AMEDD BOLC Midterm questions with correct answers, Exams of Community Corrections

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AMEDD BOLC Midterm questions with correct answers

The AMEDD views threats from what two perspectives? - Correct answer-General threat and healththreat

What is a health threat? - Correct answer-composite of ongoing potential enemy actions; adverseenvironmental, occupational, and geographic and meteorological conditions, endemic diseases, CBRN, etc What is health Service Support (HSS)? - Correct answer-All support and services performed, provided,and arranged by the AMEDD to promote, improve, conserve, or restore the mental and physical well being of personnel in the Army. Anything that helps improve the physical and mental state of people in the Army. What are the 3 components of Health Service Support? - Correct answer-Casualty Care: treatment,hospitalization, dental, neuropsych, and lab services

Medical evacuation: medical regulating and en route care Medical logistics: all subcomponents and services

Professional mortuary services and supplies incident to care and disposition of human remains andpersonal effects of persons who are eligible for these services by specific statute. The decedent's PE are shipped to the PERE from the SCMO. Which operation is this within the Army's Mortuary AffairsProgram? - Correct answer-B) Current Death

If refrigeration is not available, and you have to use ice packs to preserve the remains, what is animportant fact to remember? - Correct answer-B) Avoid skin contact with the ice

This operation should be conducted only when operational constraints prevent the storage orevacuation of human remains out of the operational area to a servicing mortuary, or when it is deemed prudent for the protection of health and welfare of personnel. Which operation is this within the Army'sMortuary Affairs Program? - Correct answer-A) Concurrent Return What is Force Health Protection (FHP)? - Correct answer-Measures to promote, improve, or conservethe mental and physical well-being of Soldiers.

What is involved in Force Health Protection? - Correct answer--Preventative medicine -Veterinary services, food inspection, zoonotic disease prevention -Combat operational stress control (COSC) -Dental services (preventative) -Lab services and support What is the Army health System? - Correct answer-All encompassing term to describe both the HSS andFHP aspects of AMEDD support.

What are the 3 parts of Tactical Combat Casualty Care (TC3)? - Correct answer-Care Under Fire Tactical Field CareTactical Evacuation

What are the 6 principles of the Army health System? - Correct answer-1. Conformity

2. Proximity3. Flexibility
3. Mobility5. Continuity
4. Control What are Roles 1, 2 3 and 4? - Correct answer-Role 1: BN aid station and below-Immediate life saving measures

Role 2: Medical company -X-ray, lab, dental, patient hold, pharmacy, advanced trauma Role 3: Field hospital-Resuscitation, wound surgery, postoperative treatment

Role 4: Definitive Care -Full spectrum of definitive medical care Is sequential evacuation necessary? (Role 1 > Role 2 > Role 3 > Role 4) - Correct answer-No. For exampleyou can go from Role 1 to Role 3

What is the role of the command surgeon? - Correct answer-Special staff officer that plans and monitorsexecution of the AHS mission

Ensures all Medical Functions and operational planning factors are planned and synchronized inoperation plans and orders

Not a commander. May recommend policy/procedures but can't give orders except through unit plansand orders

What are the primary tasks of mission command functions? - Correct answer-Mission command Communications and computers Task organization Medical intelligence Technical supervision Regional focus What are the 3 mission command organizations? - Correct answer-Medical command (Deploymentsupport)- medical force provider

Medical brigade (Support)-provide mission command of all attached/assigned AHS units Medical Battalion (Multifunctional)-provide mission command, administrative assistance, logisticalsupport, and technical supervision capability

What are the responsibilities of the medical commander? - Correct answer-Exercises mission command(authority and direction) over his subordinate medical resources

What are the responsibilities of the command surgeon? - Correct answer-At all levels of command, acommand surgeon is designated. This AMEDD officer is a special staff officer charged with planning for and executing the AHS mission What are the responsibilities of the line commander? - Correct answer-The commander ensures healthpromotion program. This encompasses the assets of educational, environmental, and AHS support services

What is the Law of Land Warfare inspired by? What does it do? - Correct answer-The desire to diminishthe evils of war

-Protects combatants and noncombatants from unnecessary suffering -Safeguards certain fundamental human rights of persons who fall into the hands of the enemy,particularly detainees/enemy prisoners of war, the wounded and sick, and civilians -Facilitates the restoration of peace What are possible operation variables? (Known as PMESII-PT) - Correct answer-PoliticalMilitary EconomicSocial InfrastructureInformation Physical environmentTime

Name the possible mission variables. (Known as METT-TC) - Correct answer-Mission EnemyTerrain and weather Troops and support availableTime available Civil considerations What is task organization? - Correct answer-A tool used by commanders to tailor their forces to specificmission requirements. Task-organization is a temporary grouping of forces designed to accomplish a particular mission What are the four supporting tasks to decisive operations? - Correct answer-Offensive tasks

Defensive tasks Stability tasksDefense support of civil authorities

What is counseling? - Correct answer-The process used by leaders to review with a subordinate theirdemonstrated performance and potential

What are the 3 types of counseling? - Correct answer-1. Event- for specific event/situation, and precedeor follow events like a school or duty performance

2. Performance-review of duty performance over certain period
3. Professional growth-planning for accomplishment of goals What are the approaches to counseling? - Correct answer-1. Nondirective approach- experiences, insight and judgment to assist subordinates in developing solutions, explain expectations •Leaders use
4. Directive approach- do it. Works best to correct simple problems •Leader does most of the talking and tells subordinate what to do and when to
5. Combined approach- best for the subordinate. Emphasize planning and decision making •Leader uses techniques from both approaches, adjusting them to fit what's

What are the advantages and disadvantages of the Nondirective approach? - Correct answer-Pros:Encourages maturity Encourages open communicationDevelops personal responsibility

Cons: More time-consuming

Requires greatest counselor skills What are the advantages and disadvantages of the Directive approach? - Correct answer-Pros: Good for people who need clear, concise directionAllows counselors to use their experience Quickest method Cons:Discourages subordinates to be part of the solution Tends to treat symptoms, not problemsDiscourages free talk Solution is the counselor's What are the advantages and disadvantages of the Combined approach? - Correct answer-Pros:Encourages maturity and open communication Allows counselors to use their experienceModerately quick

Cons: May take too much time for some situations What are the stages of the counseling process? - Correct answer-1. Identify the need for counseling2. Prepare for counseling (7 areas)

3. Conduct the counseling session4.Follow-up

What are areas involved in preparing for a counseling (Stage 2)? - Correct answer-1)Select a suitableplace (i.e. noise, distraction, etc.) 2)Schedule the counseling

3)Notify subordinate 4)Organize information5)Outline the counseling 6)Plan the counseling strategy7)Establish the right atmosphere

What are the 4 basic components during the counseling session (Stage 3)? - Correct answer-1.Opening 2.Discussion3.Plan of action 4.Record and close What form is used for counselings? - Correct answer-DA Form 4856 What are the different types of promotions and their authorities? - Correct answer-Decentralized(Chapter 2): To SPC/CPL and below Authority: Unit commander Semi-centralized (Chapter 3): To SGT and SSGAuthority: Battalion Commander

Centralized (Chapter 4): To SFC-SGM Authority: Headquarters, Department of the Army (HQDA) (HRC) What are the categories of individual awards? - Correct answer-DecorationsGood Conduct Medal Service Medals / Service RibbonsBadges / Tabs Certificates / LettersForeign Awards

What do service (campaign) medals and ribbons denote? - Correct answer-Honorable performance ofduty within specified limited dates in specified geographical areas.

What are the different types of badges? - Correct answer-Combat IdentificationSpecial skill Marksmanship When are wartime decorations authorized? - Correct answer-For wartime valor, service or achievement: What is the form used for the recommendation for an award? - Correct answer-DA Form 638 The Medal of Honor, Distinguished Service Cross, Distinguished Service Medal, Silver Star and Legion ofMerit fall under what category of awards? - Correct answer-Decorations

Who is the policy proponent for the Army decorations, awards and honors program? - Correct answer-G-

What are the 2 basic categories of evaluation reports? - Correct answer-Mandatory and optional What are the types of mandatory reports? - Correct answer-Annual- Done when 1 calendar year of dutyis completed

Change of Rater-Rater changed Relief for Cause- Removal of individual based on conduct Change of Duty- (officers only) When rated officer has changed of principal duty

Extended annual Departure on TDY/Special dutyOfficer Non-select for Promotion Initial tour of extended active dutyHRC directed

What are the types of optional reports? - Correct answer-Complete the Record- intended to updateindividual's file with performance and potential info

Senior Rater (SR) option reports- When a change in SR occurs, the SR may direct that a report be madeon any Soldier whom they senior rate.

Special situations: Soldier assigned to WTU Rater Option Report When must the scope of a rated soldier's duty description be discussed? - Correct answer-Within 30days after the beginning of the rating period

At a minimum, a counseling will include: - Correct answer-Duty description and performance objectivesto attain.

Relationship of duty description and objectives with the organization's mission. What are the senior rater's rating chain responsibilities? - Correct answer-Ensure Rater counsels therated Soldier throughout the rating period

Review and initial Counseling and Support Forms at the beginning and during rating period Use all reasonable means to become familiar with Soldier's performance.

Ensure rater's portion is fair, accurate and candid. Assess and evaluate the abilities and potential of the rated Soldier relative to his/her peers. When is a supplementary reviewer required? - Correct answer-When the senior rater is a 2LT-1LT, WO1-CW2, or SFC-1SG/MSG; in certain situations

What are the primary and secondary functions of evaluation reports? - Correct answer-Primary: Assist inmaking personnel management decisions

Secondary: Encourage leader professional development Department of the Army Evaluations focus on a Soldier's potential based on what three factors? -Correct answer-1. Duty performance

2. Army requirements for soldiers3. Leadership qualifications

What is leave and who is the approval authority? - Correct answer-An authorized absence from duty andis essential to the health, welfare, and morale of all Soldiers of a unit

Authority: unit commander What are the two types of leave accrual? - Correct answer-Normal leave accrual- AD Soldiers earn 30days leave per year with pay and allowances at a rate of 2.5 days per month

Special leave accrual- Gives relief to Soldiers that aren't allowed leave when undergoing lengthydeployment or during periods of hostility -Authorized for Soldiers who served in an area qualifying for hostile fire or imminent danger pay for atleast 120 continuous days.

How many leave days are soldiers allowed to carry forward at the end of a fiscal year? - Correct answer-Up to 90 days

-60 days normal leave carry over plus 30 days special leave accrual What is chargeable leave? - Correct answer-Leave that is subtracted from a soldier's accrued leavebalance

What is ordinary leave? - Correct answer-Taken by a Soldier who is at a permanent duty station andwishes to take time off from work

What is transition leave? - Correct answer-Taken by a Soldier who will be separating from the service byeither ETS, Release from Active Duty (REFRAD) or retiring

What is emergency leave? - Correct answer-Used for family emergencies. Immediate family includes:Parents, including Stepparents, Spouse, Children, including Stepchildren, Sisters, Brothers, only living blood relative and a person in loco parentis What is Permanent Change of Station (PCS)? - Correct answer-When a Soldier is reassigned from oneduty station to another, PCS leave can be taken before or after arrival at the new unit

What is leave in Conjunction with Temporary Duty (TDY)? - Correct answer-Leave taken en route to orfrom a Soldier's temporary duty station.

What is Nonchargeable leave? - Correct answer-Absence that is NOT charged against a Soldier's accruedleave balance:

What is Convalescent leave? - Correct answer-Granted to a Soldier to expedite a member's return to fullduty after an illness or injury.

What is Permissive Temporary Duty (PTDY)? - Correct answer-Taken by a Soldier to attend a semi-officialactivity.

What is Excess leave? - Correct answer-Granted for emergencies or unusual circumstances. Advancedleave is normally expended prior to using excess leave -Becomes an indebtedness when there is a negative leave balance -No pay and allowances What is Regular Pass? - Correct answer-A short, nonchargeable, authorized absence from post or placeof duty during normal off duty hours -Can't exceed 3 days What is a Special Pass? - Correct answer-A short nonchargeable authorized absence from post or placeof duty. It may be granted as a 3-day or 4-day Special Pass.

Is Emergency Leave for death of an immediate family member a chargeable or non-chargeable leave? -Correct answer-Nonchargeable

What is a Flag and what are the 2 categories? - Correct answer-Flag: Suspension of Favorable Personnelactions

Transferable: Flag may be transferred to another unit Non-transferable: May not be transferred to another unit What are examples of transferable flags? - Correct answer--APFT failures -Soldiers in Weight Control Program-Punishment phase of adverse action

What are examples of non-transferable flags? - Correct answer--Adverse actions (charges, investigation,court-martial, AWOL) -Involuntary separation or discharge -Removal from selection list-Referred OER or Relief for Cause NCOER

-CDR's investigation -Failure to provide + maintain Family Care Plan-Security violation -Drug/alcohol offenses What is the effective date of a flag? - Correct answer--The date that the circumstance(s) requiring theflag occurred, not the date the flag was initiated (Unless otherwise specified)

-The date the commander signs the intent to separate notification memorandum -The date HQDA initiates an involuntary separation action True or False. A flag may NOT be initiated based on referral, screening or enrollment into the ArmySubstance Abuse Program (ASAP). - Correct answer-True

When can a flag be removed? - Correct answer-As soon as the Soldier is released without charges, thecharges are dropped, or the punishment (confinement, probation, restriction, extra duty, etc.) or adverse action is completed. A flag based on APFT failure or weight control failure must be removed as soon as the Soldier eitherpasses the APFT or meets weight standards.

What areas can a failure with the Mortuary Affairs (MA) mission or disrespectful handling of remainsnegatively impact? - Correct answer-•Troop morale within the losing unit •National public support •Coalition support •Local national support •Enemy treatment of remains and/or prisoners What does full accounting(of remains) require? - Correct answer--Proper identification

-Explanation as to the cause and manner of death Contingency fatality operations occur at what levels in a theater of operation? - Correct answer-All levels What are the 3 phases of search and recovery operations? - Correct answer-Combat, Post Combat andarea clearance.

What are PADD, PE, and PERE? What is their order after search and recovery? - Correct answer-PADD:Person Authorized to Direct Disposition

PE: Personal effects PERE: Person Eligible to Receive Effects Search/recovery > remains returned to PADD > PE returned to PERE What is involved in joint mortuary affairs? - Correct answer- unit personnel •Initial Search and Recovery starts with the •Tentative Identification •Coordinated Evacuation •CBRNE Decontamination (if needed) •Personal Effects What are the 3 distinct operations of the Army Mortuary Affairs Program? - Correct answer-1. CurrentDeath (Used in Garrison) -Always in peacetime-When possible in conflicts

2. Concurrent return -In conflict from a theater of operations to a servicing mortuary through MA channels

-Ship PE to PE Depot for shipment to PERE

3. Temporary Internment -Temporary interment/disinterment of human remains. Only when authorized by the responsiblecommander during major military operations -No disposition of PE Where are Mortuary Affairs Collection Point (MACP) located in theater? - Correct answer-Always co-located on bases with Role 3 facilities and usually co-located with Role 2 facilities (usually operate as close to the airstrip as possible) Where is the Theater Mortuary Evacuation Point (TMEP) - Correct answer-At a major Aerial Port ofEmbarkation

Where is the port of entry mortuary facility? - Correct answer-Dover AFB By when do remains have to reach MACP, TMEP and Dover AFB? - Correct answer-Within 24 hrs By when do remains have to reach the deceased's family? - Correct answer-Within 72-96 hrs What are examples of tentative and positive identifications for remains? - Correct answer-Tentative -DD Form 565 Positive (Done at Dover):-DNA test -Dental records-Finger printing

What is the role of a Summary Courts-Martial Officer (SMCO)? - Correct answer--Must be appointedwithin 48 hrs

-Should be someone detached from Soldier -Separate distasteful items and record that they were destroyed (Maintain a good memory of theSoldier) -Inventory all PE with the unit or in quarters-Accurate documentation on DD Form 1076 -Utilize MA NCO at BDE-Also used for Soldiers evacuated from theater

True or False? NEVER send PE straight to family from theater (everything goes through PE channels to PEDepot) - Correct answer-True

What actions should be done in post mortem care? - Correct answer--Place body in Human RemainsPouch (cover with poncho or blanket if not available) -Place body in supine position, close eyes-Tie wrists together, may need to apply bandage to lower jaw -Provider may be asked to confirm death-Consult with mortuary affairs -Complete documentation and pass along PE, regardless of condition-DO NOT remove adjuncts from body -Ensure proper identification-Place body in shaded cool area

How many tags are required on human remains and where are they placed? - Correct answer- -Great toe-Wrist -Zipper of pouch What are Troop Leading Procedures (TLPs)? - Correct answer-Dynamic process used by small-unitleaders to analyze a mission, develop a plan, and prepare for an operation

What are the 8 steps of Troop Leading Procedures? - Correct answer-1. Receive the mission

2. Issue warning order3. Make a tentative plan
3. Initiate movement5. Conduct reconnaissance
4. Complete the plan7. Issue the order
5. Supervise and refine How can step 1 of TLPs (Receive the Mission) occur? - Correct answer-It may begin when the initialWARNO or OPORD arrives from higher headquarters or when a leader anticipates a new mission

What actions should be done during step 1 of TLPs (Receive the Mission)? - Correct answer--Perform aninitial assessment of the situation utilizing PMESII-PT and METT-TC

-Ensure that all subordinate echelons have sufficient time for planning and preparation What is PMESII-PT? - Correct answer-The operational variables fundamental to developing acomprehensive understanding of the operational environment.

-Political -Military-Economic -Social-Information -Infrastructure-Physical Environment -Time

What information is given in a WARNORD and in what format is it written? - Correct answer-Unitmission and leader's timeline in as much detail as possible

Follow 5 paragraph OPORD format What is involved in step 3 of TLPs (Make a Tentative Plan)? - Correct answer-This step combines theMDMP steps 2 through 6: mission analysis, COA development, COA analysis, COA comparison, and COA approval. -Leaders perform mission analysis through METT-TC What is OAKOC? - Correct answer-A method to analyze terrain and weather -Observation and fields of fire-Avenues of approach -Key and decisive terrain-Obstacles -Cover and concealment What are the 6 characteristics of civil considerations (ASCOPE)? - Correct answer--Areas: localities thatare not normally militarily significant

-Structures: how its location, functions, and capabilities can support the operation. -Capabilities: those required to save, sustain, or enhance life, in that priority. -Organizations: are nonmilitary groups or institutions in the AO. -People: people can affect a military operation positively, negatively, or neutrally.

-Events: routine, cyclical, planned, or spontaneous activities that significantly affect organizations,people, and military operations

What is involved in step 4 of TLPs (Initiate Movement)? - Correct answer-Leaders conduct anymovement directed by higher headquarters or deemed necessary to continue mission preparation or position the unit for execution What is involved in step 5 of TLPs (Conduct Reconaissance)? - Correct answer-Leaders personallyobserve the AO for the mission prior to execution. -Minimum action necessary is a thorough map reconnaissance-Different types of reconnaissance: map, terrain model, aerial photo, ground

What is involved in step 6 of TLPs (Complete the Plan)? - Correct answer-Leaders incorporate the resultsof reconnaissance into their selected COA to complete the plan or order. -Leaders make final coordination with adjacent units and higher headquarters before issuing the order. What is involved in step 7 of TLPs (Issue the Order)? - Correct answer-The ideal location for issuing theorder is a point in the AO with a view of the objective and other aspects of the terrain.

-Are clear, complete, brief, timely allow initiative, authoritative-Use terrain model during brief

What is involved in step 8 of TLPs (Supervise and refine)? - Correct answer-Leaders monitor missionpreparations, refine the plan, coordinate with adjacent units, and supervise and assess preparations

-Supervise subordinates and inspect equipment-Conduct rehearsals

What are the 4 types of rehearsals? - Correct answer-1. Back brief's (Select people in the platoon).

2. Combined arms rehearsal.3. Support rehearsal (Aid and Litter Team).

4. Battle drill or SOP rehearsal Who exercises personnel management authority over AMEDD officers (except general officers) in theirspecial branches? - Correct answer-The Surgeon General

What are the functions of OPMS? - Correct answer- •Assignments process and considerations •Accessions •Strength Management •Professional Development

What are the 6 AMEDD Corps branches? - Correct answer-•Medical Corps (MC) •Dental Corps (DC) •Veterinary Corps (VC) •Nurse Corps (AN) •Medical Specialist Corps (SP) •Medical Service Corps (MS) How are Medical Officer assignments dictated? - Correct answer--Dictated by Army needs-Army Medical Department Officer Distribution Plan -Availability-Professional Development Needs -Education and Training-Other considerations -Personal preferences and compassionate factors Strength management is the responsibility of? - Correct answer--AMEDD branch-OTSG personnel -AMEDD Personnel Proponent Directorate (APPD)

What are the 2 categories of separations within strength management and their examples? - Correctanswer-1. Voluntary separations •Voluntary Separation Incentive (VSI) •Special Separation Bonus (SSB) •Voluntary Early Release Program (VERP)

2. Involuntary separations •Selective Early Retirement Board (SERB) •Reduction in Force (RIF)

What is classified as professional development? - Correct answer-Officer Education System (OES) -BOLC, CCC, ILE, etc. Professional military education Military training-EFMB, airborne, Ranger, TCMC, etc.

What form is used for Officer Evaluation Reports? - Correct answer-DA Form 67-10-X •DA Form 67-10-1: Company Grade (2LT-CPT & WO1-CW2) •DA Form 67 •DA Form 67-10-2: Field Grade (MAJ-LTC & CW3-CW5)-10-3: Strategic Leaders (COL) •DA Form 67-10-4: Brigadier General What form is used for Academic Evaluation Reports? - Correct answer-DA Form 1059 What form is used for the officer record brief? - Correct answer-DA Form 4037

Who are ORBs centrally managed by? - Correct answer-Officer records Branch -updated through personnel systems Who's responsibility is it to update an ORB? - Correct answer-The soldier's responsibility What is a decentralized promotion? - Correct answer- •Fully qualified criteria •2LT to 1LT and WO1 to CW2 •No numerical limits •Yes / No recommendation by local CDR (O-5)

What is a centralized promotion? - Correct answer-•Beyond 1LT and CW2 •Best qualified criteria •Numerical limits •Fully qualified versus Best qualified -Best qualified are selected for promotion first •Order of merit list What are the Army Competitive Categories (ACCs) and Special branches? - Correct answer-ACC: IncludesInfantry, Quartermaster, Engineers, Signal, and most other branches

Special: AMEDD (All 6 Corps), JAG, Chaplain -Separate promotion boards-Special pays, depending on the specialty

What are the key documents needed for promotion boards? - Correct answer--Official MilitaryPersonnel File (OMPF) -Officer Record Brief (ORB)* - correct and validated Who sits on the officer promotion board? - Correct answer-At least five active-duty officers (MAJ andabove)

What are the meanings of PZ, BZ, and AZ in board announcements? - Correct answer-Primary Zone (PZ) -all officers within the identified year group are considered for promotion

Below the Zone (BZ) - not yet PZ, but are considered for promotion ahead of peers due to record Above the Zone (AZ) - previous non-selects -Must show cause for non-fully qualified What is the purpose of Officer Evaluation Reports (OERs)? - Correct answer-Provide information to DAselection boards and assignment managers for use in making personnel management decisions.

The rating chain usually consists of who? - Correct answer--Rated officer -Rater-Intermediate rater* -Senior rater-Supplementary reviewer*

Commander is responsible What are the responsibilities of the rated officer? - Correct answer-Meet with rater within 30 days Initiate discussion of duties and objectives Assess and update objectives Complete DA Form 67-10-1A (Officer Evaluation Support Form) What are the qualifications of a rater? - Correct answer-•Immediate supervisor

•U.S. / Allied Armed Forces Officer / U.S. Government Employee •Senior in grade or date of rank -Command position exception Normally must serve 90 days What are the responsibilities of the rater? - Correct answer--Provide rater and senior rater supportforms -Discuss job description and performance objectives with rated officer within 30 days-Counsel quarterly throughout rating period -Assess the performance of the rated officer-Verify height/weight and APFT data

What are the qualifications for an intermediate rater? - Correct answer-•Between rater/senior rater •Limited to special branches and dual supervision situat •U.S. / Allied Armed Forces Officer / U.S. Government Employeeions •Senior in grade or date of rank to rated officer •Must serve minimum of 60 days •Technical expert What are the responsibilities of the intermediate rater? - Correct answer- performance •Familiar with rated officer's •Provide input on DA Form 67 •Provide objective, comprehensive evaluation of performance and potential-10-1A

What are the qualifications for a senior rater? - Correct answer-•Senior to rater and intermediate rater •U.S. Armed Forces Officer or U.S. Government Employee •Minimum grade: -Military: O-4 (officer) or E-7 (NCO)-Civilian: GS-13