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ACLS Practice Test Solved Correct Questions & Answers(Latest Update 2024), Exams of Health sciences

Chest compressions for an adult are performed: a. at a rate between 60-80 compressions b. at a rate of at least 80 compressions per minute c. at a rate between 80-100 compressions per minute d. at a rate between 100-120 compressions

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 06/10/2024

ShantelleG
ShantelleG 🇺🇸

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ACLS Practice Test Solved Correct Questions &

Answers(Latest Update 2024)

Chest compressions for an adult are performed: a. at a rate between 60-80 compressions b. at a rate of at least 80 compressions per minute c. at a rate between 80-100 compressions per minute d. at a rate between 100-120 compressions per minute - ANSWERd. at a rate between 100- compressions per minute The ratio of compressions to breaths in adults is: a. 15: b. 10: c. 20: d. 30:2 - ANSWERd. 30: *No matter how many rescuers are available (in adults), the correct ratio is 30 to 2. An adult patient in respiratory arrest with a pulse is ventilated via bag valve mask: a. 8-10 times per minute b. 10-12 times per minute c. 12-14 times per minute d. 14-16 times per minute - ANSWERb. 10-12 times per minute *When there is no advanced airway in place, ventilations should be given 10 to 12 times per minute. This translates to one ventilation every 5 to 6 seconds. Hypotension following cardiac arrest is NOT treated with: a. IV calcium infusion b. IV dopamine infusion

c. IV epinephrine infusion d. IV ringer's lactate or IV normal saline - ANSWERa. IV calcium infusion *Fluid resuscitation and/or "pressors" like epinephrine and dopamine are used to maintain blood pressure after cardiac arrest. Hypocalcemia, if present, can be treated separately but this is not a standard treatment for hypotension. The leader in team resuscitation must: a. be able to perform all the skills if needed b. be certified as a leader c. be a physician d. undergo leadership training - ANSWERa. be able to perform all the skills if needed *There is no special training required to be a team leader other than the ability to perform all facets of the resuscitation, if needed. While the team leader is often a physician, this is not essential as long as a team member is capable of prescribing ACLS medications. Recommended ED door to balloon inflation time for a STEMI patient is: a. no longer than 15 minutes b. no longer than 30 minutes c. no longer than 60 minutes d. no longer than 90 minutes - ANSWERd. no longer than 90 minutes *Programs should be set up to have STEMI patients diagnosed, evaluated, and treated within 90 minutes of arriving to the emergency department The effectiveness of CPR can be estimated by: a. arterial diastolic blood pressure b. quantitative waveform capnography c. central venous oxygen saturation d. all of the above - ANSWERd. all of the above *All of these measures can inform providers about the quality of CPR. The quantitative waveform capnography goal is at least 10 mm Hg during CPR. Arterial diastolic blood pressure should be at least 20 mm Hg during CPR. Central venous oxygen saturation as measured by a Swan-Ganz catheter or equivalent should be at least 30%.

Narrow-complex supra ventricular tachycardia is best treated with: a. adenosine b. amiodarone c. atropine d. epinephrine - ANSWERa. adenosine *The main drug treatment for narrow QRS complex SVT is adenosine. The other drugs are used in ACLS under different circumstances. Pulseless electrical activity is treated with: a. epinephrine b. magnesium c. atropine d. unsynchronized cardioversion - ANSWERa. epinephrine *Epinephrine is the standard treatment for PEA. Unsynchronized cardioversion is not recommended because PEA is not considered a "shockable" rhythm. The correct sequence for basic life support is: a. ABC-airway, breathing, circulation b. ACB-airway, compressions, breathing c. BCA-breathing, compressions, airway d. CAB-compressions, airway, breathing - ANSWERd. CAB-compressions, airway, breathing Which of the following is the correct initial dose of adenosine for treatment of supra ventricular tachycardia: a. 1mg IV b. 6mg IV c. 12mg IV d. 100mg IV - ANSWERb. 6mg IV

*The first dosage of adenosine is 6 mg IV. If 6 mg fails to achieve an effect, the subsequent dosage is 12 mg IV. At what heart rate does tachycardia usually become symptomatic? a. 100 bpm b. 60 bpm c. 150 bpm d. 50 bpm - ANSWERc. 150 bpm

While it depends on the patient, a useful rule of thumb is tachycardia starts to become symptomatic at 150 bpm. The textbook definition of tachycardia is a heart rate >100 bpm. Pulse checks should be done for at least 10 seconds True False - ANSWERFalse *They should be done for no less than 5 seconds and no more than 10 seconds. The initial recommended dosage of atropine for symptomatic bradycardia is 0.5 mg IV. True False - ANSWERTrue *Dosages less than 0.5 mg may cause a paradoxical slowing of the heart rate. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, deliver oxygen at: a. 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula b. titrated to keep oxygen saturation greater than or equal to 85% c. titrated to keep oxygen saturation greater than or equal to 94% d. 100% - ANSWERd. 100% *CPR is performed during cardiac arrest and 100% oxygen should be administered during cardiac arrest.

The goal for initiation of fibrinolytic therapy in appropriate stroke patients is: a. within 4 hrs of ED arrival b. within 6 hrs of ED arrival c. within 3 hrs of ED arrival d. within 1 hr of ED arrival - ANSWERd. within 1 hr of ED arrival *All diagnostic testing and checklists should be performed so that a fibrinolytic drug can be infused within 1 hour of arriving to the emergency department. The window from symptom onset is different ( hours in most, 4.5 hours in some). The most common reversible causes of PEA are called the "H's and T's" and include all of the following except: a. hypovolemia b. hypoxia c. hypocalcemia d. tamponade - ANSWERc. hypocalcemia An EMT discovers STEMI on a 12-lead EKG in the ambulance. The best option is to: a. take the patient to the hospital capable of providing open-heart surgery, regardless of fibrinolysis or PCI capability b. take the patient to a hospital capable of providing fibrinolysis only (not PCI), 5 minutes away c. Provide fibrinolysis in the ambulance then take the patient to a hospital capable of proving PCI, 15 minutes away d. take the patient to the hospital of providing PCI, 15 minutes away - ANSWERd. take the patient to the hospital of providing PCI, 15 minutes away *PCI is the preferred treatment for STEMI. So much so, patients should be preferentially taken to hospitals that offer the procedure, even if it takes a slightly longer time. During travel time, the accepting hospital should activate the cardiac catheterization team. Which of the following signs is NOT part of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale? a. facial droop b. arm drift c. abnormality

d. confusion/disorientation - ANSWERd. confusion/disorientation *The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale can be remembered by the acronym FAST: Facial droop, Arm drift, Speech abnormality (slurring, usually), and Time. Time is not a symptom. A child is gasping for breath but has a pulse rate of 100 per minute. The rescuers should: a. start CPR beginning with compressions b. give 1 breath every 5-6 seconds c. give 1 breath every 3-5 seconds d. do nothing; the child is not in distress - ANSWERc. give 1 breath every 3-5 seconds *This child needs rescue breathing, not chest compressions. The correct rate for pediatric rescue breathing is 1 ventilation every 3 to 5 seconds. This equates to 12-20 breaths per minute. A child is not breathing but has a pulse rate of 50 per minute. The rescuers should: a. start CPR beginning with compressions b. give 1 breath every 5-6 seconds c. give 1 breath every 3-5 seconds d. do nothing; the child is not in distress - ANSWERa. start CPR beginning with compressions *A pulse rate <60 bpm is consistent with cardiac arrest in children. Therefore, CPR is required, starting with chest compressions.