best for this patient? a) Wait for the results of the MRI b) Hold fibrinolytic therapy for 24 hours c) Start fibrinolytic therapy as soon as possible d) Order an echocardiogram before fibrinolytic administration d) 10 seconds - Which is the maximum interval you should allow for an interruption in chest compressions? a) 15 seconds b) 25-30 seconds c) 20 seconds d) 10 seconds

d) Ask for a new task or role - A team member is unable to perform an assigned task because it is beyond the team member's scope of practice. Which action should the team member take? a) Seek expert advice b) Do it anyway c) Assign it to another team member d) Ask for a new task or role d) agonal gasps - Which of the following signs is a likely indicator of cardiac arrest in an unresponsive patient? a) irregular, weak pulse rate b) slow, weak pulse rate c) cyanosis d) agonal gasps a) 32-36 degrees Celsius - What is the recommended range from which a temperature should be selected and maintained constantly to achieve targeted temperature management after cardiac arrest? a) 32-36 degrees Celsius b) 29-31 degrees Celsius c) 26-28 degrees Celsius d) 35-37 degrees Celsius c) about every 2 minutes - As the team leader, when do you tell the chest compressors to switch? a) about every 5 minutes b) only when they tell you they are fatigued c) about every 2 minutes d) about every 7 minutes

b) resume CPR, starting with chest compressions - Which is the recommended next step after a defibrillation attempt? a) determine if a carotid pulse is present b) resume CPR, starting with chest compressions c) open the patient's airway d) check the ECG for evidence of a rhythm b) at least 24 hrs - During post-cardiac arrest care, which is the recommended duration of targeted temperature management after reaching the correct temperature range? a) at least 36 hrs b) at least 24 hrs c) 0-8 hrs d) at least 48 hrs a) obtaining a 12 lead ECG - You are evaluating a 58 year old man with chest discomfort. His blood pressure is 92/50 mm Hg, his heart rate is 92/min, his nonlabored respiratory rate is 14 breaths/min, and his pulse oximetry reading is 97%. Which assessment step is most important now? a) obtaining a 12 lead ECG b) requesting a chest x-ray c) requesting laboratory testing d) evaluating the PETCO2 reading b) acute coronary syndrome - A 45 year old man had coronary artery stents placed 2 days ago. Today, he is in severe distress and reporting "crushing" chest discomfort. He is pale, diaphoretic, and cool to the touch. His radial pulse is very weak, blood pressure is 64/40 mm Hg, respiratory rate is 28 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation is 89% on room air. When applied, the cardiac monitor initially showed ventricular tachycardia, which then quickly changed to ventricular fibrillation. Based on this patient's initial presentation, which condition do you suspect lead to the cardiac arrest?

a) acute ischemic stroke b) acute coronary syndrome c) supraventricular tachycardia with ischemic chest pain d) acute heart failure b) chest compressions - A 45 year old man had coronary artery stents placed 2 days ago. Today, he is in severe distress and reporting "crushing" chest discomfort. He is pale, diaphoretic, and cool to the touch. His radial pulse is very weak, blood pressure is 64/40 mm Hg, respiratory rate is 28 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation is 89% on room air. When applied, the cardiac monitor initially showed ventricular tachycardia, which then quickly changed to ventricular fibrillation. In addition to defibrillation, which intervention should be performed immediately? a) advanced airway insertion b) chest compressions c) vasoactive medication administration d) vascular access b) epinephrine 1 mg - A 45 year old man had coronary artery stents placed 2 days ago. Today, he is in severe distress and reporting "crushing" chest discomfort. He is pale, diaphoretic, and cool to the touch. His radial pulse is very weak, blood pressure is 64/40 mm Hg, respiratory rate is 28 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation is 89% on room air. When applied, the cardiac monitor initially showed ventricular tachycardia, which then quickly changed to ventricular fibrillation. Despite 2 defibrillation attempts, the patient remains in ventricular fibrillation. Which drug and dose should you administer first to this patient? a) lidocaine 1 mg/kg b) epinephrine 1 mg c) atropine 1 mg d) amiodarone 300 mg d) amiodarone 300 mg - A 45 year old man had coronary artery stents placed 2 days ago. Today, he is in severe distress and reporting "crushing" chest discomfort. He is pale, diaphoretic, and cool to the touch. His radial pulse is very weak, blood pressure is 64/40 mm Hg, respiratory rate is 28

breaths/min, and oxygen saturation is 89% on room air. When applied, the cardiac monitor initially showed ventricular tachycardia, which then quickly changed to ventricular fibrillation. Despite the drug provided above and continued CPR, the patient remains in ventricular fibrillation. Which other drug should be administered next? a) epinephrine 1 mg b) magnesium sulfate 1 g c) atropine 1 mg d) amiodarone 300 mg b) initiate targeted temperature management - A 45 year old man had coronary artery stents placed 2 days ago. Today, he is in severe distress and reporting "crushing" chest discomfort. He is pale, diaphoretic, and cool to the touch. His radial pulse is very weak, blood pressure is 64/40 mm Hg, respiratory rate is 28 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation is 89% on room air. When applied, the cardiac monitor initially showed ventricular tachycardia, which then quickly changed to ventricular fibrillation. The patient has return of spontaneous circulation and is not able to follow commands. Which immediate post-cardiac arrest care intervention do you choose for this patient? a) extubate b) initiate targeted temperature management c) administer epinephrine d) check the glucose level d) performed synchronized cardioversion - A 45 year old man had coronary artery stents placed 2 days ago. Today, he is in severe distress and reporting "crushing" chest discomfort. He is pale, diaphoretic, and cool to the touch. His radial pulse is very weak, blood pressure is 64/40 mm Hg, respiratory rate is 28 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation is 89% on room air. When applied, the cardiac monitor initially showed ventricular tachycardia, which then quickly changed to ventricular fibrillation. Which would you have done first if the patient had not gone into ventricular fibrillation? a) established IV access

b) obtained a 12 lead ECG c) given atropine 1 mg d) performed synchronized cardioversion a) second degree type I - Which type of atrioventricular block best describes this rhythm? a) second degree type I b) third degree c) second degree type II d) first degree b) tachycardia - A 68 year old woman presents with lightheadedness, nausea, and chest discomfort. Your assessment finds her awake and responsive but ill-appearing, pale, and grossly diaphoretic. Her radial pulse is weak, thready, and fast. You are unable to obtain a blood pressure. She has no obvious dependent edema, and her neck veins are flat. Her lung sounds are equal, with moderate rales present bilaterally. The cardiac monitor shows the rhythm seen here. Based on this patient's initial assessment, which ACLS algorithm should you follow? a) cardiac arrest b) tachycardia c) acute coronary syndrome d) suspected stroke d) synchronized cardioversion - A 45 year old man had coronary artery stents placed 2 days ago. Today, he is in severe distress and reporting "crushing" chest discomfort. He is pale, diaphoretic, and cool to the touch. His radial pulse is very weak, blood pressure is 64/40 mm Hg, respiratory rate is 28 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation is 89% on room air. When applied, the cardiac monitor initially showed ventricular tachycardia, which then quickly changed to ventricular fibrillation. After your initial assessment of this patient, which intervention should be performed next? a) endotracheal intubation b) immediate defibrillation

c) administration of amiodarone 150 mg IM d) synchronized cardioversion c) apply oxygen - A 45 year old man had coronary artery stents placed 2 days ago. Today, he is in severe distress and reporting "crushing" chest discomfort. He is pale, diaphoretic, and cool to the touch. His radial pulse is very weak, blood pressure is 64/40 mm Hg, respiratory rate is 28 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation is 89% on room air. When applied, the cardiac monitor initially showed ventricular tachycardia, which then quickly changed to ventricular fibrillation. The patient's pulse oximeter shows a reading of 84% on room air. Which initial action do you take? a) check the pulse oximeter probe b) perform bag-mask ventilation c) apply oxygen d) intubate the patient d) perform defibrillation - A 45 year old man had coronary artery stents placed 2 days ago. Today, he is in severe distress and reporting "crushing" chest discomfort. He is pale, diaphoretic, and cool to the touch. His radial pulse is very weak, blood pressure is 64/40 mm Hg, respiratory rate is 28 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation is 89% on room air. When applied, the cardiac monitor initially showed ventricular tachycardia, which then quickly changed to ventricular fibrillation. If the patient became apneic and pulseless but the rhythm remained the same, which would take the highest priority? a) administer atropine 0.5 mg b) insert an advanced airway c) administer amiodarone 300 mg d) perform defibrillation d) coronary reperfusion-capable medical center - Which facility is the most appropriate EMS destination for a patient with sudden cardiac arrest who achieved return of spontaneous circulation in the field? a) comprehensive stroke care unit

b) acute long-term care unit c) acute rehabilitation care unit d) coronary reperfusion-capable medical center a) continuous waveform capnography - In addition to clinical assessment, which is the most reliable method to confirm and monitor correct placement of an endotracheal tube? a) continuous waveform capnography b) arterial blood gases c) chest radiography d) hemoglobin levels a) second degree atrioventricular block type I - Which type of atrioventricular block best describes this rhythm? a) second degree atrioventricular block type I b) third degree atrioventricular block c) second degree atrioventricular block type II d) first degree atrioventricular block b) 100-120/min - You are performing chest compressions during an adult resuscitation attempt. Which rate should you use to perform the compressions? a) more than 120/min b) 100-120/min c) less than 80/min d) 80-90/min c) address the team member immediately - If a team member is about to make a mistake during a resuscitation attempt, which best describes the action that the team leader or other team members should take? a) reassign the team tasks

b) conduct a debriefing after the resuscitation attempt c) address the team member immediately d) remove the team member from the area c) monitor the patient's PETCO2 - Your patient is in cardiac arrest and has been intubated. To access CPR quality, which should you do? a) check the patient's pulse b) obtain a chest x-ray c) monitor the patient's PETCO d) obtain a 12 lead ECG b) alert the hospital - EMS providers are treating a patient with suspected stroke. According to the Adult Suspected Stroke Algorithm, which critical action performed by the EMS team will expedite this patients care on arrival and reduce the time of treatment? a) treat hypertension b) alert the hospital c) establish IV access d) review the patient's history d) unstable supraventricular tachycardia - A responder is caring for a patient with a history of congestive heart failure. The patient is experiencing shortness of breath, a blood pressure of 68/ mm Hg, and a heart rate of 190/min. The patient's lead II ECG is displayed here. Which best characterizes this patient's rhythm? a) perfusing ventricular tachycardia b) sinus tachycardia c) stable supraventricular tachycardia d) unstable supraventricular tachycardia a) 160-325 mg - Which is the recommended oral dose of aspirin with suspected acute coronary syndrome?

a) 160-325 mg b) 40 mg c) 350-650 mg d) 81 mg b) measure from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the mandible - Which is an acceptable method of selecting an appropriately sized oropharyngeal airway? a) measure from the thyroid cartilage to the bottom of the earlobe b) measure from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the mandible c) estimate by using the size of the patient's finger d) estimate by using the formula weight (kg)/8 + 2 a) decreased cardiac output - What is an effect of excessive ventilation? a) decreased cardiac output b) increased perfusion pressures c) increased venous return d) decreased intrathoracic pressure b) 5-10 seconds - Which best describes the length of time it should take to perform a pulse check during the BLS assessment? a) 16-20 seconds b) 5-10 seconds c) 11-15 seconds d) 1-4 seconds b) improving patient outcomes by identifying and treating early clinical deterioration - Which is the primary purpose of a medical emergency team or rapid response team?

a) providing online consultation to EMS personnel in the field b) improving patient outcomes by identifying and treating early clinical deterioration c) proving diagnostic consultation to emergency department patients d) improving care for patients admitted to critical care units c) monomorphic ventricular tachycardia - Which best describes this rhythm? a) polymorphic ventricular tachycardia b) ventricular fibrillation c) monomorphic ventricular tachycardia d) supraventricular tachycardia a) performing synchronized cardioversion - A patient in respiratory distress and with a blood pressure of 70/50 mm Hg presents with the lead II ECG rhythm shown here. Which is the appropriate treatment? a) performing synchronized cardioversion b) performing vagal maneuvers c) administering adenosine 6 mg IV push d) performing defibrillation d) clearly delegate tasks - Which best describes an action taken by the team leader to avoid inefficiencies during a resuscitation attempt? a) assign the same tasks to more than one team member b) assign most tasks to the more experienced team members c) perform the most complicated tasks d) clearly delegate tasks a) "I'll draw up 0.5 mg of atropine." - You instruct a team member to give 0.5 mg atropine IV. Which response is an example of closed-loop communication?

a) "I'll draw up 0.5 mg of atropine." b) "Ok." c) "Are you sure that is what you want given?" d) "I'll give it in a few minutes." a) chest compressions may not be effective - Three minutes into a cardiac arrest resuscitation attempt, one member of your team inserts an endotracheal tube while another performs chest compressions. Capnography shows a persistent waveform and a PETCO2 of 8 mm Hg. Which is the significance of this finding? a) chest compressions may not be effective b) the patient meets the criteria for termination of efforts c) the endotracheal tube is in the esophagus d) the team is ventilating the patient too often (hyperventilation) b) 300 mg - Which is the recommended first interventions dose of amiodarone for a patient with refractory ventricular fibrillation? a) 100 mg b) 300 mg c) 150 mg d) 250 mg a) 12 mg - A patient in stable narrow-complex tachycardia with a peripheral IV in place is refractory to the first dose of adenosine. Which dose would you administer next? a) 12 mg b) 3 mg c) 20 mg d) 40 mg

d) 90 mm Hg - What is the minimum systolic blood pressure one should attempt to achieve with fluid administration or vasoactive agents in a hypotensive post-cardiac arrest patient who achieves return of spontaneous circulation? a) 85 mm Hg b) 80 mm Hg c) 75 mm Hg d) 90 mm Hg a) check the patient's breathing and pulse - Your rescue team arrives to find a 59 year old man lying on the kitchen floor. You determine that he is unresponsive. Which is the next step in your assessment and management of this patient? a) check the patient's breathing and pulse b) apply the AED c) open the patient's airway d) check for a medical alert bracelet a) noncontrast CT scan of the head - Which of these tests should be performed for a patient with suspected stroke within 25 minutes of hospital arrival? a) noncontrast CT scan of the head b) 12 lead ECG c) cardiac enzymes d) coagulation studies a) third degree atrioventricular block - Which best describes this rhythm? a) third degree atrioventricular block b) first degree atrioventricular block c) second degree atrioventricular block type II d) second degree atrioventricular block type I

c) once every 5-6 seconds - To properly ventilate a patient with a perfusing rhythm, how often do you squeeze the bag? a) once every 12 seconds b) once every 3-4 seconds c) once every 5-6 seconds d) once every 10 seconds c) 90 minutes - For STEMI patients, which best describes the recommended maximum goal time for emergency department door-to-balloon-inflation time for percutaneous coronary intervention? a) 150 minutes b) 120 minutes c) 90 minutes d) 180 minutes a) "I have an order to give 500 mg of amiodarone IV. Is this correct?" - A patient is being resuscitated in a very noisy environment. A team member thinks he heard an order for 500 mg of amiodarone IV. Which is the best response from the team member? a) "I have an order to give 500 mg of amiodarone IV. Is this correct?" b) "Ok." c) "Are you sure?" d) Amiodarone 500 mg IV has been given." sinus bradycardia - third degree AV block - PEA - ventricular fibrillation -