Advanced Pathophysiology Final, Advanced Pathophysiology Final TEST EXAM QUESTIONS, Exams of Nursing

Download Advanced Pathophysiology Final, Advanced Pathophysiology Final TEST EXAM QUESTIONS and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

Advanced Pathophysiology Final, Advanced

Pathophysiology Final TEST EXAM

QUESTIONS ACCURATE TESTED VERSIONS

OF THE EXAM FROM 2023TO 2024 |

ACCURATE AND VERIFIED ANSWERS | NEXT

GEN FORMAT | GUARANTEED PASS WITH

100+ QUESTIONS

What is the leading cause of infertility in women? a. Pelvic inflammatory disease b. Endometriosis c. Salpingitis d. Polycystic ovary syndrome

• ANSWER D. Polycystic ovary syndrome remains one of the most common endocrine disturbances affecting women, especially young women, and is a leading cause of infertility in the United States. Considering the mediating factors of premenstrual syndrome (PMS), which medication may be used either continually or only during the menstrual period as a treatment for the condition? a. NSAIDs b. Estrogen c. SSRIs d. Progesterone
• ANSWER C. A selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) (an antidepressant) relieves symptoms in approximately 60% to 90% of women and may be continually administered or only

prescribed during the premenstrual period. Oral contraceptive pills that contain estrogen and progesterone also can be continuously used for up to 3 months to decrease the frequency of menstrual periods, PMS, and premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD). Nonsteriodal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) would not be continually administered. Which statement regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is true? a. An episode of mild PID can decrease the possibility of a successful pregnancy by 80%. b. Such an inflammation results in temporary changes to the ciliated epithelium of the fallopian tubes. c. PID has not been associated with an increased risk of an ectopic pregnancy. d. Contracting this infection increases the risk of uterine cancer.

• ANSWER D. PID infection results in permanent changes to the ciliated epithelium of the fallopian or uterine tubes. A recent study has found that one episode of mild, subclinical PID resulted in a 40% decrease in later pregnancy rates, and multiple episodes of PID further increase the risk of infertility. Scarring caused by PID greatly increases the risk of a later ectopic pregnancy by up to tenfold. Scarring and adhesions also can result in chronic pelvic pain and, potentially, an increased risk of later uterine cancer. Which term is used to identify benign uterine tumors that develop from smooth muscle cells in the myometrium and are commonly called uterine fibroids? a. Endometrial polyps b. Myometrial polyps c. Leiomyomas d. Myometriomas
  • ANSWER C. Leiomyomas, commonly called myomas or uterine fibroids, are benign smooth muscle tumors in the myometrium (see Figure 24-14). The other terms do not accurately identify the tumors described. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB), secondary to ovarian dysfunction, is abnormal uterine bleeding resulting from: (Select all that apply.) a. Endometriosis

b. Progesterone deficiency c. Sexually transmitted infections d. Congenital abnormalities in the uterine structure e. Estrogen excess

• ANSWER B, E. Of the options available, DUB, secondary to ovarian dysfunction, is a result of either progesterone deficiency or unopposed estrogen excess. The size of benign uterine tumors, such as leiomyomas, is thought to be caused by the influence of which hormone? (Select all that apply.) a. Progesterone b. Estrogen c. Luteinizing hormone d. Gonadotropin-stimulating hormone e. Growth factors
  • ANSWER A, B, E. The cause of uterine leiomyomas is unknown, although their size appears to be related to only estrogen, progesterone, growth factors, angiogenesis, and apoptosis. The majority of the small percentage of ovarian cancers that are associated with a known pattern of inheritance are associated with: a. Susceptibility of the BRCA1 gene b. Mutations of the BRCA2 gene c. Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) syndrome d. Low progesterone levels
• ANSWER A. The majority (approximately 90%) of ovarian cancers are sporadic and not associated with a known pattern of inheritance. Of the 5% to 10% that have a familial component, the majority are associated with the breast cancer susceptibility gene 1 (BRCA1) and a smaller number with mutations of the BRCA2 or mismatched repair genes (HNPCC syndrome). Low progesterone levels are not associated with ovarian cancers. Which factor increases the risk for ovarian cancer after the age of 40 years?

a. Use of fertility drugs b. Oral contraceptive use c. Multiple pregnancies d. Prolonged lactation

• ANSWER A. Ovarian cancer in women older than 40 years of age is associated with early menarche, late menopause, nulliparity, and the use of fertility drugs. The other options are not necessarily related to women older than the age of 40 years. What theory is used to describe the cause of endometriosis? a. Obstruction within the fallopian tubes prevents the endometrial tissue from adhering to the lining of the uterus. b. Endometrial tissue passes through the fallopian tubes and into the peritoneal cavity and remains responsive to hormones. c. Inflammation of the endometrial tissue develops after recurrent sexually transmitted diseases. d. Endometrial tissue lies dormant in the uterus until the ovaries produce sufficient hormone to stimulate its growth.
• ANSWER B. It has been proposed that endometriosis is caused by the implantation of endometrial cells during retrograde menstruation, during which menstrual fluids move through the fallopian tubes and empty into the pelvic cavity (see Figure 24-16). Similar to normal endometrial tissue, the ectopic (out of place) endometrium responds to the hormonal fluctuations of the menstrual cycle. Of the available options, this answer is the only accepted theory for the cause of endometriosis. What term is used to identify a condition in which the foreskin cannot be retracted over the glans penis? a. Paraphimosis c. Prephimosis b. Priapism d. Phimosis –

ANSWER D. Phimosis is the only term used to identify the condition in which the foreskin cannot be retracted back over the glans. What term is used to identify a fibrotic condition that causes lateral curvature of the penis during erection, which is associated with a local vasculitis-like inflammatory reaction and decreased tissue oxygenation? a. Phimosis b. Lateral phimosis c. Lateral paraphimosis d. Peyronie disease

• ANSWER D. Peyronie disease (bent nail syndrome) is a fibrotic condition of the tunica albuginea of the penis, resulting in varying degrees of curvature and sexual dysfunction (see Figure 25-2). Although the exact cause is unknown, a local vasculitis-like inflammatory reaction occurs and decreased tissue oxygenation results in fibrosis and calcification. Peyronie disease is the only term used to identify the pathophysiologic condition described. What are the clinical manifestations of testicular cancer? a. Firm, nontender testicular mass b. Painful, mobile, firm testicular mass c. Painful fluid-filled testicular mass d. Soft, nontender testicular mass
• ANSWER A. Of the options available, a firm, painless testicular enlargement is commonly identified as the first sign of testicular cancer. Symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) are a result of which pathophysiologic condition? a. Infection of the prostate b. Obstruction of the urethra c. Ischemia of the urethra d. Compression of the urethra

• ANSWER D. BPH becomes problematic as prostatic tissue compresses the urethra, where it passes through the prostate. Of the selections available, only this option accurately describes the pathophysiologic condition behind the symptoms of BPH. Autonomic Nervous System
  • ANSWER Primarily deals with GI Enteric function Parasympathetic Neurons
• ANSWER Project via vagus nerves CN 10, dependent on gut feedback through solitary nucleus Sympathetic Neurons
  • ANSWER Stimulate spinal sympathetic neurons, dependent on gut sensory feedback Emotional Stimuli
  • ANSWER Can influence both autonomic branches via the limbic system and hypothalamus Carbohydrate Metabolism Steps – ANSWER Includes hydrolysis by amylase, disaccharide hydrolysis by brush border enzymes, and monosaccharide transport Protective Mechanism Components
• ANSWER Include gut microbiota, immune protections, Peyer's patches, and tight junctions Chronic Liver Disease
  • ANSWER Involves changes in sinusoids, Kupffer cells, stellate cells, and portal hypertension Causes of Chronic Liver Disease

• ANSWER Include Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, Alcoholic liver disease, and Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease Glycogenesis - ANSWER Process of storing glucose as glycogen Glycogenolysis - ANSWER Process of producing glucose by glycogen breakdown Gluconeogenesis - ANSWER Formation of glucose from non-carbohydrate carbon sources Post Prandial Role in Fuel Storage - ANSWER Involves storing glucose as glycogen and synthesizing triglycerides Lipid Metabolism - ANSWER Includes synthesis of cholesterol, high density lipoproteins, and processing of IDL and LDL Kupffer Cell - ANSWER Resident macrophages conducting immune function in the liver Hepatocyte - ANSWER Functional liver cells with metabolic and storage functions Stellate Cell - ANSWER Cells that store vitamin A and contribute to fibrosis in liver disease Space of Disse - ANSWER Interstitial space in the liver connected to lymph drainage and containing stellate cells Triglycerides - ANSWER Consist of free fatty acids and glycerol Cholesterol - ANSWER Includes cholesterol esters and free fatty acids

Bile Salts - ANSWER Primary component of bile for fat digestion Phospholipids - ANSWER Consist of free fatty acids and lysophospholipids Zymogens - ANSWER Inactive forms of enzymes packaged by the pancreas Acinar Cells - ANSWER Pancreatic cells responsible for synthesizing and releasing digestive enzymes Portal Vein - ANSWER Major blood vessel responsible for draining the intestines, pancreas, and spleen, providing a high rate of blood flow to the liver. Hepatocytes - ANSWER Liver cells where portal vein and hepatic artery blood flow through large, highly permeable capillaries (sinusoids) between hepatocyte plates. Bilirubin - ANSWER Product of heme breakdown from red blood cells, carried by albumin in circulation as indirect bilirubin, then taken up by hepatocytes, conjugated, and excreted as direct bilirubin in bile. Stomach Ulcers - ANSWER Caused by alterations in gastric acid acidity, developing over time due to factors like smoking, bile reflux, and NSAIDs intake; stress exacerbates but does not directly cause ulcers. Lower Esophageal Sphincter (LES) - ANSWER Weak LES can lead to stomach acid reflux into the esophagus causing GERD; normally prevents acidic stomach contents from reaching the esophagus. Kupffer Cells - ANSWER Liver macrophages found in sinusoids responsible for phagocytosis of bacteria translocating from the gut, acting as a defense mechanism.

Amygdala Function - ANSWER Central role in perceiving stress, fear, and triggering autonomic responses; part of the brain's fear center. Cerebellum Function - ANSWER Coordinates voluntary muscle movement, balance, and posture; responsible for motor control and cognitive functions. Concussion - ANSWER Mild traumatic brain injury causing functional deficits without detectable structural damage; may lead to excitotoxic neuron death and altered cognitive function. Cortisol - ANSWER Stress hormone promoting various physiological functions like cardiovascular regulation, gluconeogenesis, and immune response inhibition; elevated in acute stress. GABA Role - ANSWER Principal inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain, with ionotropic GABAA receptors for rapid inhibition and metabotropic GABAB receptors for slow inhibition. HPA Activation in Depression - ANSWER In depression, activation of the amygdala and hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis leads to symptoms and a vicious cycle of cortisol elevation. Elevated cortisol levels - ANSWER Damage hippocampal neurons Prefrontal cortical processing - ANSWER Relative loss leads to negative appraisal of events Lower motor neurons - ANSWER Begin in spinal cord, innervate muscles, use acetylcholine Upper motor neurons - ANSWER Originate in cerebral cortex, use glutamate Upper Motor Neuron Lesion - ANSWER Causes weakness, lack of coordination, hyperreflexia, spasticity

Lower Motor Neuron Lesion - ANSWER Caused by damage to motor neuron parts, presents as flaccidity, atrophy Membrane potential at rest - ANSWER Neurons have negative potential inside relative to outside (~70mV) Metabotropic receptors - ANSWER Responsible for slow, modulatory actions, e.g., GPCRs Dopamine - ANSWER Plays role in motor, endocrine, and motivational control Serotonin - ANSWER Regulates food intake, sleep, mood, pain modulation Cranial Lobe functions - ANSWER Frontal, Parietal, Temporal, Occipital lobes' functions Albumin - ANSWER Most common binding protein for hormones, extends half-life Endocrine - ANSWER Study of hormones and glands, e.g., GnRH role in LH and FSH secretion Growth Hormone (GH) - ANSWER Secreted by anterior pituitary, promotes growth of bones and organs Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH) - ANSWER Stimulates adrenal gland growth and cortisol secretion Luteinizing Hormone (LH) - ANSWER Stimulates sex steroid production in ovaries or testes Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) - ANSWER Stimulates follicle development in ovaries or testosterone synthesis in testes

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) - ANSWER Stimulates thyroid growth and T4/T3 synthesis Gonadotropin - ANSWER Stimulates LH and FSH release, promotes bone and organ growth Vasopressin (AVP) - ANSWER Controls renal water retention, acts as vasoconstrictor Aldosterone - ANSWER Promotes sodium retention and potassium excretion in kidneys Thyroxine (T3) - ANSWER Maintains tissue functions, increases metabolic rate Primary hyperthyroidism - ANSWER Diagnosis via high T-4, low TSH levels in blood tests Goiter - ANSWER Swelling in the neck from an enlarged thyroid gland Endometriosis - ANSWER Endometrial tissue displaced to fallopian tubes, ovaries, peritoneal cavity Nitric Oxide Role - ANSWER Vasodilator crucial for maintaining erection Primary Fuel Storage - ANSWER Protein used for energy or stored as fat; Lipids stored in subQ adipose tissue; Glycogen in liver and muscles Graves Disease Symptoms - ANSWER Hyperthyroidism, heat intolerance, weight loss, tachycardia, frequent bowel movements Hashimoto's Symptoms - ANSWER Hypothyroidism, cold intolerance, dry skin, voice changes, myalgia, bradycardia

Parkinson's Disease Symptoms - ANSWER Uncontrolled movements, stiffness, balance issues, difficulty walking and talking Diabetes Symptoms - ANSWER Extreme thirst, hunger, fatigue, blurry vision, increased urination Type 1 DM - ANSWER Autoimmune destruction of B cells, severe presentation with classic signs Type 2 DM - ANSWER Insulin resistance, strong genetic influence, represents 95% of DM cases Diabetes Complications - ANSWER Eye, nerve, heart, kidney disease, slow healing, foot problems Estrogen and Osteoporosis - ANSWER Lower estrogen levels during menopause increase osteoporosis risk MS Bone Structure - ANSWER Woven bone in fetal development, later converts to lamellar form Osteocytes, Osteoclasts, Osteoblasts - ANSWER Mature bone cell, bone resorption cells, bone- forming cells Sprain Grades - ANSWER Grade 1: microtears, little swelling; Grade 2: partial tear, more swelling; Grade 3: complete rupture Gout Definition - ANSWER Joint disorder with uric acid crystals causing inflammation and pain Herniated Disc Pain Cause - ANSWER Compression of spinal cord and nerves affecting motor function

Bone Strength - ANSWER Hard connective tissue with organic matrix for flexibility and mineral deposition for strength Renal Acute Infection Impact - ANSWER Acute kidney injuries progressing to chronic disease, caused by various factors Elevated Filtration Pressure - ANSWER High pressure and permeability in glomerular capillaries Acute infection impact on kidney function - ANSWER Many acute kidney injuries can progress to chronic kidney disease. Prerenal causes - ANSWER Include hypotension & hypovolemia, which acutely reduce GFR and precipitate medullary hypoxia and ATN. Intrarenal causes - ANSWER Can be due to drug toxicity, myoglobin, radiocontrast media, immune attack, and infections. Postrenal causes - ANSWER Include obstruction due to kidney stone, kidney or bladder cancer. Secondary kidney injury - ANSWER Occurs in hypertension, diabetes, lupus, vasculitis, and hemolytic uremic syndrome. Elevated Capillary Permeability - ANSWER Occurs during inflammation, characterized by increased fluid flow into tissue spaces, leading to loss of proteins and large molecules. Vasopressin levels affect urine output by - ANSWER Promoting water reabsorption in the renal tubule, thus decreasing water loss and dehydration. Glomerular Filtration (GFR) - ANSWER Primary indicator of global kidney function, directly proportional to the number of functioning nephrons.

Lab results indicating kidney failure - ANSWER Include BUN, Cystatin C, Urine albumin/creatinine ratio, and urinalysis. Symptoms of Diabetes causing chronic kidney disease - ANSWER Include low nephron number compensated by hyperfiltration, leading to nephron death, glomerulosclerosis, and vulnerability of glomerular capillaries. Insulin Levels in Fed State - ANSWER Insulin promotes anabolic reactions, inhibits catabolic reactions when circulating glucose and insulin are high. Chlamydia trachomatis - ANSWER obligate intracellular gram-negative bactria Chlamydia transmission - ANSWER Chlamydia transmission Infected secretions vaginal delivery genitals to eyes (towels) Chlamydia symptom timeline - ANSWER - mostly asymptomatic (especially men)

• 2 to 6 weeks after exposure (infectious during) Life-cycle of C. trachomatis - ANSWER Elementary bodies > into cell > reticulate bodies > release from cell Chlamydia men symptoms - ANSWER more asymptomatic than females
• urethritis
• mucoid/watery discharge
• dysuria
• maybe conjuctivitis

• rare complication Chlamydia women symptoms - ANSWER - cervicitis
• urethritis
• non specefic symptoms
• confused with UTI (Dysuria, urine frequency)
• maybe conjunctivitis
• Complication: Pelvic Inflammatory disease (15%) Neisseria gonorrhoeae - ANSWER gram negative intracellular diplococcus Gonorrhea transmission - ANSWER infected secretions vaginal delivery Gonorrhea symptom timeline - ANSWER - Men mostly symptomatic
• symptoms after 5-14 days of infection (infectious during) Gonorrhea men symptoms - ANSWER - urethritis
• purulent discharge (vs chlamydia)
• rare complication Gonorrhea women symptoms - ANSWER - cervicitis or urethritis
• Complications: Pelvic Inflammatory disease or perihepatitis HSV - ANSWER double stranded, enveloped DNA virus

Herpes transmission - ANSWER direct contact of mucosa or broken skin shedding virus mostly when asymptomatic women acquire more infection Herpes symptom timeline - ANSWER 2-12 days after initial infection herpes primary symptoms - ANSWER bilateral painful genital lesions (last 10-21 days) papules > vesicles > pustules fever/mialgia pain, itching, dysuria,discharge Most commonly reported STI - ANSWER Chlamydia, followed by Gonorrhea Dyspnea - ANSWER Uncomfortable breathing and feeling of not getting enough air Orthopnea - ANSWER experienced when an individual is in the horizontal position and experiences dyspnea Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea - ANSWER see in individuals with left ventricular failure who wake up at night gasping for air. Cheyne-Stokes Respirations - ANSWER alternating periods of deep and shallow breathing Bronchiolitis Obliterans - ANSWER a fibrotic process that occludes the airways and scars the lungs Empyema - ANSWER pus in the pleural space due to respiratory infection

Obstructive Pulmonary Disease - ANSWER an obstruction of the airways that gets worse during expiration Emphysema - ANSWER enlargement and destruction of alveolar walls with loss of elasticity and trapping of air Referred Pain - ANSWER present in an area removed or distant from its point of origin Extracerebral disorders - ANSWER Include neoplasms, closed-head trauma with subsequent bleeding, and subdural accumulation of pus Intracerebral Disorders - ANSWER Manifest as masses, these disorders include bleeding, infarcts, emboli, and tumors Name the causes of Intrinsic (Nonatopic) Asthma - ANSWER 1. Respiratory Infections- epithelial damage, IgE production

2. Exercise, hyperventilation, cold air- loss of heat and water may cause bronchospasm
3. Inhaled Irritants- inflammation, vagal reflex
4. Aspirin and other NSAIDS- abnormal arachidonic acid metabolism What are the characteristics of infectious enterocolitis? - ANSWER 1. Exudate to dilute toxins
5. Hypermotility that may cause vomiting
6. Decreased intestinal function- food not absorbed; water absorbed into bowel by osmosis resulting in osmotic (explosive) diarrhea Mechanical Obstruction - ANSWER 1. Severe, colicky pain
7. Borborygmus
8. Audible, high-pitched peristalsis; peristaltic rushes
9. Awareness of intestinal movements

What is celiac disease? - ANSWER An immune mediated disorder triggered by ingestion of gluten-containing grains Adenomatous Polyps - ANSWER 1. Most common neoplasm of the intestine

2. Benign neoplasms coming from the intestinal epithelium
3. Most cases of colorectal cancer begin as adenomatous colonic polyps True statements about Myasthenia Gravis - ANSWER 1. Autoimmune disease

• gradual destruction of acetylcholine receptors
• associated with thymus tumor or hyperplasia

2. Gradual development of weakness

• from proximal to distal prtions of the body

3. Myasthenia crisis: respiration compromised Basal Ganglia Dysfunction can increase patterned movement - ANSWER 1. hyperkinesia

• choreiform: jerky movements
• athetoid: continuous twisting movements
• ballismus: violent flinging movements
• dystonia: rigidity Signs and symptoms of Parkinson's disease - ANSWER 1. Tremor

2. Rigidity
3. Bradykinesia (slow movement)
4. Loss of postural reflexes
5. Autonomic system dysfunction
6. Dementia

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) - ANSWER 1. Damages both upper and lower motor neurons

2. UMN damage - > weakness, loss of motor control

• loss of control over spinal reflexes causing stiffness and spasticity

3. LMN damage

• irritation-> fasciculations
• Decreased neuron firing - > weakness, denervation atrophy, hyporeflexia Traumatic Brain Injury - ANSWER Primary Injuries- due to impact
• Microscopic damage: concussion, diffuse axonal injury Secondary Injury- due to:
• Hemorrhage
• Ischemia
• Infection
• Increased intracranial pressure Bacterial Meningitis - ANSWER S/S- fever and chills, headache stiff neck and back, abdominal and extremity pains, nausea and vomiting. Caused by Strep pnsumoniae, H. influenza or Neisseria meninitidis Viral Meningitis - ANSWER Less severe course than bacterial Usually caused by coxsackle B and echovirus Dementias - ANSWER Parkinsonian Alzheimer's Frontotemporal Lewey Body

Papule - ANSWER Small, solid raised lesion, less than 0.5 cm diameter Acne or mole Macule - ANSWER flat, discolored lesion, usually less than 1 cm in diameter freckle Scale - ANSWER flaking or dry patch made up of excess dead epidermal cells Plaque - ANSWER Solid raised lesion that is usually greater than 0.5 cm in diameter Psoriatic Lesion Wheal - ANSWER Smooth, slightly elevated swollen area that is redder or paler than the surrounding skin, usually accompanied by itching Vesicle - ANSWER Circumscribed elevation of skin containing fluid that is less than 0.5cm in diameter Herpatic lesion Essentially small blister Pustule - ANSWER Small circumscribed elevation of skin containing pus Acne Bulla - ANSWER Large vesicle that is more than 0.5 cm in diameter Burn or SJS Large vesicle = large blister Atopic Triad - ANSWER 1. Asthma

2. Hayfever
3. Atopic dermatitis Varicella site of viral latency - ANSWER Sensory dorsal root ganglion HSV 1 site of viral latency - ANSWER Trigeminal Nerve Ganglion

Basal Cell Carcinoma - ANSWER Most common kind of skin CA Mutation of TP53 Gene Small shiny raised bump red Usually doesn't spread and only in UV exposed skin ♣ Depressed centers ♣ Early pearly sheen ♣ Rolled borders ♣ Metastatic spread is rare Squamous Cell Carcinoma - ANSWER Second most common type of skin CA Can spread Small firm red bump that ulcerates and crusts with occasional bleeding Can be in UV or NONUV exposed areas Melanoma - ANSWER Most aggressive skin CA and usually fatal Dark/black mole that changes in size/color/shape/texture Melanocytes in stratum basaly layer of epidermis Impetigo's two most causes - ANSWER 1. Coagulase-positive Staphylococcus

2. Streptococcous pyrogenes First-degree (superficial) burns - ANSWER only the epidermis, or outer layer of skin. The burn site is red, painful, dry, and with no blisters. Mild sunburn is an example. Long-term tissue damage is rare and usually consists of an increase or decrease in the skin color. Second-degree (partial thickness) burns - ANSWER Second-degree burns involve the epidermis and part of the dermis layer of skin. The burn site appears red, blistered, and may be swollen and painful.

Third-degree (full thickness) burns - ANSWER Third-degree burns destroy the epidermis and dermis and may go into the subcutaneous tissue. The burn site may appear white or charred Pemphigus - ANSWER a rare chronic blister forming disease of the skin and oral mucous membranes - and is an auto-immune disease caused by circulating IgG autoantibodies Lyme Disease - ANSWER is a multisystem inflammatory disease caused by Borrelia and transmitted by tick bite Keratoacanthoma - ANSWER a benign self limiting tumor that is produced from hair follicles, occurs on sun exposed surfaces, develops in the ages of 60-65 years Actinic Keratosis - ANSWER a premalignant lesion found on skin surfaces that have been exposed to ultra violet radiation of the sun and can progress to squamous cell carcinoma Rubella - ANSWER also known as German or 3 day measles a common communicable disease of children and young adults caused by RNA virus that enters the bloodstream through the respiratory tract Thrush - ANSWER in the presence of Candida in the mucous membranes of the mouth of infants and less frequently in adults Rubeola - ANSWER also known as red measles and is highly contagious and an acute viral disease of children transmitted by direct contact with droplets from infected persons Chickenpox Varicella - ANSWER a highly contagious disease of early childhood and is primarily spread by droplet transmission from an infected person to others Lead poisoning affects the nervous system by A. Interfering with the function of neurotransmitters

B. Inhibiting the production of myelin around nerves C. Increasing the resting membrane potential D. Altering the transport of potassium into the nerves - ANSWER A Water movement between the intracellular fluid (ICF) compartment and the extracellular fluid (ECF) compartment is primarily a function of: A. Osmotic Forces B. Plasma Oncotic Pressure C. Antidiuretic hormone D. Hydrostatic forces - ANSWER A Two thirds of the body's water is found in its a. Interstitial fluid spaces b. Vascular system c. Intracellular fluid compartments d. Intraocular fluids - ANSWER C A patient has a history of excessive use of magnesium-containing antacids and aluminum- containing antacids. What lab value does the healthcare professional correlate to this behavior? a. Magnesium 1.8 mg/dL b. Phosphate 1.9 mg/dL c. Sodium 149 mEq/L d. Potassium 2.5 mEq/L - ANSWER B A healthcare professional is caring for four patients. Which patient should the professional assess for hyperkalemia? a. Hyperparathyroidism b. Vomiting

c. Renal failure d. Hyperaldosteronism - ANSWER C A healthcare professional is caring for four patients. Which patient should the professional assess for hypermagnesemia as a priority? a. Hepatitis b. Renal failure c. Trauma to the hypothalamus d. Pancreatitis - ANSWER B Cystic fibrosis is caused by what type of gene? a. X-linked dominant b. X-linked recessive c. Autosomal dominant d. Autosomal recessive - ANSWER D People diagnosed with neurofibromatosis have varying degrees of the condition because of which genetic principle? a. Penetrance b. Expressivity c. Dominance d. Recessiveness - ANSWER B What is the most common cause of Down syndrome? a. Paternal nondisjunction b. Maternal translocations c. Maternal nondisjunction d. Paternal translocation - ANSWER C What does activation of the classical pathway begin with? a. Viruses

b. Antigen-antibody complexes c. Mast cells d. Macrophages - ANSWER B. Activation of the classical pathway begins only with the activation of protein C1 and is preceded by the formation of a complex between an antigen and an antibody to form an antigen-antibody complex (immune complex). Infection with a virus can lead to the start of the inflammatory process, but is not the specific activation factor. Mast cells release the contents of their granules to initiate synthesis of other mediators of inflammation among other actions. Macrophages are one cell type involved in phagocytosis. In the coagulation (clotting) cascade, the intrinsic and the extrinsic pathways converge at which factor? a. XII b. VII c. X d. V - ANSWER C. The coagulation cascade consists of the extrinsic and intrinsic pathways that converge only at factor X. What effect does the process of histamine binding to the histamine-2 (H2) receptor have on inflammation? a. Inhibition b. Activation c. Acceleration d. Termination - ANSWER A. Binding histamine to the H2 receptor is generally antiinflammatory because it results in the suppression of leukocyte function. Binding to H2 receptors does not cause activation, acceleration, or termination of the inflammatory process. Frequently when H1 and H2 receptors are located on the same cells, they act in what fashion? a. Synergistically b. Additively c. Antagonistically