AMCA Certification Test - Medical Assisting Study Guide - Set A, Exams of Medicine

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AMCA CERTIFICATION TEST -

MEDICAL ASSISTING STUDY GUIDE

- SET A LATEST UPDATED AND 100%

VERIFIED

1. Which of the following is considered a parasitic infection? A. Lyme disease B. Rabies C. Ringworm D. Malaria D. Malaria
2. Aspirin and acetaminophen are examples of: A. Analgesics and antipyretics B. Antitussives and decongestants C. Antihistamines and antiemetics D. Antidotes and antibiotics A. Analgesics and antipyretics
3. Demerol 75 mg, IM every 4 hours, as needed for severe pain, is what type of medication order? A. Single B. PRN C. Stat D. Routine B. PRN
4. This unit in the hospital is run by physicians and experts in the field of musculoskeletal disorders of bones, joints, ligaments and tendons, identify this department. A. Rheumatology B. Obstetrics C. Ophthalmology D. Oncology

A. Rheumatology

5. MSDS information includes: A. Table of chemical elements B. Product manufacturing conditions C. General and emergency information D. Information on competitor products C. General and emergency information
6. The physician prescribes a buccal medication. The medical assistant should instruct the patient to: A. Place the medication between the lower teeth and cheek B. Chew the medication and swallow it C. Place the medication under the tongue D. Dissolve the medication in water and drink it A. Place the medication between the lower teeth and cheek
7. Which of the following is the best specimen to test for levels of iron in the blood? A. The one collected in a tube that contains sodium citrate B. The one collected in a microcuvette C. The one collected in the tube that contains EDTA D. The one collected in a tube with no additive C. The one collected in the tube that contains EDTA
8. All pathogens are: A. Microorganisms that live in soil B. Microbes that can cause disease C. Communicable microorganisms D. Normal bacteria found on skin B. Microbes that can cause disease
9. Every prescription for a controlled substance requires the physicians signature and a ____________ number? A. FDA B. DEA C.EPA D.CDC B. DEA
10. When using a No. 10 envelope, where should the address be placed? A. 10 lines down from the top and 4 inches from the left edge of the envelope B. 14 lines down from the top and 2 inches from the left edge of the envelope C. 10 lines down from the top and 2 inches from the left edge of the envelope D. 14 lines down from the top and 4 inches from the left edge of the envelope

C. 10 lines down from the top and 2 inches from the left of the edge of the envelope

11. What drug prevents the action of another drug or chemical? A. Trade B. Narcotic C. Synergist D. Antagonist D. Antagonist
12. Co-insurance is calculated based on a: A. A capitation rate B. Percentage of charge C. A fixed charge for each visit D. Number of policy holders in the plan B. Percentage of charge
13. Muscles that act on the knee joint exhibit two actions: A. Adduction and lateral rotation B. Medical rotation and extension C. Adduction and Abduction D. Flexion and extension D. Flexion and extension
14. A structure that is composed of two or more tissue types is called a/an: A. System B. Organism C. Organ D. Cell C. Organ
15. Cellular respiration is a function of the: A. Cell membrane B. Mitochondria C. Golgi apparatus D. Nucleus B. Mitochondria
16. Somatic tremor is the result of: A. Muscle movement B. Loose sensors C. Unequal amounts of electrolytes D. Improper standardization of the instrument A. Muscle movement

17. The smallest structural unit of the nervous system is the: A. Spinal cord B. Neurofibrils C. Neuron D. Supine C. Neuron
18. A patient came into the doctor's office with chest pain and shortness of breath. which position is the best to help him breathe better? A. Lithotomy B. Prone C. Fowler's D. Supine C. Fowler's
19. The primary function of the nervous system is: A. To protect deep organs B. To cleanse the blood of pathogens C. To detect changes in the internal and external environment and respond appropriately D. To provide body support and levers for muscle action C. To detect changes in the internal and external environment and respond appropriately
20. Mr. Smith is suffering from an enlargement of the bones in the entire skull as well as in the hands and feet, in addition to thickening of the skin. Which of the following conditions is Mr. Smith suffering from? A. Addison's B. Cushing's C. Acromegaly D. Cretinism C. Acromegaly
21. The functional unit of the kidney is the: A. Nephron B. Ureter C. Urethra D. Bladder A. Nephron
22. Which of the following types of gloves can be decontaminated and reused if they show no signs of deterioration after use? A. Disposable B. Utility

C. Sterile D. Examination B. Utility

23. After obtaining an ECG tracing, a Medical Assistant would be expected to? A. Check the patient with a pulse oximeter to verify accuracy of the ECG tracing B. Evaluate the patient's medication list for cardiac altering drugs C. Instruct the patient on the tracing results and cardiac prognosis D. Observe the tracing for quality and decide if another tracing may be required D. Observe the tracing for quality and decide if another tracing may be required
24. There are two types of civil actions healthcare providers for injuries resulting from health care, The first one is lack of informed consent and the second one is: A. Violation of standard of care B. Trial and Post trial C. Violation of confidentiality D. Violation of continued care plan A. Violation of standard care
25. Dr. Jones and Dr. Brown decide to share a practice. Together, they share patients, expenses, profits and assets. Which type of medical practice is this? A. Group practice B. Clinic C. Partnership D. Sole proprietorship A. Group practice 26)What is the appropriate test used for heparin therapy? A. POCT B. APPT C. H&H D. SST B. APPT
26. A provider withdraws from the care of a patient without reasonable notice of discharge is considered: A. Abandonment B. Malpractice C. Negligence D. Slander A. Abandonment
27. Which agency regulates the Controlled Substances Act? A. IRS

B. DEA

C. SWAT

D. OSHA

B. DEA

29. Defamation through spoken statements is known as: A. Libel B. Sympathy C. Empathy D. Slander D. Slander
30. Insulin syringes are calibrated in: A. Milliliters B. Units C. Cubic centimeters D. Minims B. Units
31. Which of the following is not true regarding HIPPA laws? A. Patients can make informed choices regarding how their personal health information is used B. Few boundaries are set on the use and release of health records C. Patients have more control over their medical records D. Violators are held accountable if patient privacy rights are compromised B. Few boundaries are set on the use and release of health records
32. To determine our ventricular pulse, the EKG technician would: A. Calculate the ST repolarization segments B. Calculate the spacing between the P waves C. Calculate the spacing between the ventricular repolarization T waves D. Calculate the spacing between the QRS complexes D. Calculate the spacing between the QRS complex
33. PHI stands for: A. Protected health information B. Private health instructions C. Private health information D. Protected health instructions A. Protected health information
34. Which situation would a Medical Assistant's signature be required? A. After the chief complaint is documented B. After the patient gives a medical history account

C. On an informed consent document D. When a patient gives implied consent C. On an informed consent document

35. The Privacy Rule gives patients the right to: A. Access their medical record B. Access their ex-spouses record C. Sue the doctor D. Refuse treatment A. Access their medical record
36. A patient has an oral temperature of 100.8 F. The medical term for this is: A. Pyrexia B. Pyuria C. Hyperpyrexia D. Purulent A. Pyrexia
37. A routine hand wash procedure uses plain soap to remove soil and transient bacteria. A. Scrub brushes B. Antimicrobial soap C. Gel- based creams after the routine hand wash D. Medicated towels for drying clean hands. B. antimicrobial soap
38. Which of the following precautions require special air handling and ventilation? A. Contact precautions B. Standard precautions C. Airborne precautions D. Droplet precautions C. Airborne precautions
39. Which of the following is correct regarding contact transmissions> A. It involves the transfer of pathogens by food and water. B. It involves contaminated instruments, needles, or contaminated hands that are not washed. C. It involves transmission of pathogens that remain suspended in air for a long period of time. D. It refers to the transfer of pathogens by mosquitoes, flies, and rats B. It involves contaminated instruments, needles, or contaminated hands that are not washed
40. Important information a patient should know about immunizations would be that: A. They are not necessary if quality infection is maintained B. They are prophylactics against deadly diseases

C. They are known to cause autism D. They can unintentionally give the recipient a disease B. They are prophylactics against deadly diseases

41. What is the process used to wash and remove blood and tissue from medical instruments called? A. Asepsis B. Sanitization C. Disinfection D. Sterilization B. Sanitation
42. A patient weights 83.92 kg. How many pounds does he weigh? A. 185 lb. B. 210 lb. C. 200 lb. D. 195 lb. A. 185 lb
43. While taking a patient's medical history for active tuberculosis, what type of PPE is required? A. Goggles B. Lab coat C. Gloves D. Mask D. Mask
44. Most exposures to HIV in healthcare settings are the result of: A. Contact with AIDS patients B. Splashes during surgery C. Accidental needle sticks D. Tainted blood transfusions C. Accidental needle sticks
45. The four symptoms of inflammation are erythema, edema, pain, and: A. Irritation B. Vomiting C. Heat D. Headache C. Heat
46. A tympanic temperature means the body temperature is measured: A. Under the armpit B. Under the tongue

C. At the eardrum D. In the rectum C. At the eardrum

47. A pulse site used to measure blood pressure is: A. Brachial B. Popliteal C. Radial D. Temporal A. Brachial
48. What is the correct way to calculate pulse pressure? A. The number found when subtracting the diastolic from the systolic B. The sum of the diastolic and the systolic C. The pulse taken at the carotid location D. The pulse taken at the apical location A. The number found when subtracting the diastolic from the systolic
49. The patient has been given a prescription that says the medication should be taken "bid". This medication should be taken: A. Before bed time B. Once a day C. Before meals D. Twice a day D. Twice a day
50. Which of the following procedures can be performed by a medical assistant? A. Intramuscular injection B. Start fluids through a catheter C. Insert peripheral catheter D. Intravenous injection A. Intramuscular injection
51. Post- prandial means: A. Before a meal B. Before bed time C. Fasting D. After a meal D. After a meal
52. A round, raised skin lesion with itching that is a positive sign of reaction to allergic testing is a: A. Wheal B. Nodule

C. Papule D. Vesicle C. Papule

53. You are to draw the blood of a patient. After reviewing the lab order, you realize that you need to draw a CBC w/diff (complete blood count with differential) on your patient. knowing that this test is drawn in a lavender top-tube, which lab department would this go to for processing? A. Microbiology B. Hematology C. Coagulation D. Chemistry B. Hematology
54. The patient information sheet contains: A. The past medical history of the patient B. The patient's past family history C. The patient's chief complaint D. patients personal and insurance information D. Patients personal and insurance information
55. Which of the following drug administration routes is the most appropriate for a patient who has nausea and vomiting? A. Nasal B. Buccal C. Sublingual D. Rectal D. rectal
56. The medical assistant is to collect a Prothrombine time (PT) test, a complete Blood Count (CBC), and a fasting Blood Sugar (FBS). What is the correct order of draw? A. Grey ( FBS), Lavender (PT), Red (CBC) B. Light-blue (PT), Lavender (CBC), Grey (FBS) C. Lavender (FBS), Red (CBC), Green (PT) D. Grey (FBS), Lavender (CBC), Light-blue (PT) B. Light-blue (PT), Lavender (CBC), Grey (FBS)
57. The information of blood cells is defined as: A. Hematopoiesis B. Erythropoietin C. Mean corpuscular volume D. Hemoglobinopathy A. Hematopoiesis

58. The primary purpose of wearing gloves during phlebotomy procedures is to protect the: A. Venipuncture site from contamination by the phlebotomist's hands B. Specimen from contamination by the phlebotomist C. Patient from contamination by the phlebotomist D. Phlebotomist from exposure to the patient's blood D. Phlebotomist from exposure to the patients blood
59. While Mr. Dillon's hematocrit is spinning in the centrifuge, you perform an automated hemoglobin test on a sample of his blood and record the value as 15g/dL. You do a quick mental calculation and expect that the hematocrit value will be approximately: A. 5g/dL B. 45% C. 5% D. 45g/dL C. 45%
60. What is the best location to check the pulse of an adult who is unconscious and not breathing? A. At the carotid artery of the neck B. On the chest, directly over the heart C. At the radial artery of the wrist D. At the brachial artery of the arm A. Carotid artery
61. The act of listening for sounds made by internal organs to aid in the diagnosis of certain disorders is called: A. Menstruation B. Percussion C. Auscultation D. Palpation C. Auscultation
62. When a blood pressure cuff is deflated, the first tapping sound is the _____ pressure. A. Pulse B. Systolic C. Mean arterial D. Diastolic B. Systolic
63. The body organ targeted by HBV is the: A. Brain B. Liver

C. Heart D. Lungs B. Liver

64. A female patient came into the office for her scheduled routine physical. You are measuring the patient's vital signs. Which part of the brain is responsible for the temperature regulation? A. Hypothalamus B. Thalamus C. Medulla oblongata D. Pons A. Hypothalamus
65. What position should the patient be placed in when performing an ECG? A. Dorsal recumbent B. Supine C. Trendelenburg D. Prone B. Supine
66. Which mode of infection transmission occurs from touching contaminated linens? A. Droplet contact B. Direct contact C. Vehicle contact D. Indirect contact D. Indirect contact
67. Which of the following is the most common means of transmitting pathogens? A. Ingesting food B. Blood transfusions C. Coughing D. Touching D. Touching
68. When a patient fails to show for their appointment, the event must be: A. Erased from the schedule B. Written on a no-show log C. Monetarily charged to the patient D. Documented in the patient's chart D. Documented in the patients chart
69. Notifiable infection must be reported to: A. The patient's physician B. Your supervisor

C. World Health Organization D. Center for Disease Control D. Center for disease control

70. A quantitative test is one that: A. Tests for the presence and amount of substance in sample B. Tests for presence of substance only C. Does not require a trained technician D. Tests for all substances found in the sample A. tests for the presence and amount of a substance in sample
71. The interval between exposure to infection and the appearance of the first symptom is called: A. Incubation period B. Active period C. Means of transmission period D. Incineration period A. Incubation period
72. Complete destruction of all forms of microbial life. A. Sterilization B. Germicide C. Sanitization D. Disinfection A. Sterilization
73. A patient is having a seizure. Which of the following is the most appropriate step for the medical assistant to take to protect the patient? A. Raise the patient's feet B. Call for help C. Loosen clothing around the patient's neck D. Administer small amounts of liquid C. Loosen clothing around the patients neck
74. Most specialists are paid by MCOs using which of the following methods? A. Fee-for-service B. Coinsurance C. Copayment D. Capitation A. Fee-for-service
75. Which of the following is classified as abnormally rapid, deep or labored breathing? A. Hypertension B. Tachypnea

C. Hyperpnea D. Hyperpyrexia B. Tachypnea

76. The invoice for the monthly rent of the building where the medical office is located, is typically handled by which department? A. Compliance B. Human Resources C. Accounts payable D. Accounts receivable C. Accounts payable
77. What drug enhances the effects of another drug? A. Narcotic B. Antagonist C. Trade D. Synergistic D. Synergistic
78. When using a venterogluteal approach to give an intramuscular injection in the buttock area, what is the muscle the medication goes in? A. Gluteus maximus B. Gluteus medius C. Right upper and outer quadrant D. Gluteus minimus B. Gluteus medius
79. A baby's pulse and respirations are: A. The same as adults B. Not significantly different than an adult C. Faster than an adults D. Slower than an adults C. Faster than an adults
80. Which of the patient's limbs serves as an electrical ground? A. Right arm B. Left leg C. Left arm D. Right leg D. Right leg
81. Another name for chest leads is: A. Standard

B. Precordial C. Limb D. Augmented B. Precordial

82. When the body has had adequate rest and no food for at least 12 hours, it is said to be in: A. Hemostasis B. Basal state C. Homeostasis D. Steady state B. Basal state
83. What organ's main function is to eliminate excess water and waste products from the body? A. Liver B. Intestines C. Gall Bladder D. Kidneys D. Kidneys
84. A murmur is an abnormal sound that may indicate: A. Intestinal obstruction B. Valvular heart disease C. Stroke D. Bronchial asthma B. Valvular heart disease
85. How many electrodes are used as part of a 12-Lead EKG? A. 10 B. 6 C. 12 D. 8 A. 10
86. The amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute is called: A. Ejection fraction B. Cardiac output C. Contractility D. Blood pressure B. Cardiac output
87. Sinus __________ is a slow dysrhythmia. A. Bradycardia B. Tachycardia

C. Rhythm D. Dysrhythmia A. Bradycardia

88. When a person stays in the same position all the time, pressure causes the skin to: A. Become firm and dry B. Weaken and become necrotic C. Become stronger D. Stay pink and moist B. Weaken and become necrotic
89. A patient's weight should be listed in the patient's chart to the nearest: A. Pound B. 1/2 pound C. Ounce D. 3/4 pound 1/4 pound
90. Which of the following blood pressure readings would be considered Stage 1 Hypertension? A. 148/ B. 116/ C. 126/ D. 178/ A. 148/
91. A normal resting heart rate for the average adult is: A. 15-20 BPM B. 80-120 BPM C. 10-15 BPM D. 60-100 BPM D. 60- 100
92. Automaticity refers to: A. The ability of the myocardial cell to contract when stimulated by an electrical impulse B. The ability to transmit an electrical stimulus from cell to cell throughout the myocardium C. The ability to respond to an electrical stimulus D. The ability of certain myocardial cells to produce an electrical impulse without the need for outside nerve stimulation D. The ability of certain myocardial cells to produce an electrical impulse without the need for outside nerve stimulation
93. Collection devices used in skin punctures are called: A. Capillary tubes

B. Butterfly sets C. Blood culture collection systems D. 25 gauge needles A. Capillary tubes

94. Normal sinus rhythm has a heart rate of ______ beats per minute: A. 80 to 120 B. 50 to 75 C. 60 to 100 D. 40 to 60 C. 60- 100
95. What is the function of the large intestine (aka colon)? A. Absorb water B. Absorb sugar C. Absorb fat D. Absorb vitamins A. Absorb water
96. No anticoagulants are found in which of the following tubes? A. Green-topped B. Yellow-topped C. Lavender-topped D. Red-topped D. Red-topped
97. Without a clot activator, whole blood typically clots in____ minutes. A. 60 to 20 B. 1 to 2 C. 30 to 60 D. 5 to 10 C. 30- 60
98. Thixotropic gel, found in the SST red gray marbled- topped Vacutainer tube: A. Is more dense than red blood cells and less dense than white blood cells B. Is more dense than red blood cells and less dense than serum C. Is less dense than red blood cells but more dense than serum D. Has the same density as red blood cells C. is less dense than red blood cells but more dense than serum
99. Which of the following procedures is appropriate for preparing blood and other potentially infectious materials for transport? A. Freezing the materials before transport

B. Placing the materials in a leak-proof container during collection C. Decontaminating the hazardous waste container D. Relabeling containers provided for waste B. Placing the materials in a leak-proof container during collection

100. The normal volume of urine produced by an adult in a 24-hour period generally does not exceed: A. 2000 L B. 2000 mL C. 400 mL D. 750 ml B. 2000 mL
101. The patient's specimen is lipemic. This is usually an indicator that the patient is: A. Smoking B. Not fasting C. Normal D. In basal state B. Not fasting
102. Which of the following tests is not a part of complete blood count? A. Activated partial thromboplastin time B. Differential C. Hemoglobin D. Hematocrit A. Activated partial thromboplastin time
103. The boundaries for the approved area in performing heel punctures are: A. The line extending from the third toe, dividing the plantar surface into medial and lateral aspects. B. The line extending from the third and fourth toe, dividing the plantar surface. C. The lateral line extending from the third toe and the medical line extending from the second toe. D. The medial line extending from the great toe and lateral line extending from the fourth and fifth digit. D. the medical line extending from the great toe and lateral line extending from the fourth and fifth toe
104. What is the best sample for the determination of blood pH and blood gases? A. Cerebrospinal fluid B. Arterial blood C. Venous blood D. Capillary blood B. Atrial blood
105. The ability to identify with someone else's feelings is called: A. Respect B. Feedback

C. Sympathy D. Empathy D. Empathy

106. How far above the site of draw is the tourniquet placed? A. 3 - 4 inches B. 1-2 inches C. 5-7 inches D. 4-6 inches A. 3-4 inches
107. A female patient came into the clinic for follow-up after a right sided mastectomy with some removal of lymphoid tissue. What is the name of the condition that makes blood draw on the right arm not recommended? A. Syncope B. Lymphostasis C. Anemia D. Hemoconcentration B. Lymphostasis
108. Which of the following is correct for ending a venipuncture procedure? A. Remove the tourniquet, remove the needle, remove the tube, apply pressure B. Remove the tourniquet, remove the tube, remove the needle, apply pressure C. Remove the needle, remove the tube, remove the tourniquet, apply pressure D. Remove the tube, remove the tourniquet, remove the needle, apply pressure B. remove the tourniquet, remove the tube, remove the needle, apply pressure
109. Which of the following is known as swimmer's ear? A. Otitis externa B. Otitis C. Otitis media D. Otitis interna A. Otitis externa
110. Which of the following should be used to chill a specimen as it transported? A. A small freezer unit B. Frozen blocks of ice C. Crushed ice D. Tepid water C. Crushed ice
111. The Medical Assistant was sent to the ward to draw blood for coagulation studies, Which of the following is correct about this draw?

A. The Medical Assistant can use capillary tubes for the blood collection B. Draw a red top tube before the light blue tube C. Fill a light blue to the top D. Before drawing the specimen, make sure the patient has fasted for 12 hours D. before drawing the specimen, make sure the patient has fasted for 12 hours

112. The tube of choice for glucose testing is: A. Gray-top tube B. Red-top tube C. Light-blue top blue D. Lavender-top tube A. Grey-top tube
113. The function of the platelet is to: A. Cause the blood to clot B. Fight infection C. Carry oxygen D. Carry nutrients A. Cause the blood to clot
114. The three kinds of blood cells are: A. Leukocytes, red blood cells, erythrocytes B. Erythrocytes, Platelets, thrombocytes C. Leukocytes, white blood cells, platelets D. Erythrocytes, thrombocytes, leukocytes D. Erythrocytes, thrombocytes, leukocytes
115. The hormone tested for in pregnancy tests is: A. TSH B. Progesterone C. Estrogen D. HCG D. HCG
116. When performing a dermal puncture and the lancet hits the bone, what is the potentially serious fatal bone infection that could occur? A. Osteochondritis B. Osteomyelitis C. Osteomalacia D. Osteoporosis B. Osteomyelitis

117. You performing a venipuncture procedure on a patient- the needle appears to be inside the vein yet no blood id flowing into the tube. What should you do? A. Pull back on the needle B. Terminate the procedure C. Slightly rotate the needle D. Switch the tubes D. Switch the tubes
118. Which of the following Vacutainer tubes is routinely used for hematology testing? A. Light blue-topped tubes B. Red-topped tubes C. Lavender topped tubes D. Green-topped tubes C. Lavender-topped tubes
119. If a laboratory test requires serum, which Vacutainer tube is the tube of choice? A. Lavender - topped tubes B. Black- topped tubes C. Yellow - topped tubes D. Red - topped tubes D. Red-topped tubes
120. Sodium Citrate is the additive in what color tube? A. Red B. Green C. Light-blue D. Lavender C. Light blue
121. A fluctuating fever that returns to or below baseline then increases again is: A. Intermittent B. Remittent C. Onset D. Continuous A. Intermittent
122. Identify the tubes needed to collect a PT,STAT lytes, and BC in the proper order of collection. A. Yellow, light-blue, PST B. SST, yellow, light-blue C. Light-blue, lavender, yellow D. Gold, Yellow, light-blue A. Yellow, Light-blue, PST

123. A female patient came into the emergency room with her husband. She was suffering from severe shortness of breath. She appeared to be unable to take in sufficient oxygen. What is the color of the skin and nail beds? A. Brownish B. Greenish C. Reddish D. Bluish D. Bluish
124. Which choice is a typical educational for elderly patients to prevent disease? A. The location of the patient's public health resources in their community B. Health anti-aging skin care techniques and products C. Sterile technique used in the medical practice D. Annual flu pneumonia vaccination information D. Annual flu pneumonia vaccination and information
125. Asystole: A. Is defined as the presence of chaotic cardiac activity B. Produces a complete cessation of cardiac output C. Is the most common primary event in cardiac arrest in the adult D. Appears as a chaotic line on the ECG monitor B. Produces a complete cessation of cardiac output
126. A patient came to the clinic for a low-grade fever of one month duration. As part of the laboratory work-up, the physician ordered erythrocyte sedimentation (ESR). What color tube would be used for this test? A. Green-top tube B. Light-blue top tube C. Lavender-top tube D. Red-top tube C. Lavender-top tube
127. An obese patient was sent to the laboratory for a complete blood count. Which of the following veins is mot likely to be the only that the Phlebotomist can palpate? A. Basilic vein B. Cephalic vein C. Median cubital vein D. Sclerosed vein B. cephalic vein
128. Two employees discussing a patient diagnosis on a hospital elevator with other people present is a violation of:

A. Patient rights B. Patient privacy C. Patient confidentiality D. Patient insurance C. Patient confidentiality

129. A patient has been taking aspirin for arthritis. Which of the following is most likely to be affected by it? A. Bleeding time B. Glucose time C. Blood culture collection D. Blood culture results A. Bleeding time
130. Mr. Matthews called the office to get the test results for his wife, Martha. What should the medical assistant do? A. Tell Mr. Matthews that you cannot release the information B. Check the medical record to see if Mr. Matthews is really Martha's husband - if so then release the information. C. Tell Mr. Matthews the test results D. Check the medical record to see if Mr. Matthews is authorized to have this information on Mrs. Matthews HIPAA form. if so, then release the information. D. Check the medical recored to see if Mr. Matthews is authorized to have this information on Mrs. Matthews HIPAA form. If so, then release the information
131. If a finger is "excessively" milked during a skin puncture, the result will be: A. A decrease in pain for the patient B. Increased venous blood flow to the puncture site C. An adequate of blood for filling several capillary tubes D. Hemolysis and contamination of the specimen with tissue fluids D. Hemolysis and contamination of the specimen with tissue fluids
132. You are the only CMAC the night shift. You receive orders for all of the following tests within minutes of one another. Which test has the greatest collection priority? A. STAT CBC in labor and Delivery B. STAT electrolytes in the ER C. Timed blood cultures in ICU D. ASAP electrolytes in CCU B. STAT electrolytes in the ER
133. The phenylketonuria (PKU) test is used to diagnose deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase, the most common clinically encountered inborn error of metabolism. it is performed on:

A. Blood drawn from a newborn's finger B. A newborn's fecal specimen C. Blood drawn from a newborn's buttocks D. Blood drawn from a newborn's heel D. blood drawn from a newborns heel

134. Samples appear to have been mislabeled and mixed on two patients. Each outpatient has orders for both blood and urine test, so there were two samples for each. What would be the best course of action? A. Recollect all four specimens from the patients B. Re-label the urine samples, but redraw the blood C. Have the patients come back and identify their specimens D. Re-label all the specimens A. Recollect all four samples from the patients
135. What specimens require protection from light? A. Bilirubin B. Lactic acid C. Blood gases D. Cryo fibrinogens A. Bilirubin
136. Which of the following are also referred to as serum separator tubes (SST)? A. Red/Gray-top tubes B. Red-top tubes C. Light blue-top tubes D. Lavender-top tubes A. Red/Grey-top tubes
137. Which of the following specimens are best utilized to measure clotting factors? A. Serum B. Whole blood C. Plasma D. Sterile blood C. Plasma
138. Which of the following is a standard speed for an EKG machine? A. 50 mm/second B. 100 mm/second C. 10 mm/second D. 25 mm/second D. 25 mm/second

139. When would a phlebotomist use a multiple-sample needle? A. Along family members who all require the same test B. In a large out-patient laboratory for all patients requiring the same test C. For microcapillary collection D. When more than one tube of blood is to be collected D. When more than one tube of blood is to be collected
140. A collection tube containing an anti-coagulant must be inverted how many times? A. Tubes containing anti-coagulants are not inverted at all B. Ten times C. Eight times D. Shake vigorously for 30 seconds C. Eight times
141. Identify the rhythm that will often produce an irregular rhythm. A. Atrial Tachycardia B. Sinus Dysrhythmia C. Ventricular Tachycardia D. Sinus Bradycardia B. Sinus dysrhythmia
142. Which limb sensor is the reference or ground electrode? A. Right arm B. Left arm C. Left leg D. Right leg D. Right leg
143. One method to calculate heart rate from an EKG strip is to: A. Count the small boxes between the R-R interval and divide by 1500 B. Count the number of small boxes in the R-R intervals and divide by 2 C. Estimate by counting R peaks in 10 sec strip and multiply by 10 D. Count the number of QRS complexes in a 3 strip and multiply by 10 A. Count small boxes between the R-R interval and divide by 1500
144. A 45 year-old man comes in for a stress test. His resting blood pressure is 120/80. During the stress test, his blood pressure dropped to 95/55 and his skin is cold and clammy. What is the best course of action? A. Stop for a minute, then resume B. Stop the test immediately C. Slow the test and then pick the pace back up D. Push forward with the test