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AGPCNP Board 2024 Exam Review Questions with 100% Correct Answers
Typology: Exams
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Lesions often begin as small, firm, dome-shaped growths on genitals or other parts of the body (armpits, neck, face, hands); have a surface that feels smooth, waxy, or pearly; are flesh- colored or pink; have a dimple in the center (may be filled with a thick, white substance that is cheesy or waxy); and are painless but itch. Scratching or picking can spread the virus. - Answer>>Molluscum contagiosum Thayer-Martin Selective Agar is an enriched medium for the selective isolation of - Answer>>Neisseria species. N. gonorrhoeae Trauma to Kiesselbach's plexus will result in an - Answer>>anterior nosebleed The diagnostic or gold-standard test for sickle cell anemia - Answer>>glucose- 6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) anemia the test is positive in De Quervain's tenosynovitis - Answer>>Finkelstein's test—positive in De Quervain's tenosynovitis Anterior drawer maneuver and Lachman maneuvers are positive when: - Answer>>anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) of the knee is damaged positive in meniscus injuries of the knee - Answer>>McMurray's sign
neovascularization, cotton wool spots, and microaneurysms are suggestive off - Answer>>diabetic retinopathy atrioventricular [AV] nicking, silver and/or copper wire arterioles on fundal exam are suggestive of - Answer>>hypertensive retinopathy A S4 heart sound is auscultated in an elderly patients, suggesting:
difficulty in maintaining a clear focus at a new distance due to lessening of flexibility of the crystalline lens and weakening of ciliary muscles - common after 40 years - Answer>>presbyopia raised, wedge-shaped growth of noncancerous tissue over the conjunctiva exacerbated by sun, wind and dust - Answer>>pterygium acute inflammatory process affecting the eyelid usually caused by staphylococcus aureus - Answer>>hordeolum (stye) hordeolum (stye) is most commonly caused by what organism - Answer>>staphylococcus aureus hordeolum is commonly managed with: - Answer>>1. warm compresses
organism most commonly responsible for blepharitis - Answer>>staphylococcus most common inflammatory eye disorder with itching, burning, increases tearing, blurred vision (possible), sensation of foreign body in the eye which may be caused by allergies, chemical irritation, bacterial, viral or gonococcal/chlamydial infection - Answer>>conjunctivitis (pink-eye) results from an increased intraocular pressure - Answer>>glaucoma acute increase in IOP, opthalmic emergency - Answer>>closed- angle glaucoma a patient who presents with extreme eye pain, blurred vision, pupils that are dilated or fixed and HALOS AROUND LIGHTS should be: - Answer>>referred to opthlamology for emergent suspicion of closed-angel glaucoma screening for glaucoma should begin at age - Answer>> 40 results from clouding and opacification of the normally clear lens of the eye - Answer>>cataracts highest cause of treatable blindness is: - Answer>>cataracts most common surgical procedure in patients 65+ - Answer>>cataract surgery a patient presents with painless, clouded or dim vision with halos around lights, no red reflex and DIPLOPIA IN A SINGLE EYE would be suspected of - Answer>>cataract
floaters in the eye is the most concerning symptom for: - Answer>>retinal detachment the most important diagnostic indicator in the evaluation of headache is: - Answer>>chronology patient describes a "vise-like", generalized headache that is more intense about his neck and back of head. The most probable diagnosis is: - Answer>>tension headache duration of tension headaches are usually: - Answer>>no more than a few hours management of tension headache include: - Answer>>OTC analgesics and relaxation the pathophysiology of most migraines is: - Answer>>a result of dilation and excessive pulsation of the external carotid artery migraine's typically last: - Answer>>at least 2 but no more than 72 hours migraines without aura are classified as: - Answer>>common migraine migraines with aura are classified as: - Answer>>classic migraine migraine headaches, which affect females > males can commonly be triggered by this inciting event in women: - Answer>>hormonal changes seen with onset of the menstrual cycle
patient reports a unilateral throbbing headache that occurs episodically. she states reports "seeing stars" and some weakness. she has no history of migraines. the appropriate first step is: - Answer>>all patients with new migraines must be worked up to R/O organic causes of disease. the provider should order: CBC CMP VDRL ESR CT scan the priority management of chronic migraine includes: - Answer>>1. avoidance of triggers
for which two headache types is sumitriptan indicated: - Answer>>cluster and migraine patient presents with hx of diagnosed parkinson's and onset of tremors that had previously been controlled. which medication should the NP add: - Answer>>an anticholinergic to help alleviate the tremor, e.g. trihexyphenidyl (Artane) on physical exam a patient who has a positive glabellar reflex when repetitively tapped over the bridge of the nose is illiciting what sign? name the sign and the commonly associated clinical condition - Answer>>myerson's sign (blinks in response to tap on the nose) which is suggestive of parkinsons the classic triad of parkinson's is represented by what clinical symptoms: - Answer>>tremor rigidity bradykinesia contraction of the facial muscles when the facial nerve (VII) is tapped briskly in front of the ear is termed: what does the condition result from - Answer>>chvostek's sign usually resulting from low calcium the group with the highest prevalence of cluster headaches are: - Answer>>middle-aged men name the two most common types of dementia in order of prevalence: - Answer>>Alzheimer's disease Vascular Dementia first line agents for migraine prophylaxis include: - Answer>>propranolol (Inderal) amitriptyline (Elavil)
sodium valproate topiramate the gag reflex is a function of which cranial nerve - Answer>>X - the vagus nerve. the gag reflex evaluates nasopharyngeal sensation acute onset of headaches behind one eye with eye pain, autonomic s/sx with hazy cornea or partial dilation of the affected pupil: - Answer>>acute/narrow angle-close glaucoma requiring referral to ED a patient who demonstrates resistance to a flex hip (or back pain) that is attempted to be straightened while keeping the hip flexed shows: - Answer>>positive kernig's sign indicative of inflammation on lumbar nerve roots which may indicate menigeal irritation patient reflexes the hips and knee to relieve pressure when the provider flexes the patients head toward the chest - Answer>>positive brudzinski's sign indicative of menigeal irritation two physical exam tests for meningeal irritation are: - Answer>>kernig's sign and brudzinski's sign a patient has been diagnosed with chronic migraine and is being started on sumitriptan for abortive therapy. Counseling should include: - Answer>>R/O hx of cardiovascular disease, HPTN, CVA, TIA
SUPERVISE 1st dose if patient has any risk factor for cardiovascular disease, diabetics, obesity, males>40 etc. as there is increased risk of MI Name the V cranial nerves and its major divisions: - Answer>>the trigeminal nerve has three branches:
a patient presents with a bilateral headaches which feels "band- like head pain". The most likely diagnosis is: - Answer>>muscle tension headache complications of metformin include: - Answer>>lactic acidosis renal dysfunction, patients with renal disease and alcoholics are at increased risk metabolic syndrome is defined as: - Answer>>elevated BP + waist circumference 35:40 F:M FPG > 100 Triglycerides > 150 HDL < 40M or < 50F a diabetic patient is hypoglycemic is the morning but not during the not. the provider recognizes this as _______ and makes what adjustment to the insulin regimen - Answer>>dawn phenomenon, increase the coverage in the evening who is recommended to receive thyroid screening and at what age - Answer>>women should begin screening at age of 50 the primary pathology of addison's disease is a lack of: - Answer>>cortisol and aldosterone by the adrenal gland a patient with a TSH > 5.0 mU/L with normal T3 and T4 levels would be classified as: - Answer>>subclinical hypothyroidism the initial lab screening for hypothyroidism would show: - Answer>>High TSH > 5 with low T4 and T the gold standard for dx confirmation of hypothyroidism is: - Answer>>order a TPO, thyroid peroxidase antibody which confirms hasimoto's hypothyroidism
the appropriate next step following diagnosis of hyperthyroidism is: - Answer>>referral to an endocrinologist koilonychia is the clinical term for? What condition is it often associated with? - Answer>>spoon shaped nails that is often seen in patients with iron deficient anemia most prevalence gyn cancer - Answer>>uterine second most prevalence gyn cancer - Answer>>ovarian most prevalent cancer in females - Answer>>breast highest morality cancer in females - Answer>>lung highest overall mortality from cancer related to - Answer>>lung most prevalent cancer in men - Answer>>prostate most prevalent cancer overall (males and females) - Answer>>skin 1st line TX for AOM is: - Answer>>Amoxicillin 500mg PO BID X 7 days first line management of acne includes: - Answer>>non- pharmacologic therapies:
then Retina A then combination antibiotics + erythromycin (Benzamycin) when prescribing retina A the NP councils on the risk of: - Answer>>- increase risk of sunburn
treatment for psoriasis may include: - Answer>>- topicals scalp - tar/salicyclic acid shampoo) body - betamethasone
What prescription is given for acute gout outbreak: - Answer>>indomethacin (Indocin) 50mg TID PRN and colchicine Regarding colchicine dosing for gout the NP tells the patient: - Answer>>take 1 pill PO every 1-2 hours until pain is relieved or adverse GI effects occur Herbals that increase the risk of bleeding and should be stopped 2 days prior to surgery include: - Answer>>gingko garlic ginseng feverfew fish oils theophylline is used as a bronchodilator that interacts with many antibiotics including: - Answer>>clarithromycin carbamazepine ciprofloxacin which NSAID is appropriate for acute gout attack: - Answer>>indomethancin (Indocin) Who is the founder of the NP movement - Answer>>Loretta Ford, PdD, RN, FAAN Bactrim may not be prescribed for patients with which enzyme deficiency - Answer>>G6PD Possible side effects from nifedipine include: - Answer>>hypotension peripheral edema MI CHF
long-term chronic skin disorder that is associated with atrophy - commonly seen in skin folds - Answer>>atopic dermatitis (Ecezma) The patient presents with a common, painful, acute bacterial infection of the hair follicle on the eyelid. It is a focal infection (usually staphylococcal) - Answer>>Hordeolum patients on atypical antipsychotics like zyprexa should be monitored for: - Answer>>typical antipsychotics commonly gain weight and are at risk for obesity, hyperglycemia, and type 2 diabetes. Zyprexa will increase lipids (cholesterol, low-density lipoprotein [LDL], and triglycerides). Lachman maneuver - Answer>>is used to test the stability of the knee The classic triad of symptoms of Méniére's disease is - Answer>>episodic vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss (low frequency). rare type of cancer involving the skin of the nipple and, usually, the areola. - Answer>>Paget's disease of the breast A female patient presents with symptoms of foul-smelling vaginal discharge, burning and soreness of the vulva. On exam the cervix has a strawberry appearance. The NP suspects: - Answer>>Trichomonas infections Diagnosed Trichomonas infections should be treated with: - Answer>>A single dose of metronidazole is effective treatment in most cases
If Trichomonas is suspected, the NP may confirm by performing what in-house test: - Answer>>Wet prep microscopic examination should reveal highly motile cells, slightly larger than leukocytes A patient who was treated for syphilis with 2.4 penicillin G IM returns to the clinic 24 hours after therapy. Signs and symptoms are headache, myalgias, rigors, sweating, hypotension, and worsening of rash (if present). The NP suspects: - Answer>> Patient presents with corners of the mouth are macerated with fissures and painful reddened skin. Reports the use of dentures. The NP suspects: - Answer>>Cheilosis or angular cheilosis (perleche) is an acute or chronic inflammation of the labial mucosa and adjacent skin due to excessive moisture and/or salivation. Virchow's node (or signal node) is a lymph node in the: - Answer>>left supraclavicular fossa (the area above the left clavicle). The finding of a enlarged, hard node in the left suprclavicular fossa (Virchow's node) is referred to as_________ What is this highly suggestive of: - Answer>>Troisier's sign) has long been regarded as strongly indicative of the presence of cancer in the abdomen, specifically gastric cancer, that has spread through the lymph vessels. the rash characteristic of Lyme disease, - Answer>>Erythema migrans is the rash characteristic of Lyme disease, which appears usually 7 to 10 days after a tick bite. The rash appears either as a single expanding red patch or a central spot surrounded by clear
skin that is in turn ringed by an expanded red rash (bull's eye, target-like). Valgus stress is: - Answer>>away from the body ValGus = G = Go Away Varus Stress is: - Answer>>toward the body VaRus = Return = toward The NP performs deep palpation on the left lower abdominal quandrant. Upon release the patient indicates pain is felt in the right lower quadrant pain intensified by left lower quadrant. This is known as ________________ and is concerning for what differentials - Answer>>Rovsing sign; associated with peritoneal irritation and appendicitis. Diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis includes three of four Amsel criteria:. - Answer>>(1) white, thick adherent discharge; (2) pH greater than 4.5; (3) positive whiff test (amine odor mixed with 10% potassium hydroxide [KOH]); (4) clue cells greater than 20% on a wet mount (epithelial cells dotted with large numbers of bacteria that obscure cell borders) A patient states that he wants to try herbal medicine for treating an enlarged prostate. The NP advises the patient that some men have used: - Answer>>Saw palmetto has been used by millions of men to ease benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) symptoms and is often recommended as an alternative to medication
three factors that put the patient at risk for eczema are - Answer>>a family history of eczema, a personal history of allergic rhinitis, and a history of asthma Inadvertently giving a hispanic patient a look the may be perceived as the "evil eye" to a hispanic patient - Answer>>mal de ojo Reportable conditions to Department of public health include: - Answer>>gonorrhea chlamydia syphilis HIV TB suspicion of abuse must be reported for: - Answer>>children and elder's BUT NOT suspected domestic (partner) abuse collaborative practice includes: - Answer>>- true partnership where all players have: desire power share common goals recognize and accept SEPARATE areas of responsibility and activity hospice requires: - Answer>>- a death diagnosis with survival less than six months with no additional treatment hospice provides: - Answer>>- nothing but comfort measures, so when the patient can no longer eat you DO NOT feed them Medicare DOES NOT REIMBURSEMENT FOR - Answer>>- Regular physical exams
duty to do no harm - Answer>>nonmaleficense The NP program was begun: - Answer>>as a pediatric NP program by Dr. Loretta Ford and Dr. Henry Silver the MOA of estrogen in contraception is: - Answer>>prevention of ovulation MOS of progesterone is contraception is: - Answer>>thickens cervical mucus in an effort to keep sperm out most common reasons for prescribing oral contraceptives - other than pregnancy prevention include: - Answer>>- decreased menstrual cramps
naegel's rule gives you? - Answer>>estimated delivery date calculated as 1 year - 3 months (9 months) + 7 days from the date of LMP began (1st day of cycle) A raised area at the junction of an artery and vein on fundoscopic exam is diagnosed as ____________________ and suggest _____________________ - Answer>>AV nicking Hypertension on fundoscopic exam the cup is noted to be > than 1/2 the size of the optic disk suggesting: - Answer>>glaucoma tonometry screening is done to test for: - Answer>>increased IOP associated with glaucoma tonometry screening should be done for everyone by age: - Answer>> 40 in patients who present with "halos around lights" in their vision the major presentation that suggests cataract v. closed-angle (acute) glaucoma is: - Answer>>PAIN will be present in closed- angle glaucoma while cataract is painless absences of a red reflex on exam is indicative of: - Answer>>cataract patient with "halos around lights", no pain and diplopia (double vision) in a single eye is suggestive of: - Answer>>cataract most common cause of blindness - Answer>>cataract most common surgical procedures in patients > 65 - Answer>>cataract
photopsia, especially in the peripheral vision is suggestive of: - Answer>>photopsia (flashes of light) is highly suggestive of retinal detachment steptococcus pneumoniae is the most common pathogen associated with what adult diseases: - Answer>>- otitis media
distinguishing factors for bacterial v. viral pharyngitis include: - Answer>>- fever over 38
H.pylori eriadication is done with: - Answer>>2 ABX + PPI MOC = metronidazole + omeprazole + clarithromycin OR AOC = amoxicillin + omeprazole + clarithrymycin A common symptoms distinguishing IBS from Diverticulitis is: - Answer>>Diverticulitis tends to present with localized LLQ tenderness to palpation these three physical test findings are associated with appendicitis:
ethambutol ethambutol requires monitoring patients for these 2 complications: