AMCA Certification Test - Medical Assisting Study Guide - Set A, Exams of Medicine

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AMCA CERTIFICATION TEST -

MEDICAL ASSISTING STUDY GUIDE

- SET A LATEST UPDATED AND 100%

VERIFIED

1. Which of the following is considered a parasitic infection? A. Lyme disease B. Rabies C. Ringworm D. Malaria D. Malaria
2. Aspirin and acetaminophen are examples of: A. Analgesics and antipyretics B. Antitussives and decongestants C. Antihistamines and antiemetics D. Antidotes and antibiotics A. Analgesics and antipyretics
3. Demerol 75 mg, IM every 4 hours, as needed for severe pain, is what type of medication order? A. Single B. PRN C. Stat D. Routine B. PRN
4. This unit in the hospital is run by physicians and experts in the field of musculoskeletal disorders of bones, joints, ligaments and tendons, identify this department. A. Rheumatology B. Obstetrics C. Ophthalmology D. Oncology

A. Rheumatology

5. MSDS information includes: A. Table of chemical elements B. Product manufacturing conditions C. General and emergency information D. Information on competitor products C. General and emergency information
6. The physician prescribes a buccal medication. The medical assistant should instruct the patient to: A. Place the medication between the lower teeth and cheek B. Chew the medication and swallow it C. Place the medication under the tongue D. Dissolve the medication in water and drink it A. Place the medication between the lower teeth and cheek
7. Which of the following is the best specimen to test for levels of iron in the blood? A. The one collected in a tube that contains sodium citrate B. The one collected in a microcuvette C. The one collected in the tube that contains EDTA D. The one collected in a tube with no additive C. The one collected in the tube that contains EDTA
8. All pathogens are: A. Microorganisms that live in soil B. Microbes that can cause disease C. Communicable microorganisms D. Normal bacteria found on skin B. Microbes that can cause disease
9. Every prescription for a controlled substance requires the physicians signature and a ____________ number? A. FDA B. DEA C.EPA D.CDC B. DEA
10. When using a No. 10 envelope, where should the address be placed? A. 10 lines down from the top and 4 inches from the left edge of the envelope B. 14 lines down from the top and 2 inches from the left edge of the envelope C. 10 lines down from the top and 2 inches from the left edge of the envelope D. 14 lines down from the top and 4 inches from the left edge of the envelope

17. The smallest structural unit of the nervous system is the: A. Spinal cord B. Neurofibrils C. Neuron D. Supine C. Neuron
18. A patient came into the doctor's office with chest pain and shortness of breath. which position is the best to help him breathe better? A. Lithotomy B. Prone C. Fowler's D. Supine C. Fowler's
19. The primary function of the nervous system is: A. To protect deep organs B. To cleanse the blood of pathogens C. To detect changes in the internal and external environment and respond appropriately D. To provide body support and levers for muscle action C. To detect changes in the internal and external environment and respond appropriately
20. Mr. Smith is suffering from an enlargement of the bones in the entire skull as well as in the hands and feet, in addition to thickening of the skin. Which of the following conditions is Mr. Smith suffering from? A. Addison's B. Cushing's C. Acromegaly D. Cretinism C. Acromegaly
21. The functional unit of the kidney is the: A. Nephron B. Ureter C. Urethra D. Bladder A. Nephron
22. Which of the following types of gloves can be decontaminated and reused if they show no signs of deterioration after use? A. Disposable B. Utility

C. Sterile D. Examination B. Utility

23. After obtaining an ECG tracing, a Medical Assistant would be expected to? A. Check the patient with a pulse oximeter to verify accuracy of the ECG tracing B. Evaluate the patient's medication list for cardiac altering drugs C. Instruct the patient on the tracing results and cardiac prognosis D. Observe the tracing for quality and decide if another tracing may be required D. Observe the tracing for quality and decide if another tracing may be required
24. There are two types of civil actions healthcare providers for injuries resulting from health care, The first one is lack of informed consent and the second one is: A. Violation of standard of care B. Trial and Post trial C. Violation of confidentiality D. Violation of continued care plan A. Violation of standard care
25. Dr. Jones and Dr. Brown decide to share a practice. Together, they share patients, expenses, profits and assets. Which type of medical practice is this? A. Group practice B. Clinic C. Partnership D. Sole proprietorship A. Group practice 26)What is the appropriate test used for heparin therapy? A. POCT B. APPT C. H&H D. SST B. APPT
26. A provider withdraws from the care of a patient without reasonable notice of discharge is considered: A. Abandonment B. Malpractice C. Negligence D. Slander A. Abandonment
27. Which agency regulates the Controlled Substances Act? A. IRS

C. On an informed consent document D. When a patient gives implied consent C. On an informed consent document

35. The Privacy Rule gives patients the right to: A. Access their medical record B. Access their ex-spouses record C. Sue the doctor D. Refuse treatment A. Access their medical record
36. A patient has an oral temperature of 100.8 F. The medical term for this is: A. Pyrexia B. Pyuria C. Hyperpyrexia D. Purulent A. Pyrexia
37. A routine hand wash procedure uses plain soap to remove soil and transient bacteria. A. Scrub brushes B. Antimicrobial soap C. Gel- based creams after the routine hand wash D. Medicated towels for drying clean hands. B. antimicrobial soap
38. Which of the following precautions require special air handling and ventilation? A. Contact precautions B. Standard precautions C. Airborne precautions D. Droplet precautions C. Airborne precautions
39. Which of the following is correct regarding contact transmissions> A. It involves the transfer of pathogens by food and water. B. It involves contaminated instruments, needles, or contaminated hands that are not washed. C. It involves transmission of pathogens that remain suspended in air for a long period of time. D. It refers to the transfer of pathogens by mosquitoes, flies, and rats B. It involves contaminated instruments, needles, or contaminated hands that are not washed
40. Important information a patient should know about immunizations would be that: A. They are not necessary if quality infection is maintained B. They are prophylactics against deadly diseases

C. They are known to cause autism D. They can unintentionally give the recipient a disease B. They are prophylactics against deadly diseases

41. What is the process used to wash and remove blood and tissue from medical instruments called? A. Asepsis B. Sanitization C. Disinfection D. Sterilization B. Sanitation
42. A patient weights 83.92 kg. How many pounds does he weigh? A. 185 lb. B. 210 lb. C. 200 lb. D. 195 lb. A. 185 lb
43. While taking a patient's medical history for active tuberculosis, what type of PPE is required? A. Goggles B. Lab coat C. Gloves D. Mask D. Mask
44. Most exposures to HIV in healthcare settings are the result of: A. Contact with AIDS patients B. Splashes during surgery C. Accidental needle sticks D. Tainted blood transfusions C. Accidental needle sticks
45. The four symptoms of inflammation are erythema, edema, pain, and: A. Irritation B. Vomiting C. Heat D. Headache C. Heat
46. A tympanic temperature means the body temperature is measured: A. Under the armpit B. Under the tongue

C. Papule D. Vesicle C. Papule

53. You are to draw the blood of a patient. After reviewing the lab order, you realize that you need to draw a CBC w/diff (complete blood count with differential) on your patient. knowing that this test is drawn in a lavender top-tube, which lab department would this go to for processing? A. Microbiology B. Hematology C. Coagulation D. Chemistry B. Hematology
54. The patient information sheet contains: A. The past medical history of the patient B. The patient's past family history C. The patient's chief complaint D. patients personal and insurance information D. Patients personal and insurance information
55. Which of the following drug administration routes is the most appropriate for a patient who has nausea and vomiting? A. Nasal B. Buccal C. Sublingual D. Rectal D. rectal
56. The medical assistant is to collect a Prothrombine time (PT) test, a complete Blood Count (CBC), and a fasting Blood Sugar (FBS). What is the correct order of draw? A. Grey ( FBS), Lavender (PT), Red (CBC) B. Light-blue (PT), Lavender (CBC), Grey (FBS) C. Lavender (FBS), Red (CBC), Green (PT) D. Grey (FBS), Lavender (CBC), Light-blue (PT) B. Light-blue (PT), Lavender (CBC), Grey (FBS)
57. The information of blood cells is defined as: A. Hematopoiesis B. Erythropoietin C. Mean corpuscular volume D. Hemoglobinopathy A. Hematopoiesis

58. The primary purpose of wearing gloves during phlebotomy procedures is to protect the: A. Venipuncture site from contamination by the phlebotomist's hands B. Specimen from contamination by the phlebotomist C. Patient from contamination by the phlebotomist D. Phlebotomist from exposure to the patient's blood D. Phlebotomist from exposure to the patients blood
59. While Mr. Dillon's hematocrit is spinning in the centrifuge, you perform an automated hemoglobin test on a sample of his blood and record the value as 15g/dL. You do a quick mental calculation and expect that the hematocrit value will be approximately: A. 5g/dL B. 45% C. 5% D. 45g/dL C. 45%
60. What is the best location to check the pulse of an adult who is unconscious and not breathing? A. At the carotid artery of the neck B. On the chest, directly over the heart C. At the radial artery of the wrist D. At the brachial artery of the arm A. Carotid artery
61. The act of listening for sounds made by internal organs to aid in the diagnosis of certain disorders is called: A. Menstruation B. Percussion C. Auscultation D. Palpation C. Auscultation
62. When a blood pressure cuff is deflated, the first tapping sound is the _____ pressure. A. Pulse B. Systolic C. Mean arterial D. Diastolic B. Systolic
63. The body organ targeted by HBV is the: A. Brain B. Liver

C. World Health Organization D. Center for Disease Control D. Center for disease control

70. A quantitative test is one that: A. Tests for the presence and amount of substance in sample B. Tests for presence of substance only C. Does not require a trained technician D. Tests for all substances found in the sample A. tests for the presence and amount of a substance in sample
71. The interval between exposure to infection and the appearance of the first symptom is called: A. Incubation period B. Active period C. Means of transmission period D. Incineration period A. Incubation period
72. Complete destruction of all forms of microbial life. A. Sterilization B. Germicide C. Sanitization D. Disinfection A. Sterilization
73. A patient is having a seizure. Which of the following is the most appropriate step for the medical assistant to take to protect the patient? A. Raise the patient's feet B. Call for help C. Loosen clothing around the patient's neck D. Administer small amounts of liquid C. Loosen clothing around the patients neck
74. Most specialists are paid by MCOs using which of the following methods? A. Fee-for-service B. Coinsurance C. Copayment D. Capitation A. Fee-for-service
75. Which of the following is classified as abnormally rapid, deep or labored breathing? A. Hypertension B. Tachypnea

C. Hyperpnea D. Hyperpyrexia B. Tachypnea

76. The invoice for the monthly rent of the building where the medical office is located, is typically handled by which department? A. Compliance B. Human Resources C. Accounts payable D. Accounts receivable C. Accounts payable
77. What drug enhances the effects of another drug? A. Narcotic B. Antagonist C. Trade D. Synergistic D. Synergistic
78. When using a venterogluteal approach to give an intramuscular injection in the buttock area, what is the muscle the medication goes in? A. Gluteus maximus B. Gluteus medius C. Right upper and outer quadrant D. Gluteus minimus B. Gluteus medius
79. A baby's pulse and respirations are: A. The same as adults B. Not significantly different than an adult C. Faster than an adults D. Slower than an adults C. Faster than an adults
80. Which of the patient's limbs serves as an electrical ground? A. Right arm B. Left leg C. Left arm D. Right leg D. Right leg
81. Another name for chest leads is: A. Standard

C. Rhythm D. Dysrhythmia A. Bradycardia

88. When a person stays in the same position all the time, pressure causes the skin to: A. Become firm and dry B. Weaken and become necrotic C. Become stronger D. Stay pink and moist B. Weaken and become necrotic
89. A patient's weight should be listed in the patient's chart to the nearest: A. Pound B. 1/2 pound C. Ounce D. 3/4 pound 1/4 pound
90. Which of the following blood pressure readings would be considered Stage 1 Hypertension? A. 148/ B. 116/ C. 126/ D. 178/ A. 148/
91. A normal resting heart rate for the average adult is: A. 15-20 BPM B. 80-120 BPM C. 10-15 BPM D. 60-100 BPM D. 60- 100
92. Automaticity refers to: A. The ability of the myocardial cell to contract when stimulated by an electrical impulse B. The ability to transmit an electrical stimulus from cell to cell throughout the myocardium C. The ability to respond to an electrical stimulus D. The ability of certain myocardial cells to produce an electrical impulse without the need for outside nerve stimulation D. The ability of certain myocardial cells to produce an electrical impulse without the need for outside nerve stimulation
93. Collection devices used in skin punctures are called: A. Capillary tubes

B. Butterfly sets C. Blood culture collection systems D. 25 gauge needles A. Capillary tubes

94. Normal sinus rhythm has a heart rate of ______ beats per minute: A. 80 to 120 B. 50 to 75 C. 60 to 100 D. 40 to 60 C. 60- 100
95. What is the function of the large intestine (aka colon)? A. Absorb water B. Absorb sugar C. Absorb fat D. Absorb vitamins A. Absorb water
96. No anticoagulants are found in which of the following tubes? A. Green-topped B. Yellow-topped C. Lavender-topped D. Red-topped D. Red-topped
97. Without a clot activator, whole blood typically clots in____ minutes. A. 60 to 20 B. 1 to 2 C. 30 to 60 D. 5 to 10 C. 30- 60
98. Thixotropic gel, found in the SST red gray marbled- topped Vacutainer tube: A. Is more dense than red blood cells and less dense than white blood cells B. Is more dense than red blood cells and less dense than serum C. Is less dense than red blood cells but more dense than serum D. Has the same density as red blood cells C. is less dense than red blood cells but more dense than serum
99. Which of the following procedures is appropriate for preparing blood and other potentially infectious materials for transport? A. Freezing the materials before transport

C. Sympathy D. Empathy D. Empathy

106. How far above the site of draw is the tourniquet placed? A. 3 - 4 inches B. 1-2 inches C. 5-7 inches D. 4-6 inches A. 3-4 inches
107. A female patient came into the clinic for follow-up after a right sided mastectomy with some removal of lymphoid tissue. What is the name of the condition that makes blood draw on the right arm not recommended? A. Syncope B. Lymphostasis C. Anemia D. Hemoconcentration B. Lymphostasis
108. Which of the following is correct for ending a venipuncture procedure? A. Remove the tourniquet, remove the needle, remove the tube, apply pressure B. Remove the tourniquet, remove the tube, remove the needle, apply pressure C. Remove the needle, remove the tube, remove the tourniquet, apply pressure D. Remove the tube, remove the tourniquet, remove the needle, apply pressure B. remove the tourniquet, remove the tube, remove the needle, apply pressure
109. Which of the following is known as swimmer's ear? A. Otitis externa B. Otitis C. Otitis media D. Otitis interna A. Otitis externa
110. Which of the following should be used to chill a specimen as it transported? A. A small freezer unit B. Frozen blocks of ice C. Crushed ice D. Tepid water C. Crushed ice
111. The Medical Assistant was sent to the ward to draw blood for coagulation studies, Which of the following is correct about this draw?

A. The Medical Assistant can use capillary tubes for the blood collection B. Draw a red top tube before the light blue tube C. Fill a light blue to the top D. Before drawing the specimen, make sure the patient has fasted for 12 hours D. before drawing the specimen, make sure the patient has fasted for 12 hours

112. The tube of choice for glucose testing is: A. Gray-top tube B. Red-top tube C. Light-blue top blue D. Lavender-top tube A. Grey-top tube
113. The function of the platelet is to: A. Cause the blood to clot B. Fight infection C. Carry oxygen D. Carry nutrients A. Cause the blood to clot
114. The three kinds of blood cells are: A. Leukocytes, red blood cells, erythrocytes B. Erythrocytes, Platelets, thrombocytes C. Leukocytes, white blood cells, platelets D. Erythrocytes, thrombocytes, leukocytes D. Erythrocytes, thrombocytes, leukocytes
115. The hormone tested for in pregnancy tests is: A. TSH B. Progesterone C. Estrogen D. HCG D. HCG
116. When performing a dermal puncture and the lancet hits the bone, what is the potentially serious fatal bone infection that could occur? A. Osteochondritis B. Osteomyelitis C. Osteomalacia D. Osteoporosis B. Osteomyelitis