AMCA Certification Exam 2024/2025 Entry with Answers, Exams of Nursing

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AMCA Certification Exam 2024/

Entry with Answers.

1. Implied Consent - Correct Ans: ✔✔A patient uses body language top indicate that they agree to receive a form of medical care
2. Respondeat Superior - Correct Ans: ✔✔"let the master answer"; physician is responsible for medical staff mistakes
3. Coordination of Benefits - Correct Ans: ✔✔C.O.B; Indicates how a policy well pay when more than one insurance plan is in effect
4. HITECH - Correct Ans: ✔✔Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act; Promotes the adoption and meaningful use of health information technology (EHR)
5. ONCHIT - Correct Ans: ✔✔Office of National Coordination for Health Technology
6. Core Function of EHR - Correct Ans: ✔✔Health Information and data elements
7. Core Function of EHR - Correct Ans: ✔✔Results management

8. Core Function of EHR - Correct Ans: ✔✔Order management
9. Core Function of EHR - Correct Ans: ✔✔Decision support
10. Core Function of EHR - Correct Ans: ✔✔Electronic communications and connectivity
11. Core Function of EHR - Correct Ans: ✔✔Patient support
12. Core Function of EHR - Correct Ans: ✔✔Administrative processes
13. Core Function of EHR - Correct Ans: ✔✔Reporting and population management
14. Electronic Medical Records (EMR) - Correct Ans: ✔✔Computerized records of one physicians encounter with a patient over time (intranet)
15. Electronic Health Records (EHR) - Correct Ans: ✔✔Reflects the data from ALL sources that have treated the individual (interoperable to other facilities)

16. Acute Care - Correct Ans: ✔✔Most often refers to a hospital, treats patients with urgent problems that cannot be handled
17. Personal Health Records (PHR) - Correct Ans: ✔✔Maintained and owned by the patient
18. Ambulatory Care - Correct Ans: ✔✔Refers to treatment without admission to hospital
19. Clinical Templates - Correct Ans: ✔✔Allows doctors to document patient encounters into an EHR on a structured form
20. RADT - Correct Ans: ✔✔Registration, admissions, discharge, transfer
21. Unique Patient Identifier (UPI) - Correct Ans: ✔✔Links all clinical observations, tests, procedures, villains, evaluations, and diagnoses to the patient
22. Clinical Vocabularies - Correct Ans: ✔✔Set a common definitions for medical terms that ease communication by decreasing uncertainty

23. SNOMED-CT - Correct Ans: ✔✔Clinical vocabulary designed to encompass all trends used in medicine
24. LOINC - Correct Ans: ✔✔Trends and codes used for electronic exchange of lab results and clinical observations
25. UMLS - Correct Ans: ✔✔Thesaurus database of medical terms
26. Fixed Appointment Scheduling - Correct Ans: ✔✔One patient is scheduled for a specific appointment time
27. Cluster Scheduling - Correct Ans: ✔✔Scheduling a group of patients cooking in for the fake tour of service should be scheduled around the same block of time
28. Double Booking - Correct Ans: ✔✔Two patients are scheduled to see the same physician at once
29. Wave Scheduling Method - Correct Ans: ✔✔Patients are scheduled for the first half of each hour, and each patient is seen in the order they arrive

30. Narrative Style Charting - Correct Ans: ✔✔Physicians dictate notes about patients care, then gave rise notes transcribed and placed in the patients chart
31. SOAP - Correct Ans: ✔✔Subjective, objective, assessment, plan
32. Subjective - Correct Ans: ✔✔Any information that the patient provides including chief complaint, or comments made during an examination
33. Objective - Correct Ans: ✔✔Information based on observations made by the physician or medical assistant (lab results, vital signs)
34. Assessment - Correct Ans: ✔✔A brief summary of the patients symptoms, and may often include a diagnosis as well as a list of other possible diagnoses
35. Plan - Correct Ans: ✔✔Consists of any information regarding the prescribed plan of action for a patient (prescriptions, instructions, referrals)

36. Problem Oriented Medical Record (POMR) - Correct Ans: ✔✔Charting that tracks patients problems during the time they are receiving medical care
37. Progress Notes - Correct Ans: ✔✔Daily chart notes which are used to record any information that Irish to the various stages of a patients condition
38. Flow Chart - Correct Ans: ✔✔A visual aid used to keep track of information over a period of time
39. Alphabetic Filing System - Correct Ans: ✔✔Information is filed according to the patients last name
40. Numeric Filing System - Correct Ans: ✔✔Information regarding each patient is stored used a number, instead of the last name
41. A Medical Record Contains... - Correct Ans: ✔✔Personal information, financial information, medical information and social information
42. Personal/Financial Information - Correct Ans: ✔✔Includes insurance data, marital status, next of kin, and other items collected for personal identification

43. Medical Information - Correct Ans: ✔✔Includes the chief complaint, family/patient medical history, results of exams, physical exam form, lab reports, etc.
44. Social Information - Correct Ans: ✔✔Includes items such as race, ethnicity, hobbies, lifestyle choices
45. Self-Insure - Correct Ans: ✔✔A method in which the employer pays directly for the employees medical bills
46. Medicare - Correct Ans: ✔✔Federal program for patients that are either over the age of 65, disabled, or considered end- stage renal disease patients
47. Medicaid - Correct Ans: ✔✔Federal program, state administered, for individuals/families that have very low income
48. TRICARE - Correct Ans: ✔✔A benefit program for members of the armed forces, as well as retired service personnel and they're families
49. CHAMPVA - Correct Ans: ✔✔A benefit program for veterans with service-related disabilities

50. Workers' Compensation - Correct Ans: ✔✔Coverage through employers for partners who suffer from job-related injuries
51. Person Who Owns Insurance Policy - Correct Ans: ✔✔Member, subscriber, insured, policyholder
52. Dependents - Correct Ans: ✔✔Family members who are chores tuner the members insurance policy
53. Premium - Correct Ans: ✔✔Monthly payment to the insurance company to receive coverage (usually deducted from paycheck)
54. Allowed Amount - Correct Ans: ✔✔The amount charged for service determined by the insurance company
55. Provider - Correct Ans: ✔✔Physician, specialist, or any person that provides medical care
56. Participating Provider (Preferred) - Correct Ans: ✔✔Physicians who agree to accept the allowed amount from the insurance company as a payment in full

57. Copayment - Correct Ans: ✔✔A fixed amount a patient may be required to pay at the time of their appointment
58. Coinsurance - Correct Ans: ✔✔A set percentage of charges that the patient pays in surfing to the guidelines set forth by their policy (80/20)
59. Deductible - Correct Ans: ✔✔A set amount the patient may be required to pay the provider before they can receive services
60. Beneficiary - Correct Ans: ✔✔A patient covered by a federal program, such as Medicare or Medicaid
61. Word Root - Correct Ans: ✔✔Foundation of a med term
62. Suffix - Correct Ans: ✔✔Med term ending
63. Prefix - Correct Ans: ✔✔Med term beginning
64. Combing Vowel - Correct Ans: ✔✔Links the root to the suffix or another root

65. Combing Form - Correct Ans: ✔✔Word root plus the appropriate combining vowel
66. Arthr/o - Correct Ans: ✔✔Joint
67. Bi/o - Correct Ans: ✔✔Life
68. Cardi/o - Correct Ans: ✔✔Heart
69. Carcin/o - Correct Ans: ✔✔Cancerous, cancer
70. Cephal/o - Correct Ans: ✔✔Head
71. Cerebr/o - Correct Ans: ✔✔Cerebrum
72. Cyt/o - Correct Ans: ✔✔Cell
73. Dent/l - Correct Ans: ✔✔Teeth
74. Derm/o - Correct Ans: ✔✔Skin
75. Electr/o - Correct Ans: ✔✔Electrical activity

76. Enter/o - Correct Ans: ✔✔Intestines
77. Fet/o - Correct Ans: ✔✔Fetus
78. Gastr/o - Correct Ans: ✔✔Stomach
79. Rhin/o - Correct Ans: ✔✔Nose
80. Sarc/o - Correct Ans: ✔✔Flesh
81. Thromb/o - Correct Ans: ✔✔Clotting
82. Ur/o - Correct Ans: ✔✔Urinary tract
83. • al - Correct Ans: ✔✔Pertaining to
84. • algia - Correct Ans: ✔✔Pain
85. • dynia - Correct Ans: ✔✔Pain

86. • ectomy - Correct Ans: ✔✔Excision, removal
87. • emia - Correct Ans: ✔✔Blood condition
88. • genic - Correct Ans: ✔✔Produced by, pertaining to producing
89. • globin - Correct Ans: ✔✔Protein
90. • itis - Correct Ans: ✔✔Inflammation
91. • oma - Correct Ans: ✔✔Tumor, mass swelling
92. • osis - Correct Ans: ✔✔Condition, usually abnormal
93. • pathy - Correct Ans: ✔✔Disease condition
94. • sis - Correct Ans: ✔✔State of; condition
95. Ante- - Correct Ans: ✔✔Before, in front of
96. Anti- - Correct Ans: ✔✔Against

97. Brady- - Correct Ans: ✔✔Slow
98. Dia- - Correct Ans: ✔✔Through, complete
99. End, Endo- - Correct Ans: ✔✔Within
100. Epi- - Correct Ans: ✔✔Above, upon
101. Hyper- - Correct Ans: ✔✔Excessive, above more than normal
102. Hypo- - Correct Ans: ✔✔Deficient, below, under less than normal
103. Peri- - Correct Ans: ✔✔Surrounding, around
104. Pre- - Correct Ans: ✔✔Before
105. Sub- - Correct Ans: ✔✔Under, below
106. • ectomy - Correct Ans: ✔✔Excision

107. • graphy - Correct Ans: ✔✔Progress of recording
108. • metry - Correct Ans: ✔✔Progress of measurement
109. • scopy - Correct Ans: ✔✔A visual examination
110. • stomy - Correct Ans: ✔✔A new opening
111. • tomy - Correct Ans: ✔✔Incision
112. • tripsy - Correct Ans: ✔✔Progress of crushingay
113. No ROM - Correct Ans: ✔✔Most synarthroses are immovable joints held together by fibrous tissue
114. Limited ROM - Correct Ans: ✔✔Amphiathroses are joints joined together by cartilage that is slightly moveable, such as vertebrae of the spine or the pubic bone
115. Full ROM - Correct Ans: ✔✔Diathroses are joints that have free movement. Ball-of-sockets (hip) and hinge joints (knees) are common diathroses joints, (synovial joints)

116. Synovial Joints - Correct Ans: ✔✔Free moving joints, are surrounded by joint capsules.
117. Bursae - Correct Ans: ✔✔Sacs of fluid that are located between the bones out the joint and the tensions that hold the muscle in place
118. Extension - Correct Ans: ✔✔To increase the angle of the joint
119. Flexion - Correct Ans: ✔✔To decrease the angle of the joint
120. Abduction - Correct Ans: ✔✔Movement away from the midline
121. Adduction - Correct Ans: ✔✔Movement towards the middle
122. Supination - Correct Ans: ✔✔Turning the palm or foot upward
123. Pronation - Correct Ans: ✔✔Turning the palm or foot downward

124. Dorsiflexion - Correct Ans: ✔✔Raising the foot, pulling the toes toward the shin
125. Plantarflexion - Correct Ans: ✔✔Lowering the foot, pointing the toes away from the shin
126. Eversion - Correct Ans: ✔✔Turning outward
127. Inversion - Correct Ans: ✔✔Turning inward
128. Protraction - Correct Ans: ✔✔Moving a part of the body forward
129. Retraction - Correct Ans: ✔✔Moving a part of the body backyard
130. Rotation - Correct Ans: ✔✔Revolving a bone around its axis
131. Fracture - Correct Ans: ✔✔A broken bone
132. Comminuted Fracture - Correct Ans: ✔✔The bone is crushed or shattered

133. Compression Fracture - Correct Ans: ✔✔The fractured area of bone collapse on itself
134. Colles Fracture - Correct Ans: ✔✔The break of the distal end of the radius at the epiphysis often occurs when the patient has steroid to break his or her fall
135. Complicated Fracture - Correct Ans: ✔✔The bone is broken and pierces an internal organ
136. Impacted Fracture - Correct Ans: ✔✔The bone is broken and the ends are driven into each other
137. Hairline Fracture - Correct Ans: ✔✔A minor fracture spotters as a thin line on x-ray and may not extend completely through the bone
138. Greenstack Fracture - Correct Ans: ✔✔The bone is partially bent and partially broken; this is a common fracture in children because their bones are still soft
139. Salter-Harris Fracture - Correct Ans: ✔✔A fracture of the epiphyseal plate in children

140. Pathologic Fracture - Correct Ans: ✔✔A fracture occurring spontaneously as a result of disease
141. Sprain - Correct Ans: ✔✔A traumatic injury to a joint involving soft tissue (muscles, ligaments, tendons)
142. Strain - Correct Ans: ✔✔A result of overuse or overstretching
143. Dislocation - Correct Ans: ✔✔When a bone comes completely out of place and subluxation is partially out of joint
144. ICD-10 Volume 1 - Correct Ans: ✔✔Tabular list
145. ICD-10 Volume 2 - Correct Ans: ✔✔Instruction module
146. ICD-10 Volume 3 - Correct Ans: ✔✔Alphabetic list
147. Main Term Code - Correct Ans: ✔✔Appears in boldface and is followed by the default code

148. Subterm Code - Correct Ans: ✔✔Found below the main term; may show the etiology of the disease
149. Non-essential Modifier - Correct Ans: ✔✔Are shown in parentheses on the same life as the subterm code
150. Eponym - Correct Ans: ✔✔Condition named for a person
151. Not Elsewhere Classifiable (NEC) - Correct Ans: ✔✔No code is specific for that condition
152. Not Otherwise Specified (NOS) - Correct Ans: ✔✔Used when a condition is not completely described in the medical record
153. Category - Correct Ans: ✔✔The character alphanumeric code that covers a single disease or related condition
154. Sub Category - Correct Ans: ✔✔ 4 or 5 character alphanumeric subdivision of a category
155. Inclusion Notes - Correct Ans: ✔✔Headed by the word "includes" and refine the content of the category appearing above them

156. Exclusion Notes - Correct Ans: ✔✔Headed with the word "excludes" and indicates conditions that are not classifiable to the preceding code
157. Exclusion 1 - Correct Ans: ✔✔Used when two conditions could not exist together
158. Exclusion 2 - Correct Ans: ✔✔"Not included here" but a patient could have both conditions at the same time
159. { } - Correct Ans: ✔✔Brackets enclose synonyms, alternative wording or explanatory phrases; identify manifestation codes
160. [ ] - Correct Ans: ✔✔Parentheses are used in both the index and tabular list to enclose supplementary wrote (non-essential modifiers)
161. : - Correct Ans: ✔✔Used in the tabular list after an incomplete term which needs one or more of the modifiers
162. Sequelae - Correct Ans: ✔✔Are conditions that remains after a patients acute illness or injury has ended (residual effects or late effects)

163. Providers - Correct Ans: ✔✔Physicians, hospitals, patients and other suppliers that furnish care or supplies to Medicare
164. Beneficiary Pays - Correct Ans: ✔✔Deductible, premium, co-insurance (20%) non-covered services
165. Medicare Pays - Correct Ans: ✔✔Covered services (80%)
166. CPT Part 1 - Correct Ans: ✔✔Main text
167. CPT Part 2 - Correct Ans: ✔✔Section of codes
168. CPT Part 3 - Correct Ans: ✔✔Appendices and an index
169. CPT Category I Codes - Correct Ans: ✔✔Have 5 digits; each code has a descriptor
170. Descriptor - Correct Ans: ✔✔A brief explanation of the procedure
171. CPT Category II Codes - Correct Ans: ✔✔Used to track performance measures for a goal such as weight loss

172. CPT Category III Codes - Correct Ans: ✔✔Temporary codes for emerging technology, services, and procedures
173. CPT Chapter 1 - Correct Ans: ✔✔Evaluation and Management; 99201- 99499
174. CPT Chapter 2 - Correct Ans: ✔✔Anesthesia; 00100- 01999
175. CPT Chapter 3 - Correct Ans: ✔✔Surgery; 10021- 69990
176. CPT Chapter 4 - Correct Ans: ✔✔Radiology; 70010- 79999
177. CPT Chapter 5 - Correct Ans: ✔✔Pathology and Laboratory; 80047 - 89398
178. CPT Chapter 6 - Correct Ans: ✔✔Medicine; 90281- 99607 · (Solid Circle) - Correct Ans: ✔✔A bullet indicates a new procedure code

179. < (2 triangles facing each other) - Correct Ans: ✔✔Facing triangles enclose new or revised text other than a codes descriptor

180. ^ (Triangle) - Correct Ans: ✔✔Indicates that the codes descriptor has changed
181. • (Plus Sign) - Correct Ans: ✔✔Indicates an add-on code
182. © (a bullet with a circle - Correct Ans: ✔✔Indicates that moderate dream is part of the procedure
183. ~ (a lightning bolt) - Correct Ans: ✔✔Used when vaccine chord that have been submitted to the FDA for approval and are awaiting approval
184. History of Present Illness - Correct Ans: ✔✔Description of its development from the first sign or symptom that the patient experienced to the present time
185. Past Medical History - Correct Ans: ✔✔Explains the patients experiences with illness, injuries, treatments, hospitalizations, operations, medications, allergies, immunization status, and diet

186. Family History - Correct Ans: ✔✔Reviews the medical history of the patients family
187. Social History - Correct Ans: ✔✔Patients age, marital status, employment
188. Health Information Exchange (HIE) - Correct Ans: ✔✔Allows providers to share information through organized networks
189. Certification Commission for Healthcare Information Technology (CCHIT) - Correct Ans: ✔✔A private sector organization that certifies electronic health record products
190. Simple Fracture - Correct Ans: ✔✔Bone does not rupture the skin
191. Compound Fracture - Correct Ans: ✔✔
192. 4 Elements of a History - Correct Ans: ✔✔Chief complaint, history levels, examination levels, medical decision making complexity levels
193. Straightforward - Correct Ans: ✔✔Minimal diagnosis, minimal risk, minimum complexity of data

194. Low - Correct Ans: ✔✔Limited diagnosis, limited/low risk to patient, limited data
195. Moderate - Correct Ans: ✔✔Multiple diagnoses, moderate risk to patient, moderate and complexity of data
196. High - Correct Ans: ✔✔Extensive diagnoses, high risk to patient, extensive amount and complexity of data
197. Truncated Coding - Correct Ans: ✔✔Using diagnosis codes that are not as specific as possible
198. Assumption Coding - Correct Ans: ✔✔Reporting items or services that are not actually documented
199. Upcoding - Correct Ans: ✔✔Using a procedure code that provides a higher reimbursement rate than the correct code
200. External Audits - Correct Ans: ✔✔Private payers or government agencies review selected records of a practice for compliance