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AMEDD BOLC Midterm questions with correct answers, Exams of Nursing

AMEDD BOLC Midterm questions with correct answers

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 08/28/2024

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Download AMEDD BOLC Midterm questions with correct answers and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! AMEDD BOLC Midterm questions with correct answers The AMEDD views threats from what two perspectives? - Ans General threat and health threat What is a health threat? - Ans composite of ongoing potential enemy actions; adverse environmental, occupational, and geographic and meteorological conditions, endemic diseases, CBRN, etc What is health Service Support (HSS)? - Ans All support and services performed, provided, and arranged by the AMEDD to promote, improve, conserve, or restore the mental and physical well being of personnel in the Army. Anything that helps improve the physical and mental state of people in the Army. What are the 3 components of Health Service Support? - Ans Casualty Care: treatment, hospitalization, dental, neuropsych, and lab services Medical evacuation: medical regulating and en route care Medical logistics: all subcomponents and services What is Force Health Protection (FHP)? - Ans Measures to promote, improve, or conserve the mental and physical well-being of Soldiers. What is involved in Force Health Protection? - Ans -Preventative medicine -Veterinary services, food inspection, zoonotic disease prevention -Combat operational stress control (COSC) -Dental services (preventative) -Lab services and support What is the Army health System? - Ans All encompassing term to describe both the HSS and FHP aspects of AMEDD support. What are the 3 parts of Tactical Combat Casualty Care (TC3)? - Ans Care Under Fire Tactical Field Care Tactical Evacuation What are the 6 principles of the Army health System? - Ans 1. Conformity 2. Proximity 3. Flexibility 4. Mobility 5. Continuity 6. Control What are Roles 1, 2 3 and 4? - Ans Role 1: BN aid station and below -Immediate life saving measures What is the Law of Land Warfare inspired by? What does it do? - Ans The desire to diminish the evils of war -Protects combatants and noncombatants from unnecessary suffering -Safeguards certain fundamental human rights of persons who fall into the hands of the enemy, particularly detainees/enemy prisoners of war, the wounded and sick, and civilians -Facilitates the restoration of peace What are possible operation variables? (Known as PMESII-PT) - Ans Political Military Economic Social Infrastructure Information Physical environment Time Name the possible mission variables. (Known as METT-TC) - Ans Mission Enemy Terrain and weather Troops and support available Time available Civil considerations What is task organization? - Ans A tool used by commanders to tailor their forces to specific mission requirements. Task-organization is a temporary grouping of forces designed to accomplish a particular mission What are the four supporting tasks to decisive operations? - Ans Offensive tasks Defensive tasks Stability tasks Defense support of civil authorities What is counseling? - Ans The process used by leaders to review with a subordinate their demonstrated performance and potential What are the 3 types of counseling? - Ans 1. Event- for specific event/situation, and precede or follow events like a school or duty performance 2. Performance-review of duty performance over certain period 3. Professional growth-planning for accomplishment of goals What are the approaches to counseling? - Ans 1. Nondirective approach- •Leaders use experiences, insight and judgment to assist subordinates in developing solutions, explain expectations 2. Directive approach- •Leader does most of the talking and tells subordinate what to do and when to do it. Works best to correct simple problems 3. Combined approach- •Leader uses techniques from both approaches, adjusting them to fit what's best for the subordinate. Emphasize planning and decision making What are the advantages and disadvantages of the Nondirective approach? - Ans Pros: Encourages maturity Encourages open communication Develops personal responsibility Cons: More time-consuming Requires greatest counselor skills What are the advantages and disadvantages of the Directive approach? - Ans Pros: Good for people who need clear, concise direction Allows counselors to use their experience Quickest method Cons: Discourages subordinates to be part of the solution Tends to treat symptoms, not problems Discourages free talk Solution is the counselor's Identification Special skill Marksmanship When are wartime decorations authorized? - Ans For wartime valor, service or achievement: What is the form used for the recommendation for an award? - Ans DA Form 638 The Medal of Honor, Distinguished Service Cross, Distinguished Service Medal, Silver Star and Legion of Merit fall under what category of awards? - Ans Decorations Who is the policy proponent for the Army decorations, awards and honors program? - Ans G-1 What are the 2 basic categories of evaluation reports? - Ans Mandatory and optional What are the types of mandatory reports? - Ans Annual- Done when 1 calendar year of duty is completed Change of Rater-Rater changed Relief for Cause- Removal of individual based on conduct Change of Duty- (officers only) When rated officer has changed of principal duty Extended annual Departure on TDY/Special duty Officer Non-select for Promotion Initial tour of extended active duty HRC directed What are the types of optional reports? - Ans Complete the Record- intended to update individual's file with performance and potential info Senior Rater (SR) option reports- When a change in SR occurs, the SR may direct that a report be made on any Soldier whom they senior rate. Special situations: Soldier assigned to WTU Rater Option Report When must the scope of a rated soldier's duty description be discussed? - Ans Within 30 days after the beginning of the rating period At a minimum, a counseling will include: - Ans Duty description and performance objectives to attain. Relationship of duty description and objectives with the organization's mission. What are the senior rater's rating chain responsibilities? - Ans Ensure Rater counsels the rated Soldier throughout the rating period Review and initial Counseling and Support Forms at the beginning and during rating period Use all reasonable means to become familiar with Soldier's performance. Ensure rater's portion is fair, accurate and candid. Assess and evaluate the abilities and potential of the rated Soldier relative to his/her peers. When is a supplementary reviewer required? - Ans When the senior rater is a 2LT-1LT, WO1-CW2, or SFC-1SG/MSG; in certain situations What are the primary and secondary functions of evaluation reports? - Ans Primary: Assist in making personnel management decisions Secondary: Encourage leader professional development Department of the Army Evaluations focus on a Soldier's potential based on what three factors? - Ans 1. Duty performance 2. Army requirements for soldiers 3. Leadership qualifications What is leave and who is the approval authority? - Ans An authorized absence from duty and is essential to the health, welfare, and morale of all Soldiers of a unit Is Emergency Leave for death of an immediate family member a chargeable or non-chargeable leave? - Ans Nonchargeable What is a Flag and what are the 2 categories? - Ans Flag: Suspension of Favorable Personnel actions Transferable: Flag may be transferred to another unit Non-transferable: May not be transferred to another unit What are examples of transferable flags? - Ans -APFT failures -Soldiers in Weight Control Program -Punishment phase of adverse action What are examples of non-transferable flags? - Ans -Adverse actions (charges, investigation, court-martial, AWOL) -Involuntary separation or discharge -Removal from selection list -Referred OER or Relief for Cause NCOER -CDR's investigation -Failure to provide + maintain Family Care Plan -Security violation -Drug/alcohol offenses What is the effective date of a flag? - Ans -The date that the circumstance(s) requiring the flag occurred, not the date the flag was initiated (Unless otherwise specified) -The date the commander signs the intent to separate notification memorandum -The date HQDA initiates an involuntary separation action True or False. A flag may NOT be initiated based on referral, screening or enrollment into the Army Substance Abuse Program (ASAP). - Ans True When can a flag be removed? - Ans As soon as the Soldier is released without charges, the charges are dropped, or the punishment (confinement, probation, restriction, extra duty, etc.) or adverse action is completed. A flag based on APFT failure or weight control failure must be removed as soon as the Soldier either passes the APFT or meets weight standards. What areas can a failure with the Mortuary Affairs (MA) mission or disrespectful handling of remains negatively impact? - Ans •Troop morale within the losing unit •National public support •Coalition support •Local national support •Enemy treatment of remains and/or prisoners What does full accounting (of remains) require? - Ans -Proper identification -Explanation as to the cause and manner of death Contingency fatality operations occur at what levels in a theater of operation? - Ans All levels What are the 3 phases of search and recovery operations? - Ans Combat, Post Combat and area clearance. What are PADD, PE, and PERE? What is their order after search and recovery? - Ans PADD: Person Authorized to Direct Disposition PE: Personal effects PERE: Person Eligible to Receive Effects Search/recovery > remains returned to PADD > PE returned to PERE What is involved in joint mortuary affairs? - Ans •Initial Search and Recovery starts with the unit personnel •Tentative Identification •Coordinated Evacuation •CBRNE Decontamination (if needed) •Personal Effects What are the 3 distinct operations of the Army Mortuary Affairs Program? - Ans 1. Current Death (Used in Garrison) -Always in peacetime -When possible in conflicts -Place body in shaded cool area How many tags are required on human remains and where are they placed? - Ans 3 -Great toe -Wrist -Zipper of pouch What are Troop Leading Procedures (TLPs)? - Ans Dynamic process used by small-unit leaders to analyze a mission, develop a plan, and prepare for an operation What are the 8 steps of Troop Leading Procedures? - Ans 1. Receive the mission 2. Issue warning order 3. Make a tentative plan 4. Initiate movement 5. Conduct reconnaissance 6. Complete the plan 7. Issue the order 8. Supervise and refine How can step 1 of TLPs (Receive the Mission) occur? - Ans It may begin when the initial WARNO or OPORD arrives from higher headquarters or when a leader anticipates a new mission What actions should be done during step 1 of TLPs (Receive the Mission) ? - Ans -Perform an initial assessment of the situation utilizing PMESII-PT and METT-TC -Ensure that all subordinate echelons have sufficient time for planning and preparation What is PMESII-PT? - Ans The operational variables fundamental to developing a comprehensive understanding of the operational environment. -Political -Military -Economic -Social -Information -Infrastructure -Physical Environment -Time What information is given in a WARNORD and in what format is it written? - Ans Unit mission and leader's timeline in as much detail as possible Follow 5 paragraph OPORD format What is involved in step 3 of TLPs (Make a Tentative Plan)? - Ans This step combines the MDMP steps 2 through 6: mission analysis, COA development, COA analysis, COA comparison, and COA approval. -Leaders perform mission analysis through METT-TC What is OAKOC? - Ans A method to analyze terrain and weather -Observation and fields of fire -Avenues of approach -Key and decisive terrain -Obstacles -Cover and concealment What are the 6 characteristics of civil considerations (ASCOPE)? - Ans -Areas: localities that are not normally militarily significant -Structures: how its location, functions, and capabilities can support the operation. -Capabilities: those required to save, sustain, or enhance life, in that priority. -Organizations: are nonmilitary groups or institutions in the AO. -People: people can affect a military operation positively, negatively, or neutrally. -Events: routine, cyclical, planned, or spontaneous activities that significantly affect organizations, people, and military operations What is involved in step 4 of TLPs (Initiate Movement)? - Ans Leaders conduct any movement directed by higher headquarters or deemed necessary to continue mission preparation or position the unit for execution Strength management is the responsibility of? - Ans -AMEDD branch -OTSG personnel -AMEDD Personnel Proponent Directorate (APPD) What are the 2 categories of separations within strength management and their examples? - Ans 1. Voluntary separations •Voluntary Separation Incentive (VSI) •Special Separation Bonus (SSB) •Voluntary Early Release Program (VERP) 2. Involuntary separations •Selective Early Retirement Board (SERB) •Reduction in Force (RIF) What is classified as professional development? - Ans Officer Education System (OES) -BOLC, CCC, ILE, etc. Professional military education Military training -EFMB, airborne, Ranger, TCMC, etc. What form is used for Officer Evaluation Reports? - Ans DA Form 67-10-X •DA Form 67-10-1: Company Grade (2LT-CPT & WO1-CW2) •DA Form 67-10-2: Field Grade (MAJ-LTC & CW3-CW5) •DA Form 67-10-3: Strategic Leaders (COL) •DA Form 67-10-4: Brigadier General What form is used for Academic Evaluation Reports? - Ans DA Form 1059 What form is used for the officer record brief? - Ans DA Form 4037 Who are ORBs centrally managed by? - Ans Officer records Branch -updated through personnel systems Who's responsibility is it to update an ORB? - Ans The soldier's responsibility What is a decentralized promotion? - Ans •2LT to 1LT and WO1 to CW2 •Fully qualified criteria •No numerical limits •Yes / No recommendation by local CDR (O-5) What is a centralized promotion? - Ans •Beyond 1LT and CW2 •Best qualified criteria •Numerical limits •Fully qualified versus Best qualified -Best qualified are selected for promotion first •Order of merit list What are the Army Competitive Categories (ACCs) and Special branches? - Ans ACC: Includes Infantry, Quartermaster, Engineers, Signal, and most other branches Special: AMEDD (All 6 Corps), JAG, Chaplain -Separate promotion boards -Special pays, depending on the specialty What are the key documents needed for promotion boards? - Ans -Official Military Personnel File (OMPF) -Officer Record Brief (ORB)* - correct and validated Who sits on the officer promotion board? - Ans At least five active-duty officers (MAJ and above) What are the meanings of PZ, BZ, and AZ in board announcements? - Ans Primary Zone (PZ) - all officers within the identified year group are considered for promotion Below the Zone (BZ) - not yet PZ, but are considered for promotion ahead of peers due to record Above the Zone (AZ) - previous non-selects -Must show cause for non-fully qualified What is the purpose of Officer Evaluation Reports (OERs)? - Ans Provide information to DA selection boards and assignment managers for use in making personnel management decisions. What are the responsibilities of the senior rater? - Ans •Ensure support form is distributed •Review DA Form 67-10-1A •Ensure rater counsels rated officer •Evaluate officer's potential relative to peers •Conducts final review of report Refer reports as required When must a supplementary review be conducted? - Ans In instances when there are no uniformed Army designated raters for the Rated Officer, an Army Officer within the organization will be designated as a Uniformed Army Advisor and perform a supplementary review. -Applies in joint and multi-national environments The OER support form is mandatory for what ranks? - Ans COL and below What are the attributes and competencies evaluated in OERs and NCOERs? - Ans Attributes: Character, presence, intellect Competencies: Leads, develops, achieves Raters have the opportunity to comment on what possible assignments? - Ans Broadening and operational What is the rater's assessment based on? - Ans Assessment based on performance; no comment on potential -Focused on performance in line with field grade competencies and attributes -Limit of 5 lines What attribute is highlighted on field grade OERs? - Ans Character What are the categories in the rater box check? - Ans •Excels: Results far surpass expectations. •Proficient: Consistently produces quality results with measurable improvement in unit performance. •Capable: Meets requirements of position and additional duties. What are the categories in the senior rater box check? - Ans MOST QUALIFIED: Strong potential for Below Zone (BZ) and command; potential ahead of peers HIGHLY QUALIFIED: Strong potential for promotion with peers QUALIFIED: Capable of success at the next level; promote if able NOT QUALIFIED: Not recommended for promotion What is the purpose of the OER support form? - Ans Used to mentor and develop subordinates, and aids in defining/guiding goals and objectives tied to leadership attributes and competencies What is the Evaluation Entry System (EES) and what are its benefits? - Ans EES is a web-based tool, which is used to complete and submit evaluations. -Enhanced wizard to guide rating chain and Human Resource professionals in preparing the evaluation -Eliminates accessing multiple systems and consolidates evaluation tools to one system What is the minimum rating period - Ans 90 days for Active Duty 120 days for Reserve Component What are referred reports? - Ans Reports that contain negative comments or unfavorable ratings regarding an officer's performance/potential, traits, skills, or attributes Referred to the rated officer first; if further action is required a Commander's Inquiry or appeal process may be pursued What may cause a mandatory referral? - Ans •"Fail" entry for APFT or "NO" for weight • Negative remarks in Part IV (Professionalism, Competencies and Attributes) •"Do not promote" or similar comments •"Not Qualified" Senior Rater block check •Negative comments in the narratives A Commander's Inquiry may be performed for OERs containing? - Ans -Alleged errors -Injustices -Illegalities Reports may not be altered other than to correct items indicated during inquiry Who are third party actors in an operational environment? - Ans Third-party actors may not be openly hostile to U.S. forces, but can disrupt or negatively affect our ability to accomplish the mission as they require assets to either provide security or monitor their actions. -Considered non-combatants What is a non-combatant? - Ans An individual, in an area of combat operations, who is not armed and is not participating in any activity in support of any of the factions or forces involved in combat. What are individual and group non-combatant motivations? - Ans Individual: •Altruism •Personal dissatisfaction and self improvement •Job satisfaction •Greed/corruption/embezzlement •Garner political favor or influence Group: •Eliminate hunger, disease, or poverty •Fulfill public or stated mission statements (charity) and hidden agendas (religion and culture) •Provide natural disaster relief •Reflect home country moral convictions or policies What is a hybrid threat? - Ans Two or more distinctly different potential enemies join together to fight the United States. What is the form used for an NCOER? - Ans - DA 2166-9-1 SGT/SGT(P) (Direct) - DA 2166-9-2 SSG-1SG/MSG (Organizational) - DA 2166-9-3 CSM/SGM (Strategic) In an NCOER what do the rater and senior rater assess? - Ans Rater assesses performance Senior rater assesses potential What are the performance measures raters use in NCOERs? - Ans -Far exceeded standard -Exceeded standard -Met standard (Direct level only) -Did not meet standard (Direct level only) What are the potential measures senior raters use in NCOERs? - Ans MOST QUALIFIED - identify NCOs with strong potential for promotion in the secondary zone; ahead of peers (Note: Senior raters will manage a constrained profile up to 24%) HIGHLY QUALIFIED - strong potential for promotion with peers QUALIFIED - potential to be successful at the next level; promote if able NOT QUALIFIED - Do not demonstrate potential for promotion; recommend separation What is a rater tendency and for what ranks are rater tendency labels required on the NCOER? - Ans Rating history. The value below each box equals the overall history of those ratings in this grade SSG-CSM/SGM What are the 5 steps in the risk management process? - Ans 1. Identify hazards 2. Assess hazards 3. Develop controls and make decisions 4. Implement controls 5. Supervise and evaluate What are the two application levels of risk management? - Ans Deliberate: Ample time is available to apply the five-step process as part of detailed planning for an operation. Real-Time: Immediate management of hazards as they occur, usually during execution of an operation or performance of a task. Risk management is integrated with what other army process? - Ans Troop leading procedures What is a hazard? - Ans An actual or potential condition, situation, or event that can result in injury, illness, death, damage/destruction of property, loss of capabilities/mission failure How are hazards identified? - Ans Experience Historical data What is personal responsibility? - Ans The obligation of a person to execute reasonable and prudent actions to properly use, care for, and safeguard all Government property in their possession What are the 3 P's of property accountability? - Ans People, Property and Process What are the phases of change of command inventory? - Ans 1. In brief from PBO2 2. Incoming and Outgoing CDR conduct a joint inventory of all property 3. 30 days allotted to conduct joint inventory. If not complete in time, request extension in writing to the commander. 4. Review the property listing 5. Notify the sub-hand holders when and how the inventory will be conducted 6. Ensure that the most current Supply Catalogs, component lists, Technical Manuals and other related publications are used during inventory 7. Ensure all items are serviceable 8. If items are in maintenance, make sure the maintenance request is valid. 9. Report damaged equipment to unit maintenance personnel for repair 10. Report all differences regarding property discrepancies to the accountable officer or PBO 11. Sign property listing acknowledging responsibility of property What are the steps in Post Change of Command inventory? - Ans 1. Incoming CDR signs COC memorandum 2. Incoming commander prepares DA Form 1687 (Delegation of Authority Signature Card) and distributes to agencies (3) Incoming and Outgoing CDR final brief to Battalion and Brigade CDR What is the Command Supply Discipline Program (CDSP)? - Ans Commander's program directed at ensuring compliance with HQ, DA supply policies and procedures. It is a mandatory program at all levels of command What is used to enforce the Command Supply Discipline Program (CDSP)? - Ans Leadership Command emphasis Training Administrative measures Disciplinary measures