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AMEDD BOLC Midterm Exam Questions and Answers, Exams of Nursing

The questions and answers for the amedd bolc midterm exam, covering topics such as the perspectives of the amedd, health service support, counseling approaches, and promotion boards.

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 02/21/2024

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Download AMEDD BOLC Midterm Exam Questions and Answers and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! AMEDD BOLC Midterm AMEDD BOLC Midterm Exam Questions Containing 185 Terms with Correct Solutions 2024. The AMEDD views threats from what two perspectives? - Answer: General threat and health threat What is a health threat? - Answer: composite of ongoing potential enemy actions; adverse environmental, occupational, and geographic and meteorological conditions, endemic diseases, CBRN, etc. AMEDD BOLC Midterm What is health Service Support (HSS)? - Answer: All support and services performed, provided, and arranged by the AMEDD to promote, improve, conserve, or restore the mental and physical well-being of personnel in the Army. Anything that helps improve the physical and mental state of people in the Army. What are the 3 components of Health Service Support? - Answer: Casualty Care: treatment, hospitalization, dental, neuropsychic, and lab services Medical evacuation: medical regulating and enroute care Medical logistics: all subcomponents and services What is Force Health Protection (FHP)? - Answer: Measures to promote, improve, or conserve the mental and physical well-being of Soldiers. What is involved in Force Health Protection? - Answer: -Preventative medicine -Veterinary services, food inspection, zoonotic disease prevention -Combat operational stress control (COSC) -Dental services (preventative) -Lab services and support AMEDD BOLC Midterm Regional focus What are the 3 mission command organizations? - Answer: Medical command (Deployment support)- medical force provider Medical brigade (Support)-provide mission command of all attached/assigned AHS units Medical Battalion (Multifunctional)-provide mission command, administrative assistance, logistical support, and technical supervision capability What are the responsibilities of the medical commander? - Answer: Exercises mission command (authority and direction) over his subordinate medical resources What are the responsibilities of the command surgeon? - Answer: At all levels of command, a command surgeon is designated. This AMEDD officer is a special staff officer charged with planning for and executing the AHS mission What are the responsibilities of the line commander? - Answer: The commander ensures health promotion program. This encompasses the assets of educational, environmental, and AHS support services AMEDD BOLC Midterm What is the Law of Land Warfare inspired by? What does it do? - Answer: The desire to diminish the evils of war -Protects combatants and noncombatants from unnecessary suffering -Safeguards certain fundamental human rights of persons who fall into the hands of the enemy, particularly detainees/enemy prisoners of war, the wounded and sick, and civilians -Facilitates the restoration of peace What are possible operation variables? (Known as PMESII-PT) - Answer: Political Military Economic Social Infrastructure Information Physical environment Time Name the possible mission variables. (Known as METT-TC) - Answer: Mission Enemy Terrain and weather Troops and support available Time available Civil considerations AMEDD BOLC Midterm What is task organization? - Answer: A tool used by commanders to tailor their forces to specific mission requirements. Task-organization is a temporary grouping of forces designed to accomplish a particular mission What are the four supporting tasks to decisive operations? - Answer: Offensive tasks Defensive tasks Stability tasks Defense support of civil authorities What is counseling? - Answer: The process used by leaders to review with a subordinate their demonstrated performance and potential What are the 3 types of counseling? - Answer: 1. Event- for specific event/situation, and precede or follow events like a school or duty performance 2. Performance-review of duty performance over certain period 3. Professional growth-planning for accomplishment of goals What are the approaches to counseling? - Answer: 1. Nondirective approach- •Leaders use experiences, insight and judgment to assist subordinates in developing solutions, explain expectations AMEDD BOLC Midterm 6)Plan the counseling strategy 7)Establish the right atmosphere What are the 4 basic components during the counseling session (Stage 3)? - Answer: 1.Opening 2.Discussion 3.Plan of action 4.Record and close What form is used for counselings? - Answer: DA Form 4856 What are the different types of promotions and their authorities? - Answer: Decentralized (Chapter 2): To SPC/CPL and below Authority: Unit commander Semi-centralized (Chapter 3): To SGT and SSG Authority: Battalion Commander Centralized (Chapter 4): To SFC-SGM Authority: Headquarters, Department of the Army (HQDA) (HRC) What are the categories of individual awards? - Answer: Decorations Good Conduct Medal Service Medals / Service Ribbons Badges / Tabs AMEDD BOLC Midterm Certificates / Letters Foreign Awards What do service (campaign) medals and ribbons denote? - Answer: Honorable performance of duty within specified limited dates in specified geographical areas. What are the different types of badges? - Answer: Combat Identification Special skill Marksmanship When are wartime decorations authorized? - Answer: For wartime valor, service or achievement: What is the form used for the recommendation for an award? - Answer: DA Form 638 The Medal of Honor, Distinguished Service Cross, Distinguished Service Medal, Silver Star and Legion of Merit fall under what category of awards? - Answer: Decorations Who is the policy proponent for the Army decorations, awards and honors program? - Answer: G-1 AMEDD BOLC Midterm What are the 2 basic categories of evaluation reports? - Answer: Mandatory and optional What are the types of mandatory reports? - Answer: Annual- Done when 1 calendar year of duty is completed Change of Rater-Rater changed Relief for Cause- Removal of individual based on conduct Change of Duty- (officers only) When rated officer has changed of principal duty Extended annual Departure on TDY/Special duty Officer Non-select for Promotion Initial tour of extended active duty HRC directed What are the types of optional reports? - Answer: Complete the Record- intended to update individual's file with performance and potential info Senior Rater (SR) option reports- When a change in SR occurs, the SR may direct that a report be made on any Soldier whom they senior rate. Special situations: Soldier assigned to WTU AMEDD BOLC Midterm -Authorized for Soldiers who served in an area qualifying for hostile fire or imminent danger pay for at least 120 continuous days. How many leave days are soldiers allowed to carry forward at the end of a fiscal year? - Answer: Up to 90 days -60 days normal leave carry over plus 30 days special leave accrual What is chargeable leave? - Answer: Leave that is subtracted from a soldier's accrued leave balance What is ordinary leave? - Answer: Taken by a Soldier who is at a permanent duty station and wishes to take time off from work What is transition leave? - Answer: Taken by a Soldier who will be separating from the service by either ETS, Release from Active Duty (REFRAD) or retiring What is emergency leave? - Answer: Used for family emergencies. Immediate family includes: Parents, including Stepparents, Spouse, Children, including Stepchildren, Sisters, Brothers, only living blood relative and a person in loco parentis What is Permanent Change of Station (PCS)? - Answer: When a Soldier is reassigned from one duty station to another, PCS leave can be taken before or after arrival at the new unit AMEDD BOLC Midterm What is leave in Conjunction with Temporary Duty (TDY)? - Answer: Leave taken en route to or from a Soldier's temporary duty station. What is Nonchargeable leave? - Answer: Absence that is NOT charged against a Soldier's accrued leave balance: What is Convalescent leave? - Answer: Granted to a Soldier to expedite a member's return to full duty after an illness or injury. What is Permissive Temporary Duty (PTDY)? - Answer: Taken by a Soldier to attend a semi-official activity. What is Excess leave? - Answer: Granted for emergencies or unusual circumstances. Advanced leave is normally expended prior to using excess leave -Becomes an indebtedness when there is a negative leave balance -No pay and allowances What is Regular Pass? - Answer: A short, nonchargeable, authorized absence from post or place of duty during normal off duty hours -Can't exceed 3 days What is a Special Pass? - Answer: A short nonchargeable authorized absence from post or place of duty. It may be granted as a 3-day or 4-day Special Pass. AMEDD BOLC Midterm Is Emergency Leave for death of an immediate family member a chargeable or non-chargeable leave? - Answer: Nonchargeable What is a Flag and what are the 2 categories? - Answer: Flag: Suspension of Favorable Personnel actions Transferable: Flag may be transferred to another unit Non-transferable: May not be transferred to another unit What are examples of transferable flags? - Answer: -APFT failures -Soldiers in Weight Control Program -Punishment phase of adverse action What are examples of non-transferable flags? - Answer: -Adverse actions (charges, investigation, court-martial, AWOL) -Involuntary separation or discharge -Removal from selection list -Referred OER or Relief for Cause NCOER -CDR's investigation -Failure to provide + maintain Family Care Plan -Security violation -Drug/alcohol offenses AMEDD BOLC Midterm •Personal Effects What are the 3 distinct operations of the Army Mortuary Affairs Program? - Answer: 1. Current Death (Used in Garrison) -Always in peacetime -When possible in conflicts 2. Concurrent return -In conflict from a theater of operations to a servicing mortuary through MA channels -Ship PE to PE Depot for shipment to PERE 3. Temporary Internment -Temporary interment/disinterment of human remains. Only when authorized by the responsible commander during major military operations -No disposition of PE Where are Mortuary Affairs Collection Point (MACP) located in theater? - Answer: Always co-located on bases with Role 3 facilities and usually co-located with Role 2 facilities (usually operate as close to the airstrip as possible) Where is the Theater Mortuary Evacuation Point (TMEP) - Answer: At a major Aerial Port of Embarkation Where is the port of entry mortuary facility? - Answer: Dover AFB AMEDD BOLC Midterm By when do remains have to reach MACP, TMEP and Dover AFB? - Answer: Within 24 hrs By when do remains have to reach the deceased's family? - Answer: Within 72-96 hrs What are examples of tentative and positive identifications for remains? - Answer: Tentative -DD Form 565 Positive (Done at Dover): -DNA test -Dental records -Finger printing What is the role of a Summary Courts-Martial Officer (SMCO)? - Answer: -Must be appointed within 48 hrs -Should be someone detached from Soldier -Separate distasteful items and record that they were destroyed (Maintain a good memory of the Soldier) -Inventory all PE with the unit or in quarters -Accurate documentation on DD Form 1076 -Utilize MA NCO at BDE -Also used for Soldiers evacuated from theater AMEDD BOLC Midterm True or False? NEVER send PE straight to family from theater (everything goes through PE channels to PE Depot) - Answer: True What actions should be done in post mortem care? - Answer: -Place body in Human Remains Pouch (cover with poncho or blanket if not available) -Place body in supine position, close eyes -Tie wrists together, may need to apply bandage to lower jaw -Provider may be asked to confirm death -Consult with mortuary affairs -Complete documentation and pass along PE, regardless of condition -DO NOT remove adjuncts from body -Ensure proper identification -Place body in shaded cool area How many tags are required on human remains and where are they placed? - Answer: 3 -Great toe -Wrist -Zipper of pouch What are Troop Leading Procedures (TLPs)? - Answer: Dynamic process used by small-unit leaders to analyze a mission, develop a plan, and prepare for an operation AMEDD BOLC Midterm -Cover and concealment What are the 6 characteristics of civil considerations (ASCOPE)? - Answer: -Areas: localities that are not normally militarily significant -Structures: how its location, functions, and capabilities can support the operation. -Capabilities: those required to save, sustain, or enhance life, in that priority. -Organizations: are nonmilitary groups or institutions in the AO. -People: people can affect a military operation positively, negatively, or neutrally. -Events: routine, cyclical, planned, or spontaneous activities that significantly affect organizations, people, and military operations What is involved in step 4 of TLPs (Initiate Movement)? - Answer: Leaders conduct any movement directed by higher headquarters or deemed necessary to continue mission preparation or position the unit for execution What is involved in step 5 of TLPs (Conduct Reconaissance)? - Answer: Leaders personally observe the AO for the mission prior to execution. -Minimum action necessary is a thorough map reconnaissance -Different types of reconnaissance: map, terrain model, aerial photo, ground AMEDD BOLC Midterm What is involved in step 6 of TLPs (Complete the Plan)? - Answer: Leaders incorporate the results of reconnaissance into their selected COA to complete the plan or order. -Leaders make final coordination with adjacent units and higher headquarters before issuing the order. What is involved in step 7 of TLPs (Issue the Order)? - Answer: The ideal location for issuing the order is a point in the AO with a view of the objective and other aspects of the terrain. -Are clear, complete, brief, timely allow initiative, authoritative -Use terrain model during brief What is involved in step 8 of TLPs (Supervise and refine)? - Answer: Leaders monitor mission preparations, refine the plan, coordinate with adjacent units, and supervise and assess preparations -Supervise subordinates and inspect equipment -Conduct rehearsals What are the 4 types of rehearsals? - Answer: 1. Back brief's (Select people in the platoon). 2. Combined arms rehearsal. 3. Support rehearsal (Aid and Litter Team). AMEDD BOLC Midterm 4. Battle drill or SOP rehearsal Who exercises personnel management authority over AMEDD officers (except general officers) in their special branches? - Answer: The Surgeon General What are the functions of OPMS? - Answer: •Accessions •Assignments process and considerations •Strength Management •Professional Development What are the 6 AMEDD Corps branches? - Answer: •Medical Corps (MC) •Dental Corps (DC) •Veterinary Corps (VC) •Nurse Corps (AN) •Medical Specialist Corps (SP) •Medical Service Corps (MS) How are Medical Officer assignments dictated? - Answer: -Dictated by Army needs -Army Medical Department Officer Distribution Plan -Availability -Professional Development Needs -Education and Training -Other considerations -Personal preferences and compassionate factors AMEDD BOLC Midterm What are the Army Competitive Categories (ACCs) and Special branches? - Answer: ACC: Includes Infantry, Quartermaster, Engineers, Signal, and most other branches Special: AMEDD (All 6 Corps), JAG, Chaplain -Separate promotion boards -Special pays, depending on the specialty What are the key documents needed for promotion boards? - Answer: -Official Military Personnel File (OMPF) -Officer Record Brief (ORB)* - correct and validated Who sits on the officer promotion board? - Answer: At least five active-duty officers (MAJ and above) What are the meanings of PZ, BZ, and AZ in board announcements? - Answer: Primary Zone (PZ) - all officers within the identified year group are considered for promotion Below the Zone (BZ) - not yet PZ, but are considered for promotion ahead of peers due to record Above the Zone (AZ) - previous non-selects -Must show cause for non-fully qualified AMEDD BOLC Midterm What is the purpose of Officer Evaluation Reports (OERs)? - Answer: Provide information to DA selection boards and assignment managers for use in making personnel management decisions. The rating chain usually consists of who? - Answer: -Rated officer -Rater -Intermediate rater* -Senior rater -Supplementary reviewer* Commander is responsible What are the responsibilities of the rated officer? - Answer: Meet with rater within 30 days Initiate discussion of duties and objectives Assess and update objectives Complete DA Form 67-10-1A (Officer Evaluation Support Form) What are the qualifications of a rater? - Answer: •Immediate supervisor •U.S. / Allied Armed Forces Officer / U.S. Government Employee •Senior in grade or date of rank AMEDD BOLC Midterm -Command position exception Normally must serve 90 days What are the responsibilities of the rater? - Answer: -Provide rater and senior rater support forms -Discuss job description and performance objectives with rated officer within 30 days -Counsel quarterly throughout rating period -Assess the performance of the rated officer -Verify height/weight and APFT data What are the qualifications for an intermediate rater? - Answer: •Between rater/senior rater •Limited to special branches and dual supervision situations •U.S. / Allied Armed Forces Officer / U.S. Government Employee •Senior in grade or date of rank to rated officer •Must serve minimum of 60 days •Technical expert What are the responsibilities of the intermediate rater? - Answer: •Familiar with rated officer's performance •Provide input on DA Form 67-10-1A •Provide objective, comprehensive evaluation of performance and potential AMEDD BOLC Midterm HIGHLY QUALIFIED: Strong potential for promotion with peers QUALIFIED: Capable of success at the next level; promote if able NOT QUALIFIED: Not recommended for promotion What is the purpose of the OER support form? - Answer: Used to mentor and develop subordinates, and aids in defining/guiding goals and objectives tied to leadership attributes and competencies What is the Evaluation Entry System (EES) and what are its benefits? - Answer: EES is a web-based tool, which is used to complete and submit evaluations. -Enhanced wizard to guide rating chain and Human Resource professionals in preparing the evaluation -Eliminates accessing multiple systems and consolidates evaluation tools to one system What is the minimum rating period - Answer: 90 days for Active Duty 120 days for Reserve Component What are referred reports? - Answer: Reports that contain negative comments or unfavorable ratings regarding an officer's performance/potential, traits, skills, or attributes AMEDD BOLC Midterm Referred to the rated officer first; if further action is required a Commander's Inquiry or appeal process may be pursued What may cause a mandatory referral? - Answer: •"Fail" entry for APFT or "NO" for weight • Negative remarks in Part IV (Professionalism, Competencies and Attributes) •"Do not promote" or similar comments •"Not Qualified" Senior Rater block check •Negative comments in the narratives A Commander's Inquiry may be performed for OERs containing? - Answer: - Alleged errors -Injustices -Illegalities Reports may not be altered other than to correct items indicated during inquiry What are the 2 types of appeals and when are they used? - Answer: Administrative - Only for administrative errors - Adjudicated by Evaluation Appeals Branch, HQDA Substantive Differences of opinion - Prejudice AMEDD BOLC Midterm - Inaccurate / unjust ratings - Adjudicated by Army Special Review Board (ASRB) True or False? All of an OER cannot be appealed - Answer: False. All or part of an OER may be appealed What is the time limit for each type of appeal? - Answer: 3 yrs for substantive appeals No time limit for administrative appeals What is a strategic environment? - Answer: The global environment in which the US President employs all the elements of national power what is an operational environment? - Answer: All of the conditions and influences that affect where soldiers will live, work, train, and fight. What are the 5 main characteristics of complex operational environments that are likely to impact land force operations in the future? - Answer: Increased velocity and Momentum of Human Interaction and Events: Potential for Overmatch Proliferation of Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) Spread of Advanced Cyberspace and Counter-Space Capabilities AMEDD BOLC Midterm What is the form used for an NCOER? - Answer: - DA 2166-9-1 SGT/SGT(P) (Direct) - DA 2166-9-2 SSG-1SG/MSG (Organizational) - DA 2166-9-3 CSM/SGM (Strategic) In an NCOER what do the rater and senior rater assess? - Answer: Rater assesses performance Senior rater assesses potential What are the performance measures raters use in NCOERs? - Answer: -Far exceeded standard -Exceeded standard -Met standard (Direct level only) -Did not meet standard (Direct level only) What are the potential measures senior raters use in NCOERs? - Answer: MOST QUALIFIED - identify NCOs with strong potential for promotion in the secondary zone; ahead of peers (Note: Senior raters will manage a constrained profile up to 24%) HIGHLY QUALIFIED - strong potential for promotion with peers QUALIFIED - potential to be successful at the next level; promote if able AMEDD BOLC Midterm NOT QUALIFIED - Do not demonstrate potential for promotion; recommend separation What is a rater tendency and for what ranks are rater tendency labels required on the NCOER? - Answer: Rating history. The value below each box equals the overall history of those ratings in this grade SSG-CSM/SGM What are the 5 steps in the risk management process? - Answer: 1. Identify hazards 2. Assess hazards 3. Develop controls and make decisions 4. Implement controls 5. Supervise and evaluate What are the two application levels of risk management? - Answer: Deliberate: Ample time is available to apply the five-step process as part of detailed planning for an operation. Real-Time: Immediate management of hazards as they occur, usually during execution of an operation or performance of a task. Risk management is integrated with what other army process? - Answer: Troop leading procedures AMEDD BOLC Midterm What is a hazard? - Answer: An actual or potential condition, situation, or event that can result in injury, illness, death, damage/destruction of property, loss of capabilities/mission failure How are hazards identified? - Answer: Experience Historical data SOPs Intuitive analysis Logic diagrams Training assessments AARs What categories are used to assess hazards? - Answer: Probability, severity, and risk level What are the 5 levels of probability in risk management? - Answer: Frequent Likely Occasional Seldom Unlikely What are the 4 levels of severity used in risk management? - Answer: Catastrophic Critical Moderate AMEDD BOLC Midterm all property 3. 30 days allotted to conduct joint inventory. If not complete in time, request extension in writing to the commander. 4. Review the property listing 5. Notify the sub-hand holders when and how the inventory will be conducted 6. Ensure that the most current Supply Catalogs, component lists, Technical Manuals and other related publications are used during inventory 7. Ensure all items are serviceable 8. If items are in maintenance, make sure the maintenance request is valid. 9. Report damaged equipment to unit maintenance personnel for repair 10. Report all differences regarding property discrepancies to the accountable officer or PBO 11. Sign property listing acknowledging responsibility of property What are the steps in Post Change of Command inventory? - Answer: 1. Incoming CDR signs COC memorandum 2. Incoming commander prepares DA Form 1687 (Delegation of Authority Signature Card) and distributes to agencies (3) Incoming and Outgoing CDR final brief to Battalion and Brigade CDR What is the Command Supply Discipline Program (CDSP)? - Answer: Commander's program directed at ensuring compliance with HQ, DA supply policies and procedures. It is a mandatory program at all levels of command AMEDD BOLC Midterm What is used to enforce the Command Supply Discipline Program (CDSP)? - Answer: Leadership Command emphasis Training Administrative measures Disciplinary measures