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Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support Exam Version B (50 Questions With Correct Answers), Exams of Nursing

Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support Exam Version B (50 Questions With Correct Answers) Guaranteed Pass 100%

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2023/2024

Available from 08/22/2024

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Download Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support Exam Version B (50 Questions With Correct Answers) and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support Exam Version B (50 Questions With Correct Answers) Guaranteed Pass 100% 1. What should be done to minimize interruptions in chest compressions during CPR? A. Perform pulse checks only after defibrillation. B. Continue CPR while the defibrillator is charging. C. Administer IV medications only when breaths are given. D. Continue to use AED even after the arrival of a manual defibrillator. 2. Which condition is an indication to stop or withhold resuscitative efforts? A. Unwitnessed arrest B. Safety threat to providers C. Patient age greater than 85 years D. No return of spontaneous circulation after 10 minutes of CPR 3. After verifying the absence of a pulse, you initiate CPR with adequate bag-mask ventilation. The patient’s lead II ECG appears below. What is your next action? A. IV or IO access B. Endotracheal tube placement C. Consultation with cardiology for possible PCI D. Application of a transcutaneous pacemaker 4. After verifying unresponsiveness and abnormal breathing, you activate the emergency response team. What is your next action? A. Retrieve an AED. B. Check for a pulse. C. Deliver 2 rescue breaths. D. Administer a precordial thump. 16. A team leader orders 1 mg of epinephrine, and a team member verbally acknowledges when the medication is administered. What element of effective resuscitation team dynamics does this represent? A. Clear messages B. Knowing one’s limitations C. Closed-loop communication D. Clear roles and responsibilities 17. How long should it take to perform a pulse check during the BLS Survey? A. 1 to 5 seconds B. 5 to 10 seconds C. 10 to 15 seconds D. 15 to 20 seconds 18. Your rescue team arrives to find a 59-year-old man lying on the kitchen floor. You determine that he is unresponsive and notice that he is taking agonal breaths. What is the next step in your assessment and management of this patient? A. Apply the AED. B. Check the patient’s pulse. C. Open the patient’s airway. D. Check for the presence of breathing. 19. Which treatment or medication is appropriate for the treatment of a patient in asystole? A. Atropine B. Epinephrine C. Defibrillation D. Transcutaneous pacing 20. An AED advises a shock for a pulseless patient lying in snow. What is the next action? A. Place a backboard beneath the patient and administer the shock. B. Move the patient off the snow to bare ground and deliver the shock. C. Remove any snow beneath the patient and then administer the shock. D. Administer the shock immediately and continue as directed by the AED. 21. What is the minimum depth of chest compressions for an adult in cardiac arrest? A. 1 inch B. 1½ inches C. 2 inches D. 2½ inches D. Obtain a 12-lead ECG and administer aspirin if not contraindicated. 31. An 80-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with dizziness. She now states she is asymptomatic after walking around. Her blood pressure is 102/72 mm Hg. She is alert and oriented. Her lead II ECG is below. After you start an IV, what is the next action? A. Give an IV fluid bolus. B. Give atropine and monitor for changes in mental status. C. Start an epinephrine infusion and titrate to patient response. D. Conduct a problem-focused history and physical examination. 32. What is the recommended oral dose of aspirin for patients suspected of having one of the acute coronary syndromes? A. 2 to 4 mg B. 80 to 120 mg C. 160 to 325 mg D. 400 to 600 mg 33. A responder is caring for a patient with a history of congestive heart failure. The patient is experiencing shortness of breath, a blood pressure of 68/50 mm Hg, and a heart rate of 190/min. The patient’s lead II ECG is displayed below. Which of the following terms best describes this patient? A. Sinus tachycardia B. Perfusing ventricular tachycardia C. Stable supraventricular tachycardia D. Unstable supraventricular tachycardia 34. What is the most appropriate intervention for a rapidly deteriorating patient who has this lead II ECG? A. Valsalva maneuver B. Synchronized cardioversion C. Intravenous administration of adenosine D. Immediate unsynchronized countershock 35. What is the purpose of a medical emergency team (MET) or rapid response team (RRT)? A. Providing online consultation to EMS personnel in the field B. Providing diagnostic consultation to emergency department patients C. Improving care for deteriorating patients admitted to critical care units D. Improving patient outcomes by identifying and treating early clinical deterioration 36. What is the recommended assisted ventilation rate for patients in respiratory arrest with a perfusing rhythm? A. 4 to 6 breaths per minute B. 10 to 12 breaths per minute C. 14 to 16 breaths per minute D. 16 to 18 breaths per minute 37. You are evaluating a 58-year-old man with chest pain. The blood pressure is 92/50 mm Hg, the heart rate is 92/min, the nonlabored respiratory rate is 14 breaths/min, and the pulse oximetry reading is 97%. What assessment step is most important now? A. PETCO2 B. Chest x-ray C. Laboratory testing D. Obtaining a 12-lead ECG 38. Family members found a 45-year-old woman unresponsive in bed. The patient is unconscious and in respiratory arrest. What is the recommended initial airway management technique? A. Placing a nasopharyngeal airway B. Using an advanced airway device C. Performing a head tilt–chin lift maneuver 42. Which of the following is an acceptable method of selecting an appropriately sized oropharyngeal airway (OPA)? A. Estimate by using the size of the patient’s thumb. B. Estimate by using the formula Weight (kg)/8 + 2. C. Measure from the thyroid cartilage to the angle of the mandible. D. Measure from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the mandible. 43. Which is a contraindication to nitroglycerin administration in the management of acute coronary syndromes? A. Heart rate greater than 80/min B. Right ventricular infarction and dysfunction C. Phosphodiesterase inhibitor use more than 72 hours ago D. Systolic blood pressure greater than 100 mm Hg 44. What is the recommended initial intervention for managing hypotension in the immediate period after return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC)? A. Atropine bolus B. Administration of IV or IO fluid bolus C. Placement of a central line to monitor pulmonary wedge pressure D. Phenylephrine hydrochloride titrated to keep systolic blood pressure >100 mm Hg 45. Which is an appropriate and important intervention to perform for a patient who achieves ROSC during an out-of-hospital resuscitation? A. Initiate an antiarrhythmic infusion. B. Transport the patient to a facility capable of performing PCI. C. Replace any supraglottic airway with an endotracheal tube. D. Place a central venous catheter for hemodynamic monitoring. 46. What is the immediate danger of excessive ventilation during the post–cardiac arrest period for patients who achieve ROSC? A. Oxygen toxicity B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Decreased cerebral blood flow D. Ventilation/perfusion mismatch 47. What is the recommended target temperature range for achieving therapeutic hypothermia after cardiac arrest? A. 26C to 28C B. 29C to 31C C. 32C to 34C D. 35C to 37C 48. What is the recommended duration of therapeutic hypothermia after reaching the target temperature? A. 0 to 12 hours B. 12 to 24 hours C. 24 to 36 hours D. 36 to 48 hours 49. What is the danger of routinely administering high concentrations of oxygen during the post– cardiac arrest period for patients who achieve ROSC? A. Potential oxygen toxicity B. Adverse hemodynamic effects C. Decrease in cerebral blood flow D. Increased intrathoracic pressure 50. What is the recommended dose of epinephrine for the treatment of hypotension in a post– cardiac arrest patient who achieves ROSC? A. 2 to 10 mg/min IV infusion B. 0.1 to 0.5 mcg/kg per minute IV infusion C. 1 mg IV push every 3 to 5 minutes D. 10 mg IV push every 3 to 5 minutes