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AMEDD CCC EXAM 2024-2025, Exams of Nursing

AMEDD CCC EXAM 2024-2025 WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED ANSWERS |FREQUENTLY TESTED QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS |ALREADY GRADED A+|NEWEST|GUARANTEED PASS|LATEST UPDATE AMEDD CCC EXAM 2024-2025 WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED ANSWERS |FREQUENTLY TESTED QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS |ALREADY GRADED A+|NEWEST|GUARANTEED PASS|LATEST UPDATE AMEDD CCC EXAM 2024-2025 WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED ANSWERS |FREQUENTLY TESTED QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS |ALREADY GRADED A+|NEWEST|GUARANTEED PASS|LATEST UPDATE

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2023/2024

Available from 07/09/2024

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Download AMEDD CCC EXAM 2024-2025 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 1 | P a g e AMEDD CCC EXAM 2024-2025 WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED ANSWERS |FREQUENTLY TESTED QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS |ALREADY GRADED A+|NEWEST|GUARANTEED PASS|LATEST UPDATE Define a decisive point a. a geographic place, specific event, critical factor, or function that, when acted upon, allows commanders to gain a marked advantage over an adversary or contribute materially to achieving success What is step 7 of MDMP? a. Orders production During step 7 of MDMP the responsibility for developing and maintaining the plan shifts from ___ to ____. a. FUOPs (future operations) b. CUOPs (current operations) 4 planning pitfalls a. Attempting to forecast and dictate events too far into the future b. Trying to plan in too much detail c. Using the plan as a script for execution d. Institutionalizing rigid planning methods 7 steps of MDMP a. Receive the mission b. MA c. COA Dev d. COA Analysis e. COA comparison 2 | P a g e f. COA Approval g. Orders production 2 ways to record war-gaming results a. Sketch note b. Synchronization matrix The CDR and staff conduct MA to better understand the situation and problem, and ID what 4 things? a. 4 W's b. What must be accomplished c. When and where it must be done d. Why it must be done Name the most important step of MDMP a. Mission analysis OAKOC Observation and Fields of Fire Avenues of Approach Key Terrain Obstacles Cover and Concealment What is OAKOC used for? To create the MCOO = Modified combined operation overlay ACOPE a. Area b. Structures c. Capabilities d. Organizations e. People f. Events Who can write a temporary profile in 90d increments up to 1 year? a. Physician b. Dentist c. Audiologist How many beds in a CSH 248 How many beds in a HC 5 | P a g e Step 3 - COA De Who is in charge in DSCA scenarios? The civilian authorities What do you do during a training meeting? Future planning/tasks of TRAINING NOT property What document has the METL and grading criteria for completion of tasks? T&EO (Training and Evaluation Outline) What are the types of developmental counseling (3)? Performance, professional growth, and event-oriented NOT quarterly (but could be in some cases) What regulation enforces the warfighting functions in accordance with the commander's intent? Control How many medical exams do you get under the new streamlined IDES? 1 (combined) Does NOT look at your future on the civilian side What is the shift called moving toward disease and injury prevention? System for health What does MEDPROS track? *Immunizations (also, PHA, hearing, dental) NOT Article 15, DMLSS, Family care plan What is in a MEB? An informal board with 2 physicians How many tables do 68W have to complete for training? 8 What form is used to submit someone for an award? DA 638 (because it's an ARMY award) Who has to do an OER support form? 6 | P a g e O-6 and below How many types of OERs are there? 3 Company grade, field grade, and senior grade (NOT Flag grade) Who is responsible for individual training tasks vs collective tasks? Individual - NCOs Collective - Officers MDMP 7 steps (1. Receipt of Mission, 2. Mission analysis, 3. COA Dev, 4. COA Analysis, 5. COA Comparison, 6. COA Approv, 7. Orders Production) 18 subtasks in Mission Analysis (MA is the most important step) Which step includes the Decision Matrix? Step 5: COA comparison What system might commanders use to understand training resources CATS (Combined Arms Training Strategy) NOT "all of the above" What are the 3 phases of unit training cycles? Green, amber, red cycles NOT "crawl, walk, run" or "hop, skip, jump" What do we do in DSCA? Alleviate suffering, save lives, and protect property NOT law enforcement What are the two emergency support functions in DSCA? ESF #8 and #11 essays (must be 250-500 words) o One may be an opinion (how you would use it in the future) Could format as thesis statement, 3 points, conclusion... 7 | P a g e 1) "How are you going to apply the knowledge you gained during CCC to future jobs?" essays (must be 250-500 words) o Know the 6 AHS principles "How do the six AHS principles differ between COIN and large scale combat operations?" How many HH-60s per FSMP? 3 How many M977s does ASMC have? Ground ambulance company have? 8 and 24 How does FRST differ from FST? Split capability, more providers and equipment. Can operate independently Different MEDEVAC and CASEVAC Dedicated assets, enroute care Number of litter/ambulatory per each of the following platforms: M997, M113, M1133, HH-60 a. 4/8 for M997 b. 4/10 for M113 c. 4/6 for M1133 d. 4/6 for HH60 (uncertain but likely not to be asked) Planning horizon - Time estimates Short term: T0-T6 Mid-term: T6-T13 Long-term: Up to 2 years + What forms used for Soldier vs GS awards a. DA 638 = SMs b. DA 1256 = Civilian Steps of TLP and who uses it? a. Receive the mission b. Issue a WARNO c. Make a tentative plan d. Initiative movement e. Conduct reconnaissance f. Complete the plan g. Issue the order 10 | P a g e Name the 8 sustainment principles: a. AIRSECSI (AIR"sexy") b. Anticipation c. Integration d. Responsiveness e. Simplicity f. Economy g. Continuity h. Survivability i. Improvisation 4 steps to hazard response (DSCA)? a. Planning b. Response c. Recovery d. Restoration What type of decision is made during the execution phase of a military operation? a. Execution decision/RDSP 5 steps of RDSP a. Compare the current situation to the order b. Determine that a decision and what type is required c. Develop a response d. Refine and validate the COA e. Implement- do not need new Orders 4 sub-steps within RDSP step 1 a. Compare the current situation to the order i. Identify the WfF variances ii. Analyze inputs from ISR efforts (intelligence, surveillance, reconnaissance) iii. Analyze inputs from units iv. ID exceptional information 3 types of staff categories a. Personal i. Chaplain ii. CSM iii. Safety iv. SJA v. Surgeon b. Special i. Aviation 11 | P a g e ii. CBRN iii. EWO (electronic warfare officer) iv. KM (knowledge management) v. EO vi. VET c. Coordinating i. S/G 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 9 Do BNs and BDEs have FUOPS? NO What type of rehearsal requires the most time/resources and presents the greatest security risk? a. Full dress What two categories make up CCIRs? a. FFIR - friendly-forces information requirements b. PRI - priority information requirements What's the difference between FFIR and EEFI? a. FFIR is information the CDR needs about the friendly forces b. EEFI = information the CDR wants to hide from the enemy i. Essential elements of friendly information What are the 2 main differences between MEDEVAC and CASEVAC? MEDEVAC has enroute care & dedicated assets A rater evaluates __________ and a senior rater addresses __________. Performance; Potential List the 5 proficiency ratings and define them. T(fully trained): Complete task proficiency. Achieve a "Go" in 90% or more T-(trained): Advanced task proficiency. Free of significant shortcomings, with a "Go" in 80% or more P (practiced): Basic task proficiency. Significant Shortcomings require significant training to meet standards. Achieving a "Go" in 65% or more P-(marginally practiced): Limited task proficiency. Major shortcomings. Requires complete retraining of task. Achieves "Go" in 51% or more. U (untrained): Cannot perform the task. Achieves "Go" in less than 50% Who is the coordinator and primary agency for Emergency Support Function (ESF) 8? 12 | P a g e The Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) (ATP 4-02.42) Who is the coordinator and primary agency for Emergency Support Function (ESF) 11? U.S. Department of Agriculture (ESF 11) Who requests to initiate a Fit for Duty Physical? Commander Who initiates a Medical Evaluation Board (MEB)? Physician U.S. Policy focuses on achieving unity of effort or cooperation through what type of approach to intervention? integrated or Whole of Government What are the 4 lines of Effort in the 2018 Army Medicine Campaign Plan? Readiness and Health (DO), Healthcare Delivery, Force Development, Take care of Soldiers for Life & DA Civilians and Families What Air Force medical element does not have organic evacuation capability? Air Force Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) List the characteristics of defensive operations Preparation; Security; Disruption; Massing Effects; Flexibility; Maneuver; Operations in Depth The Army conducts ________ ___________ ___________, executed through ____________ _____________, guided by ___________ ___________. Unified Land Operations; Decisive Action; Mission Command Who leads the Military Health System? The MHS is led by the office of the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Health Affairs (ASD[HA]) under the Office of the Undersecretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (USD [PSR]) List the 3 defensive operation tasks Mobile Defense; Area Defense; Retrograde What are the 4 characteristics of offense? Surprise; Concentration; Tempo; Audacity When the situation permits, __________ is the first intervention of care. Self-Aid MODS includes what 5 applications? 15 | P a g e Establish civil security; Establish civil control; Restore essential services; Support to governance; Support to economic and infrastructure development What is the primary stability task supported by AMEDD? Building medical capacity by restoring essential services How many FEMA regions are there? 10 and have 10 defense coordinating officers DSCA Core Tasks 1. Provide support for domestic disasters 2. CBRNE incidents 3. Civilian law enforcement 4. Other domestic regions What are the three war-gaming methods? 1. Box method 2. Belt method 3. Avenue (in depth) method WARNOs are issued after: 1. Receipt of mission (step 1) 2. After mission analysis (step 2) 3. After COA approval (step 6) Who handles medical logistics in the BCT? BMSO What are the differences in each role of care? Role 1 (BAS): MC, treatment, evacuation Role 2 (BSMC/MMB): MC, treatment, evacuation, lab, COSC, dental, X-ray Role 3 (FH/CSH/MMB): MC, treatment, lab, COSC, Medlog, dental, PM, hospitalization (8 MFAs) Role 4: Definitive care Who is in charge of the operations process? The commander With great power, comes_______ ___________ great responsibility Proficiency Rating: Shortcomings require MINIMAL training to meet the Army standard. 16 | P a g e T- (Trained) Proficiency Rating: Shortcomings require SIGNIFICANT training to meet the Army standard. P (Practiced) Proficiency Rating: Shortcomings require COMPLETE re-training P- (Marginally practiced) What methodology sequences training events from simple to increasingly complex? Crawl/walk/run What are the formal steps to training? Plan, prepare, execute, assess What is the U.S. National Security strategy? Whole of Government Approach What is the the EMEDS configurations? 1. HRT 2. Med +10 3. Med +25 What is ERSS? Mobile trauma teams with the capability and equipment to deal with life threatening emergencies and delay as missions to require various NAVY platforms. DSCA characteristics (key takeaways) Civil authorities are in charge and military forces support them What is the maximum timeframe for submitting awards from the time of the event? 2 years What is the goal of the army awards program? Recognize excellence and motivate to higher levels of performance and service. What are 4 standards of military critical thinking (repeat)? clarity, depth, precision, logic Operational control of military health systems is divided among which 4 organizations? DHA, Dept of Army, Regional Health Command, U.S. Public Health Who is responsible for evac from Role 2 to Role 3? Ground MEDEVAC company, MMB 17 | P a g e Who is Medical Mission Command for the BCT? BDE Surgeon Section What two BN elements fall under a MED BDE? MMB and Role 3/CSH What companies are under a MMB? ASMC, MEDLOG, GA, Den What are the Department Leadership under Inpatient Staffing? Medical Director, Nursing Director, NCOIC What is TAP and what is it designed to do? Technology Acquisition Programs in order to fund routine modernization/replacement equipment How do you measure Quality? Structure, process, outcome What are BSC components? Strategy Map and Scorecard What is a PEBLO Physical Evaluation Board Liaison Officer, admin for the Army portion. Follows the Soldier through the entire process What doctrine covers Army Leadership ADRP 6-22, Army Leadership What are tools of creativity and innovation? Brainstorming, outside in thinking, red teaming, what if, post mortem analysis Types of Briefings nformation, decision, Mission, staff What is MC Doctrine? ADRP 6-0, Mission Command What is Knowledge Management? Is the process of enabling knowledge flow to enhance shared understanding, learning and decision making. What is Information Management? 20 | P a g e Merit, fitness, capability What steps of the tlp must be accomplished in order? Receive the mission and issue of warno Command post Main Mobile Tactical Surgeon is a type of personal staff Functional cell Wartype functions Integrating cells Current future operations 4 type of rehearsal brief Back brief Combined arms Battle drill Support rehearsal NCOER for E6 - E8 Form 2166-9- 2 True of false Support form is mandatory for Col and below True What is percentage ncoer senior rater profile Less than 25% What percent for oer senior rater profile Less than 50% friendly Blue rectangle red Enemy yellow 21 | P a g e Is unknown Sector 1 Capability Sector 2 Mobility Is radiology a MFA? T/f False What is CBRNE acronym Chemical , biological, nuclear and eviromental Most important mmb Ibb Another name for coa analysis War game Coa analysis is what step number ? 5 Box method unique why? Looking at the end state only Most common war game method Belt Non expendle Formal Hand Receipt DA 2062 Amedd is comprised of 8 core t/f True Five steps of the writing process prewriting, drafting, revising, editing, publishing Four fundamentals of writing substance, organization, style, correctness 22 | P a g e Four types of briefings Information Decision Mission Staff Four steps when preparing a brief plan, prepare, execute, assess Attributes in the leadership requirements model character, presence, intellect Competencies in the leadership requirements model leads, develops, achieves Three developmental domains institutional, operational, self-development What type of thinking aims to find facts, think through issues and analyze problems from multiple points of view? critical What type of thinking involves innovation; think outside the box to find solutions to problems? creative Nine dimensions of critical thinking clarity, accuracy, precision, relevance, depth, breadth, logic, significance What is red teaming? testing how well an organization would fare in the face of a real attack Two pitfalls in thinking bias and fallacies Name the bias - assigning weight to an idea because it comes to mind readily Availability bias Name the bias - thinking that our experience is more representative than it is Representative bias Name the bias - unable to compute an item's true value, thus resorting to an overreliance on the initial "anchor" value provided by someone else 25 | P a g e Counseling occurs when a leader, who serves as a subordinate's designated rater, reviews with the subordinate his demonstrated performance and potential. Coaching the guidance of another person's development in new or existing skills during the practice of those skills Mentoring occurs when a leader with greater experience, often outside the chain of command, provides guidance and advice. Name four programs commanders use to manage a company Military justice, property management (CSDP), maintenance operations (CMDP), family readiness groups What are the possible outcomes of a military justice offense No action or dismissal Non-punitive/adverse administrative Non-judicial punishment (Article 15) Judicial action (court-martial) Who is responsible for the CSDP? Commanders Name the program whose purpose is to standardize maintenance discipline throughout the Army and simplify command, supervisory and managerial responsibilities. Command Maintenance Discipline Program What are the mission essential activities for the Soldier and Family Readiness Group? Conduct SFRG member meetings Staff and committee meetings Publication and distribution of SFRG newsletters Maintenance of updated Family rosters and Family readiness information Establishment of SFRG member telephone trees and e-mail distribution lists Scheduling educational briefings for SFRG Name four purposes of awards 1. Acts of Valor 2. Exceptional service or achievement 3. Special skills or qualifications 4. Acts of heroism Who can recommend someone for an award? Anyone 26 | P a g e Can we get Air Force awards? Yes, Army awards may be awarded to members of sister services, and vice versa What is the form used for decorations and badges? DA 638 Seven types of awards 1. Good Conduct Medal 2. Service Medals 3. Service Ribbons 4. Badges & TBS 5. Certificates & Letters 6. Unit Awards 7. Decorations What type of counseling pertains to a specific situation of superior or substandard performance? event oriented What type of counseling is a review of the subordinate's duty performance? Performance and Professional Growth Counseling What are the four stages of counseling? a. Identify the need for counseling b. Prepare for counseling c. Conduct the counseling d. Follow-up Name the seven principles of mission command Competence. Mutual trust. Shared understanding. Commander's intent. Mission orders. Disciplined initiative. Risk acceptance. What element of mission command entails explaining the purpose of the operation, Key tasks, and Desired end state? commander's intent Which command and control warfighter function is the related tasks and systems that move and employ forces to achieve a position of relative advantage? The movement and maneuver warfighting function 27 | P a g e Which command and control warfighter function is the related tasks and systems that facilitate understanding the enemy, terrain, weather, civil considerations, and other significant aspects of the operational environment? The intelligence warfighting function Which command and control warfighter function is the related tasks and systems that provide support and services to ensure freedom of action, extended operational reach, and prolong endurance? The sustainment warfighting function Which command and control warfighter function is the related tasks and systems that create and converge effects in all domains against the adversary or enemy to enable operations across the range of military operations? The fires warfighting function Which command and control warfighter function is the related tasks and systems that preserve the force so the commander can apply maximum combat power to accomplish the mission? The protection warfighting function What are the three steps that help a commander understand mission control? visualize, describe, direct Fill in the blanks - Operations are ______ endeavors conducted in _______ environments designed to achieve a ________ purpose. Human, dynamic and uncertain environments, political Making timely and effective decisions and to act faster than the enemy is a goal of the ______ operations process What is a CCIR? Commander's Critical Information Requirements - needed to make a decision What is an EEFI? essential elements of friendly information; critical aspects of a friendly operation that if known by the enemy, would subsequently compromise, lead to failure, or limit success of the operation What is the role of assessing during mission command? helps the commander determine progress toward attaining the desired end state and achieving objectives What is the Intelligence Preparation of the Battlefield (IPB)? · systematic process of analyzing the mission variables of enemy, terrain, weather, and civil considerations in an area of interest to determine their effect on operations (ATP 2-01.3). 30 | P a g e Four aspects of command Authority, Responsibility, Decision-making, Leadership What is control? The regulation of forces and warfighting functions to accomplish the mission in accordance with the commander's intent What are the four elements of control? Direction, Feedback, Information and Communication What is doctrine? Army Doctrine lays out tactics and procedures, and Describes how the Army executes operations described in ADP Four elements of unified land operations offense, defense, and stability or civil support Operational variables are described by ______ and mission variables are described by _______ PMESII-PT, METT-TC Define PMESII-PT Political Military Economic Social Information Infrastructure Physical Environment Time METT-TC Mission; Enemy; Terrain; Troops; Time; Civil Decisive Action The continuous, simultaneous combinations of offensive, defensive, and stability or defense support of civil authorities tasks Four types of decisive action 31 | P a g e offensive, defensive, stability, defense support of civil authorities Mission Command the exercise of authority and direction by the commander using mission orders to enable disciplined initiative within the commander's intent to empower agile and adaptive leaders in the conduct of unified land operations Tenets of Unified Land Operations Flexibility Integration Lethality Adaptability Depth Synchronization Flexibility -The employment of a versatile mix of capabilities, formations, and equipment for conducting operations Simultaneity - The execution of related and mutually supporting tasks at the same time across multiple locations and domains Depth -The extension of operations in time, space, or purpose to achieve definitive results Synchronization -The arrangement of military actions in time, space, and purpose to produce maximum relative combat power at a decisive place and time Four methods of personnel recovery immediate, deliberate, external supported, unassisted Five personnel recovery tasks report, locate, support, recover, reintegrate operational art The cognitive approach by commanders and staffs—supported by their skill, knowledge, experience, creativity, and judgment—to develop strategies, campaigns, and operations to organize and employ military forces by integrating ends, ways, and means Elements of Operational Art 32 | P a g e 1. End state and conditions 2. Center of gravity 3. Decisive points 4. LOOs and LOEs 5. Operational reach 6. Basing 7. Tempo 8. Phasing and transitions 9. Culmination 10. Risk Two subunits of the AHS health support services and force health protection Six AHS principles flexibility, control, mobility, conformity, continuity, proximity Flexibility (AHS principle) shifting resources to meet changing requirements Control (AHS principle) efficient employment of scarce resources, and meet professional standards, policies and US/International law Mobility (AHS principle) ensures that AHS assets remain in supporting distance to support maneuvering combat forces Conformity (AHS principle) Tactical plan is the most "basic" element. AHS planners must be involved early in the planning process and once the plan is established must be rehearsed with the unit it supports Continuity (AHS principle) achieved by moving the patient through progressive, phased roles of care, extending from the point of injury or wounding to the CONUS-support base Proximity (AHS principle) must be available at the right time to provide AHS support to sick, injures and wounded Soldiers to keep morbidity and mortality to a minimum Ten medical functions of the AHS medical treatment, hospitalization, MEDEVAC, prev med, dental, vet, med log, COSC, lab Actors in the OE