ADVANCED HEALTH ASSESSMENTS EXAM 3AND STUDY GUIDE, Exams of Health sciences

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ADVANCED HEALTH ASSESSMENTS EXAM 3 AND

STUDY GUIDE 2024 - 2025 WITH ACTUAL CORRECT

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What type of immunoglobulin is involved in Type I hypersensitivity reactions? A. IgG B. IgE C. IgA D. IgM B. IgE Which classification of hypersensitivity involves the formation of immune complexes? A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV C. Type III What distinguishes anaphylaxis from an anaphylactoid reaction? A. Involvement of IgG antibodies B. Direct complement activation C. IgE-mediated response D. Occurrence on first exposure C. IgE-mediated response Which drug is most commonly associated with anesthesia-related anaphylaxis? A. Succinylcholine B. Propofol C. Morphine D. Vecuronium A. Succinylcholine

Which of the following is a common respiratory manifestation of anaphylaxis? A. Angioedema B. Laryngeal edema C. Urticaria D. Hypotension B. Laryngeal edema In the Gel and Coombs classification, which type of reaction involves T-cell activation? A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV D. Type IV What are the two organs most commonly affected in severe anaphylaxis? A. Lungs and liver B. Heart and kidneys C. Lungs and cardiovascular system D. Brain and kidneys C. Lungs and cardiovascular system What is the most likely outcome of untreated glottic edema during anaphylaxis? A. Hypotension B. Bronchodilation C. Airway obstruction D. Urticaria C. Airway obstruction Which mediator is primarily released during mast cell degranulation? A. Prostaglandins B. Histamine C. Bradykinin D. Leukotrienes B. Histamine What immune cells release inflammatory mediators during an anaphylactic reaction? A. Basophils and mast cells B. Eosinophils and macrophages C. Neutrophils and platelets D. Lymphocytes and T cells A. Basophils and mast cells What is the first-line drug for treating anaphylaxis? A. Dopamine

B. Epinephrine C. Norepinephrine D. Albuterol B. Epinephrine Which of the following describes a common cutaneous sign of anaphylaxis? A. Periorbital edema B. Piloerection C. Cyanosis D. Hives D. Hives Which medication class is a known trigger for anaphylaxis during surgery? A. NMDA receptor antagonists B. Neuromuscular blocking agents C. Opioid receptor antagonists D. Anticholinergics B. Neuromuscular blocking agents What intervention is recommended immediately after epinephrine administration during anaphylaxis? A. 100% oxygen administration B. Crystalloid restriction C. Administration of beta-blockers D. Use of muscle relaxants A. 100% oxygen administration Which of the following is NOT a common adjunct therapy for anaphylaxis? A. Diphenhydramine B. Ranitidine C. Mannitol D. Decadron C. Mannitol Which neurotransmitter contributes to the cardiovascular effects of anaphylaxis? A. Acetylcholine B. Dopamine C. Histamine D. Glutamate C. Histamine How does epinephrine treat anaphylaxis? A. Reduces heart rate B. Increases smooth muscle contraction

C. Inhibits cyclic AMP D. Promotes bronchodilation D. Promotes bronchodilation Which immune response is involved in allergic rhinitis? A. Cytotoxic response. B. IgE-mediated hypersensitivity C. Immune complex deposition D. T-cell-mediated immunity D. T-cell-mediated immunity Which of the following agents can cause histamine release independent of IgE? A. Vecuronium B. Morphine C. Ketamine D. Etomidate B. Morphine What type of reaction occurs with mismatched blood transfusions? A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV B. Type II What condition involves non-itchy, painful swelling of the face and extremities? A. Urticaria B. Angioedema C. Erythema multiforme D. Dermatitis B. Angioedema Which beta-agonist inhaler is used for bronchospasm in anaphylaxis? A. Albuterol B. Propranolol C. Clonidine D. Metoprolol A. Albuterol Which anesthetic agent is least likely to trigger an anaphylactic reaction? A. Vancomycin B. Fentanyl C. Succinylcholine D. Tetracaine

B. Fentanyl What symptom differentiates anaphylaxis from other allergic reactions? A. Bradycardia B. Urticaria only C. Cardiovascular collapse D. Rhinorrhea C. Cardiovascular collapse Which mediator is involved in both bronchospasm and vascular leakage? A. Serotonin B. Leukotriene C. Bradykinin D. Heparin B. Leukotriene What is the primary target organ involved in fatal cases of anaphylaxis? A. Cardiovascular system B. Pulmonary system C. Gastrointestinal system D. Central nervous system B. Pulmonary system Which type of reaction can occur on the first exposure to a substance? A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Anaphylactoid D. Anaphylactoid Which of the following can lead to keloid scar formation after an allergic reaction? A. Urticaria B. Allergic reaction to tattoo pigment C. Anaphylaxis D. Latex hypersensitivity B. Allergic reaction to tattoo pigment Which of the following conditions requires exposure to the antigen to induce sensitization? A. Anaphylactoid reaction B. Anaphylaxis C. Type III hypersensitivity reaction D. Cold agglutinin disease B. Anaphylaxis

Which form of urticaria is triggered by cooling of the skin? A. Cold urticaria B. Exercise-induced urticaria C. Dermographism D. Contact dermatitis A. Cold urticaria Which is a non-pruritic swelling involving loose connective tissue, typically on the face? A. Urticaria B. Angioedema C. Erythema D. Anaphylaxis B. Angioedema What is a defining characteristic of allergic rhinitis (hay fever)? A. T-cell involvement B. IgG-mediated immune response C. Sudden release of histamine D. Vascular occlusion C. Sudden release of histamine Which drug is used to treat refractory bronchospasm during anaphylaxis? A. Isoproterenol B. Dopamine C. Albuterol D. Atropine A. Isoproterenol What volume of fluid expansion is recommended for anaphylactic shock? A. 5-10 mL B. 10-25 mL/kg C. 30-50 mL/kg D. 100-150 mL/kg B. 10-25 mL/kg Which of the following statements about latex allergy is true? A. Only causes contact dermatitis B. Can trigger both Type I and Type IV reactions C. Is IgG-mediated only D. Primarily affects the gastrointestinal system B. Can trigger both Type I and Type IV reactions Which of the following is a hallmark of dermographism? A. Painful swelling upon cold exposure

B. Rapid onset of airway obstruction C. Hives forming after skin rubbing D. Persistent hypotension C. Hives forming after skin rubbing What is the recommended infusion method for antibiotics such as clindamycin to avoid adverse effects? A. Bolus injection over 2 minutes B. Slow IV push over 30 minutes C. Direct injection without dilution D. Diluted infusion over 10 minutes D. Diluted infusion over 10 minutes Which neuromuscular blocking agent should be avoided in latex-sensitive patients? A. Atracurium B. Succinylcholine C. Vecuronium D. Rocuronium A. Atracurium What is an antigen? A. A cell that attacks pathogens B. A molecule capable of stimulating an immune response upon exposure C. A substance that destroys immune cells D. A protein produced by mast cells B. A molecule capable of stimulating an immune response upon exposure What safety concern is associated with accidental epinephrine injection into the hand? A. Neurological deficits B. Blood clot formation C. Tissue ischemia D. Systemic hypotension C. Tissue ischemia Which immune component binds specifically to an antigen like a "lock and key"? A. Mast cell B. Complement proteins C. Antibody D. Cytokines C. Antibody What type of molecule is an antibody? A. Lipid molecule B. Simple sugar

C. Steroid D. Protein macromolecule D. Protein macromolecule What is the source of antibody production in the body? A. Mast cells B. T-cells C. Plasma cells and lymphocytes D. Red blood cells C. Plasma cells and lymphocytes Which property allows an antibody to bind only to a specific antigen? A. Cross-reactivity B. Specificity C. Immunogenicity D. Agglutination B. Specificity How does an antigen stimulate an immune response? A. By being recognized as foreign by immune cells B. By producing antibodies directly C. By binding to mast cells and releasing histamine D. By preventing cytokine production A. By being recognized as foreign by immune cells What does the term "specificity" refer to in immunology? A. The ability of an antibody to destroy any antigen it encounters B. The precise fit between an antigen and its corresponding antibody C. The speed at which immune responses are triggered D. The strength of immune cell communication B. The precise fit between an antigen and its corresponding antibody Which of the following best describes antibodies? A. Cells that engulf pathogens B. Lipids that trigger allergic reactions C. Molecules that block immune reactions D. Proteins that bind to specific antigens D. Proteins that bind to specific antigens What happens upon re-exposure to a previously encountered antigen? A. Immune cells ignore the antigen B. Antibodies are deactivated C. An immune response is triggered faster due to the presence of specific antibodies D. The body develops new antibodies

C. An immune response is triggered faster due to the presence of specific antibodies What is the role of antibodies in the immune response? A. To bind with antigens and neutralize or mark them for destruction B. To block histamine release C. To increase the production of red blood cells D. To stimulate the release of serotonin A. To bind with antigens and neutralize or mark them for destruction Which part of the immune response is absent in an anaphylactoid reaction? A. Release of mediators B. Inflammatory response C. Antigen-antibody binding D. Hypotension and tachycardia C. Antigen-antibody binding You can palpate a radial pulse, what SBP must your patient be above? A. 90mmHg B. 80mmHg C. 70mmHg D. 100mmHg 90mmHg How do you calculate MAP? systolic + 2(diastolic)/ What should the bladder width of a cuff be compared to the patient's arm? 60% arm length (2/3) What should the bladder length of a cuff be compared to the patient's arm? 80 - 100% circumference If the patient's BP cuff is 5cm below the phlebostatic axis, how much is the BP off in mmHg? BP is 3.7mmHg higher How many mmHg is a foot off of heart level? 22mmHg What complications are commonly related to RCA issues? A. Hypotension B. Dysrhythmias C. Hypertension D. None of these

B. Dysrhythmias Which of the following methods is NOT used to calculate blood pressure? A. Auscultation B. Doppler probe C. Photoplethysmography D. Spirometry D. Spirometry What happens to blood pressure measurement if the cuff is too large? A. False high reading B. False low reading C. No effect on reading D. Consistently elevated MAP B. False low reading Which Korotkoff sound corresponds to systolic blood pressure? A. Phase 1 B. Phase 2 C. Phase 4 D. Phase 5 A. Phase 1 During photoplethysmography, what does infrared light detect? A. Peripheral resistance B. Blood oxygen saturation C. Arterial pulsations D. Muscle contraction C. Arterial pulsations All of the following falsely elevate blood pressure readings except: A. Cuff too large B. Shivering patient C. Uneven pressure on the artery D. Extremity below the level of the heart A. Cuff too large A BP that is taken on an extremity that is 10cm above the level of the heart would be expected to be: A. 7.4mmHg lower B. 2mmHg lower C. 7.4mmHg higher D. 2mmHg higher A. 7.4mmHg lower

Which cardiac function can TEE not assess intraoperatively? A. Wall motion abnormalities B. Ejection fraction C. Left ventricular filling and contractility D. Coronary artery occlusion D. Coronary artery occlusion What is a limitation of TEE? A. Requires patient sedation B. Cannot detect wall motion abnormalities C. Provides inaccurate ejection fraction (EF) D. Cannot detect air bubbles A. Requires patient sedation Which leads are most sensitive for detecting myocardial ischemia? A. II and III B. aVR and V C. V2 and V D. V4 and V C. V2 and V A 12-lead ECG provides a complete view of which heart chamber? A. Right atrium B. Left atrium C. Right ventricle D. Left ventricle D. Left ventricle Which coronary artery supplies the inferior wall of the heart? A. Left circumflex artery B. Right coronary artery C. Left anterior descending artery D. Posterior descending artery B. Right coronary artery The ability to palpate only the carotid pulse would indicate and estimated SBP of? A. 90mmHg B. 80mmHg C. 70mmHg D. 60mmHg C. 70mmHg Which of the following can cause BP auscultation errors? A. Bladder width 60% of arm length

B. HR irregular with no distinguishable P waves C. Bladder length 90% of arm circumference D. BP cuff centered over the artery B. HR irregular with no distinguishable P waves What is the hallmark ECG feature of atrial flutter? A. Absent P waves B. Sawtooth flutter waves C. Wide QRS complex D. T-wave inversion B. Sawtooth flutter waves What is the most appropriate treatment for unstable sinus bradycardia? A. Esmolol B. Atropine C. Diltiazem D. Amiodarone B. Atropine Which electrolyte disturbance is associated with prominent U waves? A. Hypocalcemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypokalemia D. Hypernatremia C. Hypokalemia Which drug should be avoided in patients with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome? A. Procainamide B. Verapamil C. Epinephrine D. Esmolol B. Verapamil What is the first-line treatment for symptomatic ventricular tachycardia? A. Lidocaine B. Magnesium sulfate C. Shock D. Esmolol C. Shock What ECG finding is indicative of transmural myocardial infarction? A. Inverted T waves B. ST segment depression

C. Q waves and ST elevation D. Prolonged PR interval C. Q waves and ST elevation What ECG changes suggest inferior wall myocardial infarction? A. ST elevation in leads V1-V B. ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF C. T-wave inversion in leads V5 and V D. ST depression in aVR B. ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF A patient's blood pressure is taken on an arm that is 15cm lower than the heart. What is the expected blood pressure difference? A. 5mmHg higher B. 7.4 mmHg higher C. 11.1 mmHg higher D. 14.7mmHg higher C. 11.1 mmHg higher True or False: A normal resting ECG guarantees the patient has no underlying heart disease False Which of the following best describes the primary function of the coronary sinus? A. Drains oxygen rich blood from the coronary arteries into the left atrium B. Drains de-oxygenated blood from the coronary arteries to the right atrium C. Supplies oxygenated blood to the posterior wall via collateral pathways D. Supplies oxygenated blood to the SA node B. Drains de-oxygenated blood from the coronary arteries to the right atrium Which cardiovascular disease process carries the highest perioperative risk? A. Recent MI B. ECG changes indicative of ischemia C. Severe diabetes D. Congestive heart failure D. Congestive heart failure During intraoperative monitoring, what is a common cause of ischemia? A. Tachycardia B. Hypervolemia C. Hypoglycemia D. Low body temperature A. Tachycardia

Which coronary artery supplies the SA node? A. RCA B. Left Main C. LCA D. Right marginal A. RCA Which medication should be avoided in a patient who has a suspected RV infarction? A. Epinephrine B. Esmolol C. Atropine D. Nitroglycerin D. Nitroglycerin Which of the following parts of the heart are supplied by the LAD? A. SA and AV node B. Inferior and posterior wall C. Anterior and septal wall D. Posterior and lateral wall C. Anterior and septal wall An occlusion in which coronary artery carries the poorest prognosis? A. RCA B. Left Main C. LAD D. LCx B. Left Main The left circumflex artery supplies which part of the heart? A. SA and AV node B. Inferior and posterior wall C. Anterior and septal wall D. Posterior and lateral wall D. Posterior and lateral wall Which coronary artery supplies the posterior and inferior wall? A. Left Main B. LAD C. RCA D. LCx C. RCA Where should the V5 lead be placed? A. 4th ICS left of the sternal border

B. 5th ICS, midclavicular line C. 5th ICS anterior axillary line D. 5th ICS, midaxillary line C. 5th ICS anterior axillary line Which lead on a 12 lead ECG does not monitor ischemia? A. aVR B. aVL C. aVF D. all ECG leads monitor for ischemia aVR Which of the following correctly identifies the electrode placement required to record Lead III on an ECG? A. Left arm (-) to right arm (+) B. Right arm (-) to left arm (+) C. Left arm (-) to left leg (+) D. Right arm (-) to left leg (+) C. Left arm (-) to left leg (+) Which of the following correctly identifies the electrode placement required to record Lead II on an ECG? A. Left arm (-) to right arm (+) B. Right arm (-) to left arm (+) C. Left arm (-) to left leg (+) D. Right arm (-) to left leg (+) D. Right arm (-) to left leg (+) Which of the following correctly identifies the electrode placement required to record Lead I on an ECG? A. Left arm (-) to right arm (+) B. Right arm (-) to left arm (+) C. Left arm (-) to left leg (+) D. Right arm (-) to left leg (+) B. Right arm (-) to left arm (+) Which of the following best describes the degree of deflection for the electrical axis of aVL in the frontal plane? A. +90 degrees B. - 30 degrees C. +60 degrees D. 0 degrees B. - 30 degrees

Which of the following ECG findings is most consistent with an anterolateral STEMI? A. ST elevation in II, III and aVF B. ST elevation in V1-V C. ST depression in V5 and V D. ST elevation in I, aVL, V3-V D. ST elevation in I, aVL, V3-V ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF indicate an occlusion in which of the following coronary arteries? A. RCA B. LCA C. LAD D. LCx A. RCA An ECG tracing shows a flat T wave and U wave. Which of the following medications would you administer? A. Furosemide 40mg B. Calcium Chloride 1g C. Magnesium 2g D. Potassium Chloride 40mEq/L D. Potassium Chloride 40mEq/L An ECG tracing shows peaked T waves with a wide QRS complex. Which of the following would not be an appropriate intervention for the patient? A. Albuterol B. Calcium Chloride 1g C. Insulin 15 units with Dextrose 25g D. Decrease TV and RR Decrease TV and RR Which of the following can exaggerate the response to catecholamines? A. Hypercarbia and halothane B. Hypocarbia and Isoflurane C. Hyperkalemia and halothane D. Hyperkalemia and isoflurane A. Hypercarbia and halothane Which of the following is the most common perioperative arrythmia? A. Bradycardia B. Tachycardia C. Atrial fibrillation D. 1st degree AVB B. Tachycardia

Which of the following best describes the abnormal conduction pathway responsible for Wolff Parkinson White Syndrome? A. A reentry circuit between the AV and SA node B. Kent bundle accessory pathway between the atria and ventricles that bypasses the AV node C. Enhanced conduction through the Bundle of His causing premature ventricular activation D. Blockage of conduction at the AV node with retrograde conduction through the His-Purkinje system B. Kent bundle accessory pathway between the atria and ventricles that bypasses the AV node What are the hallmark ECG changes associated with WPW? A. Shortened PR interval with a delta wave B. Absent P waves with a normal QRS C. Prolonged PR interval with a Q wave D. Progressive PR lengthening with QRS drop A. Shortened PR interval with a delta wave Which condition is associated with Mobitz II second-degree AV block? A. Inferior wall MI B. Right bundle branch block C. Left anterior descending artery occlusion D. First-degree heart block C. Left anterior descending artery occlusion Which treatment is indicated for complete heart block (third-degree AV block)? A. Atropine and Esmolol B. Pacemaker insertion C. Adenosine infusion D. Diltiazem B. Pacemaker insertion What is the first action when managing pulseless electrical activity (PEA)? A. Defibrillate immediately B. Administer amiodarone C. Begin CPR and search for the underlying cause D. Perform synchronized cardioversion C. Begin CPR and search for the underlying cause Which factor is most likely to precipitate intraoperative dysrhythmias? A. Hyperthermia B. Acidosis C. Alkalosis D. Hypovolemia B. Acidosis

What is the significance of ST-segment elevation 0.06 seconds after the J-point? A. Non-cardiac artifact B. Ventricular hypertrophy C. Myocardial injury or infarction D. Hypocalcemia C. Myocardial injury or infarction Which ECG leads monitor the lateral wall of the left ventricle? A. V2, V B. II, III, aVF C. I, aVL, V5, V D. V1, V C. I, aVL, V5, V What ECG finding is characteristic of a septal wall myocardial infarction? A. ST elevation in leads V1 and V B. ST depression in leads I and aVL C. Inverted T waves in leads V5 and V D. Tall R waves in V3 and V A. ST elevation in leads V1 and V Which lead is best for identifying atrial activity and P waves during arrhythmia monitoring? A. Lead II B. Lead III C. V D. V A. Lead II What does a Q wave > 1 mm wide or > 1/3 the height of the QRS complex indicate? A. Left bundle branch block B. Subendocardial ischemia C. Transmural myocardial infarction D. Hyperkalemia C. Transmural myocardial infarction Which dysrhythmia presents with no discernible P waves and an irregularly irregular rhythm? A. Atrial flutter B. Atrial fibrillation C. Junctional rhythm D. Ventricular tachycardia B. Atrial fibrillation What is the initial treatment for stable supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)? A. Amiodarone 300 mg IV

B. Atropine 0.4 mg IV C. Cardioversion 100 J D. Vagal maneuvers D. Vagal maneuvers What causes a Mobitz Type I block? A. Disease of the AV node B. Disease of the His bundle-Purkinje system C. Kent bundle accessory pathway activation D. Re-entrant phenomenon A. Disease of the AV node An MI in what location is commonly associate with a Mobitz I block? A. Lateral MI B. Inferior MI C. Posterior MI D. Septal MI B. Inferior MI What is the most common cause of a Mobitz II second degree AVB? A. Anterior MI B. Posterior MI C. Lateral MI D. Inferior MI A. Anterior MI A disease in what part of the conduction system is responsible for Mobitz II second degree AVB? A. Disease of the AV node B. Disease of the His bundle-Purkinje system C. Kent bundle accessory pathway activation D. Reentry circuit between the AV and SA node B. Disease of the His bundle-Purkinje system What is the most concerning complication of a Mobitz II block? A. Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response B. Development of ventricular tachycardia C. Hypotension due to loss of atrial kick D. Progression to complete heart block D. Progression to complete heart block What ECG changes are indicative of a Left bundle branch block? A. Notched R wave in leads I, V5, and V B. RSR' pattern in V

C. Inverted T waves in leads I and V D. Prolonged QT interval A. Notched R wave in leads I, V5, and V What procedure is relatively contraindicated in a patient with a LBBB? A. Coronary angiography B. Electrophysiology study C. Pulmonary artery catheter placement D. Cardiac stress testing C. Pulmonary artery catheter placement Which of the following can cause a transient RBBB? A. Myocardial infraction involving the RCA B. Pulmonary valve stenosis C. COPD D. PAC placement D. PAC placement A 72-year-old is with a known history of a tri-fascicular block scheduled for elective surgery. The anesthesiologist reviews the ECG, which shows a prolonged QRS complex with evidence of right bundle branch block (RBBB) and left anterior fascicular block (LAFB). Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient prior to surgery? A. Administer atropine to increase heart rate B. Obtain a cardiology consult for further evaluation C. Place a temporary pacemaker for perioperative management D. Proceed to surgery, this is a known condition for the patient C. Place a temporary pacemaker for perioperative management What ECG feature characterizes Mobitz I (Wenckebach) second-degree AV block? A. Fixed PR interval with dropped QRS B. Progressive PR interval lengthening until a QRS is dropped C. Wide QRS complexes without P waves D. Alternating wide and narrow QRS complexes B. Progressive PR interval lengthening until a QRS is dropped What medication is contraindicated in complete heart block? A. Atropine B. Epinephrine C. Beta-blockers D. Isoproterenol C. Beta-blockers Which rhythm presents as a sawtooth pattern on ECG? A. Atrial flutter

B. Torsade's de pointes C. Atrial fibrillation D. Junctional tachycardia A. Atrial flutter What is the hallmark feature of a right bundle branch block (RBBB)? A. RSR' pattern in V1 B. Inverted T waves in leads I and V6 C. ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF D. Wide QRS complexes in all leads A. RSR' pattern in V1 Which agent is most likely to cause bradycardia during anesthesia? A. Ketamine B. Propofol C. Succinylcholine D. Epinephrine C. Succinylcholine Which factor is a common cause of intraoperative dysrhythmias? A. Hypernatremia B. Halogenated anesthetics and catecholamines C. Low hematocrit levels D. Peripheral neuropathy B. Halogenated anesthetics and catecholamines What is the ideal treatment for a patient in ventricular fibrillation? A. Lidocaine 100 mg IV B. Immediate defibrillation C. Adenosine 6 mg IV push D. Cardioversion 100 J B. Immediate defibrillation Which arrhythmia requires synchronized cardioversion? A. Torsades de pointes B. Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response C. Complete heart block D. Asystole B. Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response What is a common ECG finding in hyperkalemia? A. Peaked T waves B. Prominent U waves

C. Shortened QT interval D. ST segment depression A. Peaked T waves Which electrolyte abnormality is associated with prolonged QT interval? A. Hypermagnesemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hypocalcemia D. Hypocalcemia What ECG change is seen in severe hypokalemia? A. Peaked T waves B. Flattened T waves and U waves C. ST elevation D. Wide QRS complexes B. Flattened T waves and U waves What rhythm is characterized by a loss of p wave and a regular HR 40-60 bpm? A. Atrial fibrillation B. Atrial flutter C. Complete heart block D. Junction rhythm D. Junction rhythm A patient develops a new onset junctional rhythm during anesthesia, with a blood pressure of 102/60 and end tidal sevoflurane concentration of 2.8%. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate? A. Administer atropine 0.5mg B. Begin transcutaneous pacing C. Decrease sevoflurane concentration and administer IV fluids D. Increase sevoflurane concentration to deepen anesthesia C. Decrease sevoflurane concentration and administer IV fluids What is the appropriate treatment for hyperkalemia with ECG changes? A. Calcium chloride, insulin, glucose B. Furosemide and mannitol C. Magnesium sulfate and KCl infusion D. Sodium bicarbonate only A. Calcium chloride, insulin, glucose Which electrolyte abnormality causes Torsades de pointes? A. Hypocalcemia B. Hypokalemia

C. Hypomagnesemia D. Hypernatremia C. Hypomagnesemia Which rhythm shows wide QRS complexes without P waves and rates >100 bpm? A. Atrial tachycardia B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Sinus tachycardia D. Junctional tachycardia B. Ventricular tachycardia What is the treatment for recurrent paroxysmal atrial tachycardia (PAT)? A. Amiodarone B. Epinephrine 1mg C. Adenosine 6 mg IV push D. Atropine 1 mg IV C. Adenosine 6 mg IV push Which dysrhythmia is most commonly seen in Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome? A. Atrial fibrillation B. PVCs and SVT C. Sinus tachycardia D. Torsades de pointes B. PVCs and SVT What is the most frequent cause of delayed emergence from inhalation anesthesia? A. Hypoventilation B. Metabolic disturbances C. Neurologic injury D. Hypothermia A. Hypoventilation What is the most common cause of delayed emergence from general anesthesia? A. Hypothermia B. Residual drug effect C. Perioperative stroke D. Hypercarbia B. Residual drug effect

When does recovery from anesthesia officially begin? A. After extubation B. After the patient is responsive to verbal stimuli C. With the discontinuation of anesthetic agents D. Upon patient admission to PACU C. With the discontinuation of anesthetic agents What MAC level is typically associated with patients being "awake"? A. 1.0 B. 0.3 C. 0.8 D. 1.2 B. 0.3 Which factors are required for PACU discharge based on the Aldrete Recovery System? A. SpO2 ≥ 90% B. Can cough and deep breathe C. Score of ≥9 on the Aldrete scale D. Pink color B. Can cough and deep breathe C. Score of ≥9 on the Aldrete scale D. Pink color A patient bypassing Phase I recovery to go directly to Phase II is known as: A. Direct discharge B. Secondary recovery C. Fast-tracking D. Expedited recovery C. Fast-tracking Standard 11 for CRNAs emphasizes: A. Monitoring of vital signs every 15 minutes B. Evaluating the patient's condition before transferring care C. Ensuring a MAC value below 0.5 before transport D. Performing a head-to-toe assessment upon arrival B. Evaluating the patient's condition before transferring care What is a key risk during transport from the OR to PACU? A. Hypotension B. Transient hypoxemia C. Hypertensive crisis D. Aspiration B. Transient hypoxemia

In what position should a patient be transported to minimize aspiration risk? A. Supine B. Trendelenburg C. Lateral D. Prone C. Lateral The most common postoperative respiratory complication in PACU is: A. Aspiration B. Pulmonary edema C. Hypoventilation D. Bronchospasm C. Hypoventilation Which medication can relieve laryngospasm during recovery? A. Midazolam B. Naloxone C. Ketamine D. Succinylcholine D. Succinylcholine Hypoventilation is diagnosed when PaCO2 exceeds: A. 35 mm Hg B. 40 mm Hg C. 45 mm Hg D. 60 mm Hg C. 45 mm Hg Which drug is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression? A. Doxapram B. Naloxone C. Flumazenil D. Atropine B. Naloxone What type of oxygen mask delivers near 100% oxygen concentration? A. Non-rebreathing mask B. Venturi mask C. Partial rebreather D. Simple face mask A. Non-rebreathing mask Which condition is the most common cause of postoperative hypoxemia? A. Hypoventilation