Emergency Medical Assessment and Treatment, Exams of Nursing

Download Emergency Medical Assessment and Treatment and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! ADHS EMT Chapter 8 Review Questions and answers Which of the following is an example of a symptom? A. cyanosis B. headache C. tachycardia D. hypertension - B Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the presence of any symptoms? A. a 44-year-old male with abdominal pain and severe dizziness B. a 49-year-old female with blurred vision and ringing in the ears C. a 55-year-old male with a severe headache and 2 days of nausea D. a 61-year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis - D Which of the following actions would NOT be performed during the scene size-up? A. asking a neighbor to secure the patient's dog B. rapidly assessing a patient's respiratory status C. notifying the dispatcher to send fire personnel D. noting the position of a crashed motor vehicle - B While en route to the scene of a shooting, the dispatcher advises you that the caller states that the perpetrator has fled the scene. You should: A. ask the dispatcher if he or she knows the location of the perpetrator. B. confirm this information with law enforcement personnel at the scene. C. request law enforcement personnel if the scene is unsafe upon arrival. D. proceed to the scene as usual but exercise extreme caution upon arrival - B Upon arriving at a potentially unsafe scene, you should: A. remove all bystanders. B. request another ambulance. C. move the patient to safety. D. ensure that you are safe - D You are assessing a 72-year-old man with abdominal pain. The patient is sitting in a chair; he is conscious, alert, and calm. As you are talking to the patient, your partner discreetly directs your attention to a handgun, which is located on a nearby table. You should: A. immediately cease all patient care, carefully back out of the residence, and request law enforcement assistance. B. direct your partner to move the gun to a safe area and then advise the patient that his weapon has been secured. C. document the presence of the weapon, including its specific location, and continue your assessment of the patient. D. position yourself in between the patient and the gun and ask your partner to request law enforcement assistance. - D Which of the following statements regarding the mechanism of injury (MOI) is correct? A. A nonsignificant MOI rules out the possibility of serious trauma. B. The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries. C. The exact location of a patient's injuries can be determined by the MOI. D. A significant MOI always results in patient death or permanent disability - B The MOST effective way to determine whether your patient's problem is medical or traumatic in origin is to: A. perform a careful and thorough assessment. B. establish the patient's medical history early. C. take note of the patient's general appearance. D. ask if bystanders are familiar with the patient - A During an EMS call, you should take standard precautions: A. any time before you load the patient into the ambulance. B. after it has been determined that the patient is bleeding. C. immediately after completion of your primary assessment. D. upon exiting the ambulance, but before actual patient contact - D Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass-casualty incident should be determined after: A. a physician arrives at the scene. B. the number of patients is known. C. all the patients have been triaged. D. area hospitals have been notified - C When is it MOST appropriate to consider requesting additional ambulances at an accident scene? A. after you have triaged all the critical patients B. when you determine there are multiple patients C. after noncritical patients have been identified D. when all the deceased patients are accounted for - B The goal of the primary assessment is to: A. determine if the patient's problem is medical or trauma. B. identify patients that require transport to a trauma center. C. determine the need to perform a head-to-toe assessment. D. identify and rapidly treat all life-threatening conditions - D Observations made when forming a general impression of a patient would include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. tongue-jaw lift B. jaw-thrust maneuver C. head tilt-chin lift D. head tilt-neck lift - B Which of the following statements regarding stridor is MOST correct? A. It is a whistling sound heard in the lower airway. B. It is caused by incorrect airway positioning. C. It is a high-pitched, crowing upper airway sound. D. It suggests the presence of fluid in the lungs - C Which of the following findings indicates that your patient has a patent airway? A. audible breathing B. forceful coughing C. inspiratory stridor D. unresponsiveness - B You respond to a call for a female pedestrian who has been struck by a car. As your partner maintains manual stabilization of her head, you perform a primary assessment. She is unconscious, has ineffective breathing, and has bloody secretions in her mouth. You should: A. assist her breathing with a bag-mask device. B. quickly insert an oropharyngeal airway. C. assess the rate and quality of her pulse. D. immediately suction her oropharynx - D A 40-year-old male crashed his motorcycle into a tree. He is semiconscious, has snoring respirations, and has a laceration to the forearm with minimal bleeding. You should: A. apply a cervical collar and suction his airway. B. open his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver. C. apply a pressure dressing to the patient's arm. D. tilt the patient's head back and lift up on his chin - B After performing a head tilt-chin lift maneuver to open the airway of an unresponsive patient who has a pulse, you should: A. place him or her in the recovery position. B. provide positive-pressure ventilatory assistance. C. assess respiratory rate, depth, and regularity. D. suction as needed and insert an airway adjunct - D A patient with spontaneous respirations is breathing: A. at a normal rate. B. with shallow depth. C. without difficulty. D. without assistance - D Typical methods of assessing a patient's breathing include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. listening to breath sounds with a stethoscope. B. observing for nasal flaring during inhalation. C. observing the chest for adequate rise and fall. D. quickly scanning the chest for obvious movement - B Supplemental oxygen via nonrebreathing mask should be administered to patients: A. who are semiconscious with shallow respirations. B. with rapid respirations and a reduced tidal volume. C. who have accessory muscle use and slow breathing. D. with difficulty breathing and adequate tidal volume - D You are dispatched to the county jail for an inmate who is "sick." When you arrive, you find the patient, a 33-year-old male, unresponsive. His airway is patent and his respirations are rapid and shallow. Your initial action should be to: A. apply a pulse oximeter. B. request a paramedic unit. C. provide assisted ventilation. D. assess his blood pressure - C If a patient develops difficulty breathing after your primary assessment, you should immediately: A. determine his or her respiratory rate. B. begin assisting his or her breathing. C. reevaluate his or her airway status. D. auscultate his or her breath sounds - C The normal respiratory rate for an adult should range from: A. 10 to 15 breaths per minute. B. 12 to 20 breaths per minute. C. 18 to 24 breaths per minute. D. 24 to 28 breaths per minute - B Normal respiratory rates should not exceed _______ breaths per minute in children and _______ breaths per minute in infants. A. 18, 28 B. 20, 30 C. 24, 45 D. 30, 50 - D Which of the following is the MOST effective method of assessing the quality of air movement in the lungs? A. evaluating the patient's chest for cyanosis B. applying a pulse oximeter and monitoring the SpO2 C. auscultating breath sounds with a stethoscope D. looking for the presence of accessory muscle use - C Which of the following abnormal breath sounds indicates obstruction of the upper airway? A. rales B. stridor C. crackles D. rhonchi - B Clinical signs of labored breathing include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. shallow chest movement. B. use of accessory muscles. C. supraclavicular retractions. D. gasping attempts to breathe - A When a patient's respirations are shallow: A. chest rise will be easily noticeable. B. tidal volume is markedly reduced. C. oxygenation occurs more efficiently. D. carbon dioxide elimination is increased - B Which of the following signs of respiratory distress is seen MOST commonly in pediatric patients? A. seesaw breathing B. rapid respirations C. pursed-lip breathing D. accessory muscle use - A An adult patient who is NOT experiencing difficulty breathing will: A. be able to speak in complete sentences without unusual pauses. B. assume a position that will facilitate effective and easy breathing. C. exhibit an indentation above the clavicles and in between the ribs. D. have a respiratory rate that is between 20 and 24 breaths/min - A You should suspect that a patient is experiencing respiratory failure if he or she: A. is restless and is working hard to breathe. B. has an increased heart rate and retractions. C. has bradycardia and diminished muscle tone. D. is anxious, tachycardic, and leaning forward. - C During the primary assessment, circulation is evaluated by assessing: A. skin quality, blood pressure, and capillary refill. B. pulse quality, external bleeding, and skin condition. C. blood pressure, pulse rate, and external bleeding. D. external bleeding, skin condition, and capillary refill - B When assessing a 62-year-old female with crushing chest pain, you note that her pulse is rapid and irregular. In addition to administering oxygen, you should: A. apply a cardiac monitor and observe her cardiac rhythm. B. transport at once and consider requesting a paramedic unit. C. document your findings and perform a detailed assessment. D. conclude that the irregular pulse is normal based on her age - B In patients with deeply pigmented skin, changes in color may be apparent only in certain areas, such as the: A. back of the neck. B. forehead and face. C. dorsum of the hand. D. lips or oral mucosa - D In infants and small children, skin color should be assessed on the: A. forehead. B. palms and soles. C. chest and abdomen. D. underside of the arms - B Poor peripheral circulation will cause the skin to appear: A. pink. B. ashen. C. flushed. D. cyanotic - B When assessing the skin of an unconscious patient, you note that it has a bluish tint to it. This finding is called: A. pallor. B. flushing. C. cyanosis. D. mottling - C Cyanosis of the skin is caused by: A. increased blood oxygen. B. peripheral vasodilation. C. venous vasoconstriction. D. decreased blood oxygen - D Normal skin color, temperature, and condition should be: A. pink, warm, and dry. B. pale, cool, and moist. C. pink, warm, and moist. D. flushed, cool, and dry - A A patient with high blood pressure would be expected to have skin that is: A. flushed and red. B. mottled and cool. C. pale and moist. D. cyanotic and dry - A A 40-year-old male presents with pain to the right upper quadrant of his abdomen. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. During your assessment, you note that his skin and sclera are jaundiced. You should suspect: A. acute pancreatitis. B. liver dysfunction. C. gallbladder disease. D. renal insufficiency - B A patient with profuse sweating is referred to as being: A. flushed. B. plethoric. C. diaphoretic. D. edematous - C When you assess capillary refill time (CRT) in an infant, normal color to the tested area should return within: A. 1 second. B. 2 seconds. C. 3 seconds. D. 4 seconds - B During your assessment of a 6-month-old male with vomiting and diarrhea, you note that his capillary refill time is approximately 4 seconds. From this information, you should conclude that his: A. respiratory status is adequate. B. systolic blood pressure is normal. C. peripheral circulation is decreased. D. skin temperature is abnormally cold - C With regard to the assessment of a patient's cardiovascular status, capillary refill time is MOST reliable in: A. children who are younger than 6 years of age. B. patients who are significantly hypotensive. C. children who are older than 6 years of age. D. patients with decreased peripheral perfusion - A External bleeding from an extremity can usually be controlled by a combination of: A. direct pressure and elevation. B. direct pressure and a tourniquet. C. elevation and chemical ice packs. D. elevation and pressure point control - A A 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation at a bar. As you approach the patient, you note that he is conscious, is screaming in pain, and is attempting to control the bleeding, which is bright red and spurting from his groin area. You should: A. ensure that his airway is patent. B. apply direct pressure to the wound. C. elevate his legs and keep him warm. D. administer 100% supplemental oxygen - B The full-body scan of a patient that occurs following the primary assessment should take no longer than: A. 30 seconds. B. 60 to 90 seconds. C. 90 to 120 seconds. D. 120 to 180 seconds - B After performing a primary assessment, a rapid scan of the body should be performed in order to: A. determine the need for spinal motion restriction precautions. B. identify less obvious injuries that require immediate treatment. C. look specifically for signs and symptoms of inadequate perfusion. D. find and treat injuries or conditions that do not pose a threat to life - B You should gently palpate a patient's pelvis only if: A. you note gross deformity to the pelvic area. B. the patient does not complain of pelvic pain. C. the MOI suggests pelvic trauma. D. the possibility of a pelvic fracture has been ruled out - B A 71-year-old female slipped on a rug and fell. She is conscious and alert and complains of severe pelvic pain. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. Which of the following would NOT be appropriate for this patient? A. performing a full-body scan B. 100% supplemental oxygen C. treating her for possible shock D. gentle palpation of the pelvis - D When assessing a patient's abdomen, you will typically evaluate for all of the following, EXCEPT: A. subcutaneous emphysema. B. open wounds or eviscerations. C. gross bleeding and tenderness. D. rigidity and obvious bleeding - A C. determine if the patient has a medical alert bracelet or wallet card. D. ask law enforcement officials if they are familiar with the patient - C Which of the following medical history questions would be of LEAST pertinence in an acute situation? A. "Does the pain stay in your chest?" B. "Does your mother have diabetes?" C. "Has this ever happened to you before?" D. "Are there medications that you cannot take?" - B Which of the following questions would you ask a patient to ascertain the "M" in the SAMPLE history? A. "Have you ever had any major surgeries?" B. "How long have you had your chest pain?" C. "How much Tylenol do you take each day?" D. "When was the last time you ate a meal?" - C Which of the following patient responses would establish the "E" in the SAMPLE history? A. "I was in the hospital a week ago." B. "I am not having any difficulty breathing." C. "The chest pain started about 45 minutes ago." D. "I was mowing the lawn when the pain began." - D Palliating factors regarding a patient's pain involve those that: A. worsen the pain. B. alleviate the pain. C. initiate the pain. D. change the pain. - B Pain that moves from its point of origin to another body location is said to be: A. radiating. B. referred. C. palliating. D. provoking. - A In which of the following situations is a pertinent negative identified? A. A 50-year-old woman states that nothing makes her chest pain better or worse. B. A 53-year-old man with dizziness also tells you that he has vomited three times. C. A 56-year-old woman states that her chest hurts every time she takes a deep breath. D. A 59-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain but denies shortness of breath. - D When evaluating a patient with multiple complaints, the EMT's responsibility is to: A. direct his or her attention to the most obvious signs and symptoms. B. determine which complaint poses the greatest threat to the patient's life. C. definitively rule out serious causes of each of the patient's complaints. D. assess each complaint based on the patient's perception of its seriousness. - B Which of the following statements regarding the secondary assessment is correct? A. The secondary assessment should focus on a certain area or region of the body as determined by the chief complaint. B. The secondary assessment should be performed en route to the hospital, regardless of the severity of the patient's condition. C. A secondary assessment should be performed, even if you must continually manage life threats that were identified in the primary assessment. D. During the secondary assessment, the EMT's primary focus should be on taking the patient's vital signs and obtaining a SAMPLE history. - A Which of the following statements regarding the secondary assessment is correct? A. If your general impression of a patient does not reveal any obvious life threats, you should proceed directly to the secondary assessment. B. The purpose of the secondary assessment is to systematically examine every patient from head to toe, regardless of the severity of his or her injury. C. You may not have time to perform a secondary assessment if you must continually manage life threats that were identified during the primary assessment. D. A focused secondary assessment would be the most appropriate approach for a patient who experienced significant trauma to multiple body systems. - C The pulse oximeter is an assessment tool used to evaluate the: A. percentage of red blood cells. B. effectiveness of oxygenation. C. saturation level of venous blood. D. amount of exhaled carbon dioxide. - B When using the pulse oximeter as part of your assessment of a patient, it is important to remember that: A. pulse oximetry is especially useful in patients who have cold extremities because vasoconstriction forces blood to the capillary beds. B. carbon monoxide has no effect on pulse oximetry readings because the pulse oximeter presumes that oxygen is saturating the hemoglobin. C. as long as the patient's oxygen saturation is greater than 95%, oxygen is usually not necessary, even if the patient has respiratory distress. D. any situation that causes vasoconstriction or loss of red blood cells, such as anemia or bleeding, may result in an inaccurate or misleading value. - D End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) is defined as the: A. maximal concentration of CO2 at the end of an exhaled breath. B. maximum amount of CO2 that remains in the lungs at all times. C. total amount of CO2 that remains in the lungs between breaths. D. amount of CO2 that a person breathes in during a single inhalation - A A low ETCO2 reading, as measured by capnography, would MOST likely be observed if: A. a patient in cardiac arrest is receiving high-quality CPR. B. an endotracheal (ET) tube is correctly placed in the trachea. C. there is an absence or decrease in the level of CO2 in the lungs. D. the cells produce large amounts of CO2 and return it to the lungs. - C Which of the following would the EMT most likely NOT perform on a responsive patient with a headache and no apparent life-threatening conditions? A. focused secondary assessment B. assessment of oxygen saturation C. systemic head-to-toe examination D. noninvasive blood pressure monitoring - C The goal of the full-body scan that is performed during the secondary assessment is to: A. detect and treat all non-life-threatening injuries. B. assess only the parts of the body that are injured. C. definitively rule out significant internal injuries. D. locate injuries not found in the primary assessment. - D A full-body scan should be performed on: A. stable patients who are able to tell you exactly what happened. B. all patients with traumatic injuries who will require EMS transport. C. responsive medical patients and patients without a significant MOI. D. patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients - D You respond to the scene of a motor vehicle collision. Upon arrival, you find the driver, a young female, sitting on the curb. She is confused, is in obvious respiratory distress, and has pale, moist skin. As your partner manually stabilizes her head, you perform a primary assessment. After performing any immediate livesaving treatment, you should: A. perform a rapid scan of her entire body and prepare for immediate transport. B. assess her vital signs, secure her to a backboard, and transport her immediately. C. fully immobilize her spine, load her into the ambulance, and assess her vital signs. D. identify the specific areas of her injuries and focus your assessment on those areas. - A When performing a full-body scan on a trauma patient, you note the presence of Battle's sign. This is defined as: A. unequal pupils. B. bruising behind the ear. C. swelling to the orbital area. D. fluid drainage from the nose. - B A decrease in the blood pressure may indicate: A. a loss of vascular tone. B. arterial constriction.