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AHIMA CCA Exam 1 With Complete Solutions Latest Update, Exams of Nursing

AHIMA CCA Exam 1 With Complete Solutions Latest Update

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2023/2024

Available from 08/31/2024

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AHIMA CCA: Exam 1 With Complete

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A system that provides alerts and reminders to clinicians is a(n): a. Clinical decision support system b. Electronic data interchange c. Point of care charting system d. Knowledge database - correct answers Correct Answer: A Clinical decision support includes providing documentation of clinical findings and procedures, active reminders about medication administration, suggestions for prescribing less expensive but equally effective drugs, protocols for certain health maintenance procedures, alerts that a duplicate lab test is being ordered, and countless other decision-making aids for all stakeholders in the care process (Johns 2011, 138). What does an audit trail check for? a. Unauthorized access to a system

b. Loss of data c. Presence of a virus d. Successful completion of a backup - correct answers Correct Answer: A Audit trails can provide tracking information such as who accessed which records and for what purpose (Johns 2011, 403). A hospital HIM department wants to purchase an electronic system that records the location of health records removed from the filing system and documents the date of their return to the HIM department. Which of the following electronic systems would fulfill this purpose? a. Chart deficiency system b. Chart tracking system c. Chart abstracting system

d. Chart encoder - correct answers Correct Answer: B With an automated tracking system, it is easy to track how many records are charged out of the system, their location, and whether they have been returned on the due dates indicated (Johns 2011, 402). Ensuring the continuity of future care by providing information to the patient's attending physician, referring physician, and any consulting physicians is a function of the: a. Discharge summary b. Autopsy report c. Incident report d. Consent to treatment - correct answers Correct Answer: A The discharge summary is a concise account of the patient's illness, course of treatment, response to treatment, and condition at the time the patient is discharged (Johns 2011, 78).

CMS developed medically unlikely edits (MUEs) to prevent providers from billing units of services greater than the norm would indicate. These MUEs were implemented on January 1, 2007, and are applied to which code set? a. Diagnosis-related groups b. HCPCS/CPT codes c. ICD-9-CM diagnosis and procedure codes d. Resource utilization groups - correct answers Correct Answer: B CMS developed MUEs to prevent providers from billing units in excess and receiving inappropriate payments. This new editing was the result of the outpatient prospective payment system which pays providers passed on the HCPCS/CPT code and units. Payment is directly related to units for specified HCPCS/CPT codes assigned to an ambulatory payment classification (CMS 2012b). What is the best reference tool to determine how CPT codes should be assigned?

a. Local coverage determination from Medicare b. American Medical Association's CPT Assistant newsletter c. American Hospital Association's Coding Clinic d. CMS website - correct answers Correct Answer: B CPT Assistant provides additional CPT coding guidance on how to assign a CPT code by providing intent on the use of the code and explanation of parenthetical instructions. The American Medical Association publishes the guidance monthly (AMA 2012b). A software interface is a: a. Device to enter data b. Protocol for describing data c. Program to exchange data d. Standard vocabulary - correct answers Correct Answer: C

A software interface is a computer program that allows different applications to communicate and exchange data (Johns 2011, 137). What did the Centers of Medicare and Medicaid Services develop to promote national correct coding methodologies and to control improper coding leading to inappropriate payment in Part B claims? a. Outpatient Perspective Payment System (OPPS) b. National Correct Coding Initiative (NCCI) c. Ambulatory Payment Classifications (APCs) d. Comprehensive Outpatient Rehab Facilities (CORFs) - correct answers Correct Answer: B CMS developed the NCCI to control improper coding practices leading to inappropriate payments in Part B claims (CMS 2012a). Each year the OIG develops a work plan that details areas of compliance it will be investigating for that year. What is

the expectation of the hospital in relation to the OIG work plan? a. Hospitals are required to follow the same work plan and deploy audits based on that work plan. b. Hospitals should plan their compliance and auditing projects around the OIG work plan to ensure they are in compliance with the target areas in the plan. c. Hospitals must not develop their audits based on the OIG work plan; rather, they must develop their own and look for high-risk areas that need improvement. d. Hospitals must use the plan developed by their state hospital association that is specific to state laws and compliance activities. - correct answers Correct Answer: B Hospitals are encouraged but not required to follow the same work plan as the OIG. Hospitals should review the plan carefully and plan their compliance program around the target areas (Johns 2011, 275). Corporate compliance programs were released by the OIG for hospitals to develop and implement their own compliance programs. All of the following except _____ are basic elements of a corporate compliance program.

a. Designation of a Chief Compliance Officer b. Implementation of regular and effective education and training programs for all employees c. Medical staff appointee for documentation compliance d. The use of audits or other evaluation techniques to monitor compliance - correct answers Correct Answer: C Seven elements are required as part of the basic elements of a corporate compliance program and a medical staff appointee is not one of them (Johns 2011, 274). The electronic claim format (837I) replaces which paper billing form? a. CMS- b. CMS-1450 (UB-04) c. UB-

d. CMS-1400 - correct answers Correct Answer: B The electronic claim form (screen 837I) replaced the UB- 04 (CMS 1450) paper billing form (Johns 2011, 343). According to the Joint Commission Accreditation Standards, which document must be placed in the patient's record before a surgical procedure may be performed? a. Admission record b. Physician's order c. Report of history and physical examination d. Discharge summary - correct answers Correct Answer: C According to the Joint Commission, except in emergency situations, every surgical patient's chart must include a report of a complete history and physical conducted no more than seven days before the surgery is to be performed (Odom-Wesley et al. 2009, 150).

An outpatient clinic is reviewing the functionality of a computer system it is considering purchasing. Which of the following datasets should the clinic consult to ensure all the federally required data elements for Medicare and Medicaid outpatient clinical encounters are collected by the system? a. DEEDS b. EMEDS c. UACDS d. UHDDS - correct answers Correct Answer: C Uniform Ambulatory Care Data Set (Odom-Wesley et al. 2009, 310). Whereas the focus of inpatient data collection is on the principal diagnosis, the focus of outpatient data collection is on: a. Reason for admission b. Reason for encounter

c. Discharge diagnosis d. Activities of daily living - correct answers Correct Answer: B The Uniform Ambulatory Care Data Set (UACDS) includes data elements specific to ambulatory care, such as the reason for the encounter with the healthcare provider (LaTour and Eichenwald Maki 2010, 166). How do accreditation organizations such as the Joint Commission use the health record? a. To serve as a source for case study information b. To determine whether the documentation supports the provider's claim for reimbursement c. To provide healthcare services d. To determine whether standards of care are being met

  • correct answers Correct Answer: D

Surveyors review the documentation of patient care services to determine whether the standards for care are being met (Johns 2011, 40). A coder needs to locate electronic health records for a patient across a health information exchange (HIE). What tool(s) should the coder use? a. Certification b. Identity-matching algorithm and record locator service c. Interoperability and certification d. Meaningful use - correct answers Correct Answer: B An HIE organization requires an identity-matching algorithm and record locator service (RLS). An identity- matching algorithm must be used by the HIE to identify any patient for whom data are to be exchanged. This algorithm uses sophisticated probability equations to identify patients. The RLS, then, is a process that seeks information about where a patient may have a health record available to the HIE organization (Johns 2011, 151).

All documentation entered in the medical record relating to the patient's diagnosis and treatment is considered this type of data: a. Clinical b. Identification c. Secondary d. Financial - correct answers Correct Answer: A Clinical information is data related to the patient's diagnosis or treatment in a healthcare facility (Odom- Wesley et al. 2009, 55). What type of data is exemplified by the insured party's member identification number? a. Demographic data b. Clinical data c. Certification data

d. Financial data - correct answers Correct Answer: D Financial data include details about the patient's occupation, employer, and insurance coverage (Odom- Wesley et al. 2009, 42). What is the best reference tool for ICD-9-CM coding advice? a. AMA's CPT Assistant b. AHA's Coding Clinic for HCPCS c. AHA's Coding Clinic for ICD-9-CM d. National Correct Coding Initiative (NCCI) - correct answers Correct Answer: C AHA's Coding Clinic for ICD-9-CM is a quarterly publication of the Central Office on ICD-9-CM, which allows coders to submit a request for coding advice through the coding publication.

As recommended by AHIMA, HIM compliance policies and procedures should ensure all of the following except: a. Compensation for coders and consultants does not provide any financial incentive to code claims improperly b. The proper selection and sequencing of diagnoses codes c. Proper and timely documentation obtained prior to and after billing d. d The correct application of official coding rules and guidelines - correct answers Correct Answer: C Proper and timely documentation of all physician and other professional services must be obtained prior to billing. Facilities should not provide any financial incentive that may tempt a coder to code claims improperly such as upcoding to higher DRGs, which result in higher pay (Johns 20011, 275). What reimbursement system uses the Medicare fee schedule? a. APCs

b. MS-DRGs c. RBRVS d. RUG-III - correct answers Correct Answer: C The resource-based relative value scale (RBRVS) system was implemented by CMS in 1992 for physicians' services such as office visits covered under Medicare Part B. The system reimburses physicians according to a fee schedule based on predetermined values assigned to specific services (Johns 2011, 326). The CIA of security includes confidentiality, data integrity, and data _____. a. Accessibility b. Authentication c. Accuracy d. Availability - correct answers orrect Answer: D

Security measures not only provide for confidentiality, but data integrity and data availability—the CIA of security (Johns 2011, 184). Valley High, a skilled nursing facility, wants to become certified to take part in federal government reimbursement programs such as Medicare. What standards must the facility meet in order to become certified for these programs? a. Joint Commission Accreditation Standards b. Accreditation Association for Ambulatory Healthcare Standards c. Conditions of Participation d. Outcomes and Assessment Information Set - correct answers Correct Answer: C Participating organizations must follow the Medicare Conditions of Participation to receive federal funds from the Medicare program for services rendered (Johns 2011, 61).

What software will prompt the user through a variety of questions and choices based on the clinical terminology entered to assist the coder in selecting the most appropriate code? a. Logic-based encoder b. Automated code book c. Speech recognition d. Natural-language processing - correct answers Correct Answer: A Encoders come in two distinct categories: logic-based and automated codebook formats. A logic-based encoder prompts the user through a variety of questions and choices based on the clinical terminology entered. The coder selects the most accurate code for a service or condition (and any possible complications or comorbidities). An automated codebook provides screen views that resemble the actual format of the coding system (LaTour and Eichenwald Maki 2010, 269). Which of the following is not a function of the discharge summary?

a. Providing information about the patient's insurance coverage b. Ensuring the continuity of future care c. Providing information to support the activities of the medical staff review committee d. Providing concise information that can be used to answer information requests - correct answers Correct Answer: A The discharge summary provides an overview of the entire medical encounter to ensure the continuity of future care by providing information to the patient's attending physician, referring physician, and any consulting physicians, to provide information to support the activities of the medical staff review committee and to provide concise information that can be used to answer information requests from authorized individuals or entities (Johns 2011, 78). To comply with Joint Commission standards, the HIM director wants to ensure that history and physical examinations are documented in the patient's health record no later than 24 hours after admission. Which of the following would be the best way to ensure the completeness of health records?

a. Retrospectively review each patient's medical record to make sure history and physicals are present. b. Review each patient's medical record concurrently to make sure history and physicals are present and meet the accreditation standards. c. Establish a process to review medical records immediately on discharge. d. Do a review of records for all patients discharged in the previous 60 days. - correct answers Correct Answer: B The benefit of concurrent review is that content or authentication issues can be identified at the time of patient care and rectified in a timely manner (Johns 2011, 410). Which payment system was introduced in 1992 and replaced Medicare's customary, prevailing, and reasonable (CPR) payment system? a. Diagnosis-related groups b. Resource-based relative value scale system

c. Long-term care drugs d. Resource utilization groups - correct answers Correct Answer: B The RBRVS system is the federal government's payment system for physicians. It is a system of classifying health services based on the cost of furnishing physicians' services in different settings, the skill and training levels required to perform the services, and the time and risk involved (Casto and Layman 2011, 151). An individual designated as an inpatient coder may have access to an electronic medical record to code the record. Under what access security mechanism is the coder allowed access to the system? a. Role-based b. User-based c. Context-based d. Situation-based - correct answers Correct Answer: A

Role-based access control (RBAC) is a control system in which access decisions are based on the roles of individual users as part of an organization (Brodnik et al. 2009, 211). Which part of the problem-oriented medical record is used by many facilities that have not adopted the whole problem-oriented format? a. Problem list as an index b. Initial plan c. SOAP form of progress notes d. Database - correct answers Correct Answer: C The Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan (SOAP) notes are part of the problem-oriented medical records (POMR) approach most commonly used by physicians and other healthcare professionals. SOAP notes are intended to improve the quality and continuity of client services by enhancing communication among healthcare professionals (Odom-Wesley et al. 2009, 217).

Which of the following software applications would be used to aid in the coding function in a physician ' s office? a. Grouper b. Encoder c. Pricer d. Diagnosis calculator - correct answers Correct Answer: B An encoder is a computer software program designed to assist coders in assigning appropriate clinical codes and helps ensure accurate reporting of diagnoses and procedures (LaTour and Eichenwald Maki 2010, 318-319). Which of the following fails to meet the CMS classification of a hospital-acquired condition? a. Stage I pressure ulcers b. Falls and trauma c. Catheter-associated infection

d. Vascular catheter-associated infection - correct answers Correct Answer: A Stage I and II pressure ulcers are not considered hospital- acquired conditions but stage III and IV are (Johns 2011, 326). Several key principles require appropriate physician documentation to secure payment from the insurer. Which answer (listed here) fails to impact payment based on physician responsibility? a. The health record should be complete and legible. b. The rationale for ordering diagnostic and other ancillary services should be documented or easily inferred. c. Documenting the charges and services on the itemized bill. d. The patient's progress and response to treatment and any revision in the treatment plan and diagnoses should be documented. - correct answers Correct Answer: C

The documentation of the charges and itemized bill is not the responsibility of the physician (Smith 2012, 7-8). The technology commonly used for automated claims processing (sending bills directly to third-party payers) is: a. Optical character recognition b. Bar coding c. Neural networks d. Electronic data interchange - correct answers Correct Answer: D EDI allows the transfer (incoming and outgoing) of information directly from one computer to another by using flexible, standard formats (Johns 2011, 348). Two patients were hospitalized with bacterial pneumonia. One patient was hospitalized for three days and the other patient was hospitalized for 30 days. Both cases result in the same DRG with different lengths of stay. Which answer most closely describes how the hospital will be reimbursed?