Download AMEDD BOLC Midterm Exam 2024-2025 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! AMEDD BOLC MIDTERM EXAM 2024-2025 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES|ALREADY GRADED A The AMEDD views threats from what two perspectives? - correct answer-General threat and health threat What is a health threat? - correct answer-composite of ongoing potential enemy actions; adverse environmental, occupational, and geographic and meteorological conditions, endemic diseases, CBRN, etc What is health Service Support (HSS)? - correct answer-All support and services performed, provided, and arranged by the AMEDD to promote, improve, conserve, or restore the mental and physical well being of personnel in the Army. Anything that helps improve the physical and mental state of people in the Army. What are the 3 components of Health Service Support? - correct answer-Casualty Care: treatment, hospitalization, dental, neuropsych, and lab services Medical evacuation: medical regulating and en route care Medical logistics: all subcomponents and services What is Force Health Protection (FHP)? - correct answer-Measures to promote, improve, or conserve the mental and physical well-being of Soldiers. What is involved in Force Health Protection? - correct answer--Preventative medicine -Veterinary services, food inspection, zoonotic disease prevention -Combat operational stress control (COSC) -Dental services (preventative) -Lab services and support What is the Army health System? - correct answer-All encompassing term to describe both the HSS and FHP aspects of AMEDD support. What are the 3 parts of Tactical Combat Casualty Care (TC3)? - correct answer-Care Under Fire AMEDD BOLC MIDTERM EXAM 2024-2025 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES|ALREADY GRADED A Tactical Field Care Tactical Evacuation What are the 6 principles of the Army health System? - correct answer-1. Conformity 2. Proximity 3. Flexibility 4. Mobility 5. Continuity 6. Control What are Roles 1, 2 3 and 4? - correct answer-Role 1: BN aid station and below -Immediate life saving measures Role 2: Medical company -X-ray, lab, dental, patient hold, pharmacy, advanced trauma Role 3: Field hospital -Resuscitation, wound surgery, postoperative treatment Role 4: Definitive Care -Full spectrum of definitive medical care Is sequential evacuation necessary? (Role 1 > Role 2 > Role 3 > Role 4) - correct answer-No. For example you can go from Role 1 to Role 3 What is the role of the command surgeon? - correct answer-Special staff officer that plans and monitors execution of the AHS mission Ensures all Medical Functions and operational planning factors are planned and synchronized in operation plans and orders AMEDD BOLC MIDTERM EXAM 2024-2025 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES|ALREADY GRADED A What is counseling? - correct answer-The process used by leaders to review with a subordinate their demonstrated performance and potential What are the 3 types of counseling? - correct answer-1. Event- for specific event/situation, and precede or follow events like a school or duty performance 2. Performance-review of duty performance over certain period 3. Professional growth-planning for accomplishment of goals What are the approaches to counseling? - correct answer-1. Nondirective approach- •Leaders use experiences, insight and judgment to assist subordinates in developing solutions, explain expectations 2. Directive approach- •Leader does most of the talking and tells subordinate what to do and when to do it. Works best to correct simple problems 3. Combined approach- •Leader uses techniques from both approaches, adjusting them to fit what's best for the subordinate. Emphasize planning and decision making What are the advantages and disadvantages of the Nondirective approach? - correct answer- Pros: Encourages maturity Encourages open communication Develops personal responsibility Cons: More time-consuming Requires greatest counselor skills What are the advantages and disadvantages of the Directive approach? - correct answer-Pros: Good for people who need clear, concise direction Allows counselors to use their experience AMEDD BOLC MIDTERM EXAM 2024-2025 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES|ALREADY GRADED A Quickest method Cons: Discourages subordinates to be part of the solution Tends to treat symptoms, not problems Discourages free talk Solution is the counselor's What are the advantages and disadvantages of the Combined approach? - correct answer- Pros: Encourages maturity and open communication Allows counselors to use their experience Moderately quick Cons: May take too much time for some situations What are the stages of the counseling process? - correct answer-1. Identify the need for counseling 2. Prepare for counseling (7 areas) 3. Conduct the counseling session 4.Follow-up What are areas involved in preparing for a counseling (Stage 2)? - correct answer-1)Select a suitable place (i.e. noise, distraction, etc.) 2)Schedule the counseling 3)Notify subordinate 4)Organize information 5)Outline the counseling 6)Plan the counseling strategy 7)Establish the right atmosphere AMEDD BOLC MIDTERM EXAM 2024-2025 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES|ALREADY GRADED A What are the 4 basic components during the counseling session (Stage 3)? - correct answer- 1.Opening 2.Discussion 3.Plan of action 4.Record and close What form is used for counselings? - correct answer-DA Form 4856 What are the different types of promotions and their authorities? - correct answer- Decentralized (Chapter 2): To SPC/CPL and below Authority: Unit commander Semi-centralized (Chapter 3): To SGT and SSG Authority: Battalion Commander Centralized (Chapter 4): To SFC-SGM Authority: Headquarters, Department of the Army (HQDA) (HRC) What are the categories of individual awards? - correct answer-Decorations Good Conduct Medal Service Medals / Service Ribbons Badges / Tabs Certificates / Letters Foreign Awards What do service (campaign) medals and ribbons denote? - correct answer-Honorable performance of duty within specified limited dates in specified geographical areas. What are the different types of badges? - correct answer-Combat Identification Special skill Marksmanship AMEDD BOLC MIDTERM EXAM 2024-2025 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES|ALREADY GRADED A What is leave and who is the approval authority? - correct answer-An authorized absence from duty and is essential to the health, welfare, and morale of all Soldiers of a unit Authority: unit commander What are the two types of leave accrual? - correct answer-Normal leave accrual- AD Soldiers earn 30 days leave per year with pay and allowances at a rate of 2.5 days per month Special leave accrual- Gives relief to Soldiers that aren't allowed leave when undergoing lengthy deployment or during periods of hostility -Authorized for Soldiers who served in an area qualifying for hostile fire or imminent danger pay for at least 120 continuous days. How many leave days are soldiers allowed to carry forward at the end of a fiscal year? - correct answer-Up to 90 days -60 days normal leave carry over plus 30 days special leave accrual What is chargeable leave? - correct answer-Leave that is subtracted from a soldier's accrued leave balance What is ordinary leave? - correct answer-Taken by a Soldier who is at a permanent duty station and wishes to take time off from work What is transition leave? - correct answer-Taken by a Soldier who will be separating from the service by either ETS, Release from Active Duty (REFRAD) or retiring What is emergency leave? - correct answer-Used for family emergencies. Immediate family includes: Parents, including Stepparents, Spouse, Children, including Stepchildren, Sisters, Brothers, only living blood relative and a person in loco parentis What is Permanent Change of Station (PCS)? - correct answer-When a Soldier is reassigned from one duty station to another, PCS leave can be taken before or after arrival at the new unit What is leave in Conjunction with Temporary Duty (TDY)? - correct answer-Leave taken en route to or from a Soldier's temporary duty station. What is Nonchargeable leave? - correct answer-Absence that is NOT charged against a Soldier's accrued leave balance: What is Convalescent leave? - correct answer-Granted to a Soldier to expedite a member's return to full duty after an illness or injury. AMEDD BOLC MIDTERM EXAM 2024-2025 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES|ALREADY GRADED A What is Permissive Temporary Duty (PTDY)? - correct answer-Taken by a Soldier to attend a semi-official activity. What is Excess leave? - correct answer-Granted for emergencies or unusual circumstances. Advanced leave is normally expended prior to using excess leave -Becomes an indebtedness when there is a negative leave balance -No pay and allowances What is Regular Pass? - correct answer-A short, nonchargeable, authorized absence from post or place of duty during normal off duty hours -Can't exceed 3 days What is a Special Pass? - correct answer-A short nonchargeable authorized absence from post or place of duty. It may be granted as a 3-day or 4-day Special Pass. Is Emergency Leave for death of an immediate family member a chargeable or non-chargeable leave? - correct answer-Nonchargeable What is a Flag and what are the 2 categories? - correct answer-Flag: Suspension of Favorable Personnel actions Transferable: Flag may be transferred to another unit Non-transferable: May not be transferred to another unit What are examples of transferable flags? - correct answer--APFT failures -Soldiers in Weight Control Program -Punishment phase of adverse action What are examples of non-transferable flags? - correct answer--Adverse actions (charges, investigation, court-martial, AWOL) -Involuntary separation or discharge -Removal from selection list -Referred OER or Relief for Cause NCOER -CDR's investigation -Failure to provide + maintain Family Care Plan AMEDD BOLC MIDTERM EXAM 2024-2025 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES|ALREADY GRADED A -Security violation -Drug/alcohol offenses What is the effective date of a flag? - correct answer--The date that the circumstance(s) requiring the flag occurred, not the date the flag was initiated (Unless otherwise specified) -The date the commander signs the intent to separate notification memorandum -The date HQDA initiates an involuntary separation action True or False. A flag may NOT be initiated based on referral, screening or enrollment into the Army Substance Abuse Program (ASAP). - correct answer-True When can a flag be removed? - correct answer-As soon as the Soldier is released without charges, the charges are dropped, or the punishment (confinement, probation, restriction, extra duty, etc.) or adverse action is completed. A flag based on APFT failure or weight control failure must be removed as soon as the Soldier either passes the APFT or meets weight standards. What areas can a failure with the Mortuary Affairs (MA) mission or disrespectful handling of remains negatively impact? - correct answer-•Troop morale within the losing unit •National public support •Coalition support •Local national support •Enemy treatment of remains and/or prisoners What does full accounting (of remains) require? - correct answer--Proper identification -Explanation as to the cause and manner of death Contingency fatality operations occur at what levels in a theater of operation? - correct answer-All levels What are the 3 phases of search and recovery operations? - correct answer-Combat, Post Combat and area clearance. AMEDD BOLC MIDTERM EXAM 2024-2025 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES|ALREADY GRADED A -Place body in supine position, close eyes -Tie wrists together, may need to apply bandage to lower jaw -Provider may be asked to confirm death -Consult with mortuary affairs -Complete documentation and pass along PE, regardless of condition -DO NOT remove adjuncts from body -Ensure proper identification -Place body in shaded cool area How many tags are required on human remains and where are they placed? - correct answer-3 -Great toe -Wrist -Zipper of pouch What are Troop Leading Procedures (TLPs)? - correct answer-Dynamic process used by small- unit leaders to analyze a mission, develop a plan, and prepare for an operation What are the 8 steps of Troop Leading Procedures? - correct answer-1. Receive the mission 2. Issue warning order 3. Make a tentative plan 4. Initiate movement 5. Conduct reconnaissance 6. Complete the plan 7. Issue the order 8. Supervise and refine How can step 1 of TLPs (Receive the Mission) occur? - correct answer-It may begin when the initial WARNO or OPORD arrives from higher headquarters or when a leader anticipates a new mission What actions should be done during step 1 of TLPs (Receive the Mission) ? - correct answer-- Perform an initial assessment of the situation utilizing PMESII-PT and METT-TC AMEDD BOLC MIDTERM EXAM 2024-2025 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES|ALREADY GRADED A -Ensure that all subordinate echelons have sufficient time for planning and preparation What is PMESII-PT? - correct answer-The operational variables fundamental to developing a comprehensive understanding of the operational environment. -Political -Military -Economic -Social -Information -Infrastructure -Physical Environment -Time What information is given in a WARNORD and in what format is it written? - correct answer- Unit mission and leader's timeline in as much detail as possible Follow 5 paragraph OPORD format What is involved in step 3 of TLPs (Make a Tentative Plan)? - correct answer-This step combines the MDMP steps 2 through 6: mission analysis, COA development, COA analysis, COA comparison, and COA approval. -Leaders perform mission analysis through METT-TC What is OAKOC? - correct answer-A method to analyze terrain and weather -Observation and fields of fire -Avenues of approach -Key and decisive terrain -Obstacles -Cover and concealment AMEDD BOLC MIDTERM EXAM 2024-2025 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES|ALREADY GRADED A What are the 6 characteristics of civil considerations (ASCOPE)? - correct answer--Areas: localities that are not normally militarily significant -Structures: how its location, functions, and capabilities can support the operation. -Capabilities: those required to save, sustain, or enhance life, in that priority. -Organizations: are nonmilitary groups or institutions in the AO. -People: people can affect a military operation positively, negatively, or neutrally. -Events: routine, cyclical, planned, or spontaneous activities that significantly affect organizations, people, and military operations What is involved in step 4 of TLPs (Initiate Movement)? - correct answer-Leaders conduct any movement directed by higher headquarters or deemed necessary to continue mission preparation or position the unit for execution What is involved in step 5 of TLPs (Conduct Reconaissance)? - correct answer-Leaders personally observe the AO for the mission prior to execution. -Minimum action necessary is a thorough map reconnaissance -Different types of reconnaissance: map, terrain model, aerial photo, ground What is involved in step 6 of TLPs (Complete the Plan)? - correct answer-Leaders incorporate the results of reconnaissance into their selected COA to complete the plan or order. -Leaders make final coordination with adjacent units and higher headquarters before issuing the order. What is involved in step 7 of TLPs (Issue the Order)? - correct answer-The ideal location for issuing the order is a point in the AO with a view of the objective and other aspects of the terrain. -Are clear, complete, brief, timely allow initiative, authoritative -Use terrain model during brief AMEDD BOLC MIDTERM EXAM 2024-2025 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES|ALREADY GRADED A What form is used for Academic Evaluation Reports? - correct answer-DA Form 1059 What form is used for the officer record brief? - correct answer-DA Form 4037 Who are ORBs centrally managed by? - correct answer-Officer records Branch -updated through personnel systems Who's responsibility is it to update an ORB? - correct answer-The soldier's responsibility What is a decentralized promotion? - correct answer-•2LT to 1LT and WO1 to CW2 •Fully qualified criteria •No numerical limits •Yes / No recommendation by local CDR (O-5) What is a centralized promotion? - correct answer-•Beyond 1LT and CW2 •Best qualified criteria •Numerical limits •Fully qualified versus Best qualified -Best qualified are selected for promotion first •Order of merit list What are the Army Competitive Categories (ACCs) and Special branches? - correct answer-ACC: Includes Infantry, Quartermaster, Engineers, Signal, and most other branches Special: AMEDD (All 6 Corps), JAG, Chaplain -Separate promotion boards -Special pays, depending on the specialty What are the key documents needed for promotion boards? - correct answer--Official Military Personnel File (OMPF) -Officer Record Brief (ORB)* - correct and validated Who sits on the officer promotion board? - correct answer-At least five active-duty officers (MAJ and above) What are the meanings of PZ, BZ, and AZ in board announcements? - correct answer-Primary Zone (PZ) - all officers within the identified year group are considered for promotion AMEDD BOLC MIDTERM EXAM 2024-2025 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES|ALREADY GRADED A Below the Zone (BZ) - not yet PZ, but are considered for promotion ahead of peers due to record Above the Zone (AZ) - previous non-selects -Must show cause for non-fully qualified What is the purpose of Officer Evaluation Reports (OERs)? - correct answer-Provide information to DA selection boards and assignment managers for use in making personnel management decisions. The rating chain usually consists of who? - correct answer--Rated officer -Rater -Intermediate rater* -Senior rater -Supplementary reviewer* Commander is responsible What are the responsibilities of the rated officer? - correct answer-Meet with rater within 30 days Initiate discussion of duties and objectives Assess and update objectives Complete DA Form 67-10-1A (Officer Evaluation Support Form) What are the qualifications of a rater? - correct answer-•Immediate supervisor •U.S. / Allied Armed Forces Officer / U.S. Government Employee •Senior in grade or date of rank -Command position exception AMEDD BOLC MIDTERM EXAM 2024-2025 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES|ALREADY GRADED A Normally must serve 90 days What are the responsibilities of the rater? - correct answer--Provide rater and senior rater support forms -Discuss job description and performance objectives with rated officer within 30 days -Counsel quarterly throughout rating period -Assess the performance of the rated officer -Verify height/weight and APFT data What are the qualifications for an intermediate rater? - correct answer-•Between rater/senior rater •Limited to special branches and dual supervision situations •U.S. / Allied Armed Forces Officer / U.S. Government Employee •Senior in grade or date of rank to rated officer •Must serve minimum of 60 days •Technical expert What are the responsibilities of the intermediate rater? - correct answer-•Familiar with rated officer's performance •Provide input on DA Form 67-10-1A •Provide objective, comprehensive evaluation of performance and potential What are the qualifications for a senior rater? - correct answer-•Senior to rater and intermediate rater •U.S. Armed Forces Officer or U.S. Government Employee •Minimum grade: -Military: O-4 (officer) or E-7 (NCO) -Civilian: GS-13 Must serve minimum of 60 days What are the responsibilities of the senior rater? - correct answer-•Ensure support form is distributed •Review DA Form 67-10-1A •Ensure rater counsels rated officer AMEDD BOLC MIDTERM EXAM 2024-2025 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES|ALREADY GRADED A Reports may not be altered other than to correct items indicated during inquiry What are the 2 types of appeals and when are they used? - correct answer-Administrative - Only for administrative errors - Adjudicated by Evaluation Appeals Branch, HQDA Substantive Differences of opinion - Prejudice - Inaccurate / unjust ratings - Adjudicated by Army Special Review Board (ASRB) True or False? All of an OER cannot be appealed - correct answer-False. All or part of an OER may be appealed What is the time limit for each type of appeal? - correct answer-3 yrs for substantive appeals No time limit for administrative appeals What is a strategic environment? - correct answer-The global environment in which the US President employs all the elements of national power what is an operational environment? - correct answer-All of the conditions and influences that affect where soldiers will live, work, train, and fight. What are the 5 main characteristics of complex operational environments that are likely to impact land force operations in the future? - correct answer-Increased velocity and Momentum of Human Interaction and Events: Potential for Overmatch Proliferation of Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) Spread of Advanced Cyberspace and Counter-Space Capabilities AMEDD BOLC MIDTERM EXAM 2024-2025 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES|ALREADY GRADED A Demographics and Operations Among Populations in Cities and in Complex Terrain Multi-domain warfare includes but is not limited to the physical areas of - correct answer--Air -Land -Maritime -Space -Cyberspace Who are the nation-state actors in an operational environment? - correct answer--Core states -Transition states -Rogue states -Failed or failing states Who are non-state actors/rogue actors in an operational environment? - correct answer-- Terrorists -Insurgents -Drug-traffickers -Criminals Who are third party actors in an operational environment? - correct answer-Third-party actors may not be openly hostile to U.S. forces, but can disrupt or negatively affect our ability to accomplish the mission as they require assets to either provide security or monitor their actions. -Considered non-combatants What is a non-combatant? - correct answer-An individual, in an area of combat operations, who is not armed and is not participating in any activity in support of any of the factions or forces involved in combat. What are individual and group non-combatant motivations? - correct answer-Individual: •Altruism •Personal dissatisfaction and self improvement •Job satisfaction •Greed/corruption/embezzlement AMEDD BOLC MIDTERM EXAM 2024-2025 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES|ALREADY GRADED A •Garner political favor or influence Group: •Eliminate hunger, disease, or poverty •Fulfill public or stated mission statements (charity) and hidden agendas (religion and culture) •Provide natural disaster relief •Reflect home country moral convictions or policies What is a hybrid threat? - correct answer-Two or more distinctly different potential enemies join together to fight the United States. What is the form used for an NCOER? - correct answer-- DA 2166-9-1 SGT/SGT(P) (Direct) - DA 2166-9-2 SSG-1SG/MSG (Organizational) - DA 2166-9-3 CSM/SGM (Strategic) In an NCOER what do the rater and senior rater assess? - correct answer-Rater assesses performance Senior rater assesses potential What are the performance measures raters use in NCOERs? - correct answer--Far exceeded standard -Exceeded standard -Met standard (Direct level only) -Did not meet standard (Direct level only) What are the potential measures senior raters use in NCOERs? - correct answer-MOST QUALIFIED - identify NCOs with strong potential for promotion in the secondary zone; ahead of peers (Note: Senior raters will manage a constrained profile up to 24%) HIGHLY QUALIFIED - strong potential for promotion with peers QUALIFIED - potential to be successful at the next level; promote if able NOT QUALIFIED - Do not demonstrate potential for promotion; recommend separation AMEDD BOLC MIDTERM EXAM 2024-2025 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES|ALREADY GRADED A What is custodial responsibility? - correct answer-The obligation of an individual for property in storage awaiting issue or turn-in to exercise reasonable and prudent actions to properly care for and ensure proper custody and safekeeping of the property are provided. What is personal responsibility? - correct answer-The obligation of a person to execute reasonable and prudent actions to properly use, care for, and safeguard all Government property in their possession What are the 3 P's of property accountability? - correct answer-People, Property and Process What are the phases of change of command inventory? - correct answer-1. In brief from PBO2 2. Incoming and Outgoing CDR conduct a joint inventory of all property 3. 30 days allotted to conduct joint inventory. If not complete in time, request extension in writing to the commander. 4. Review the property listing 5. Notify the sub-hand holders when and how the inventory will be conducted 6. Ensure that the most current Supply Catalogs, component lists, Technical Manuals and other related publications are used during inventory 7. Ensure all items are serviceable 8. If items are in maintenance, make sure the maintenance request is valid. 9. Report damaged equipment to unit maintenance personnel for repair 10. Report all differences regarding property discrepancies to the accountable officer or PBO 11. Sign property listing acknowledging responsibility of property What are the steps in Post Change of Command inventory? - correct answer-1. Incoming CDR signs COC memorandum 2. Incoming commander prepares DA Form 1687 (Delegation of Authority Signature Card) and distributes to agencies (3) Incoming and Outgoing CDR final brief to Battalion and Brigade CDR AMEDD BOLC MIDTERM EXAM 2024-2025 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES|ALREADY GRADED A What is the Command Supply Discipline Program (CDSP)? - correct answer-Commander's program directed at ensuring compliance with HQ, DA supply policies and procedures. It is a mandatory program at all levels of command What is used to enforce the Command Supply Discipline Program (CDSP)? - correct answer- Leadership Command emphasis Training Administrative measures Disciplinary measures