AMRT Study Guide Questions with Complete Verified Solutions 2024, Exams of Life Sciences

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AMRT Study Guide Questions with

Complete Verified Solutions 2024

The amount of moisture available on a surface that mold can use to support growth is known as the... water activity How do molds replicate? Sporulation What molds produce respirable particles? Aspergillus, penicillium Respirable Can be deeply inhaled into lungs; 5 microns 4 common viruses found in sewage rotavirus, GI virus, adenovirus, hepatitis Name 3 primary sewage biohazards virus, bacteria, parasites 3 secondary sewage biohazards endotoxins/exotoxins, mycotoxins, mold 4 common gram negative bacteria found in sewage e. coli, salmonella, shigella, psuedomonas Pathogenic disease causing MC that can support mold growth 16 MC that can support wood decaying fungi 20 What federal agency governs indoor air quality?

none What factors affect mold growth? temperature, light, water, oxygen, pH, nutrients/food source What is the nutrient that mold grows best on? Cellulose Define ERH equilibrium relative humidity (moisture at the surface) Example of hydrophilic mold stachybotrys chartarum Example of mesophilic mold aspergillus & penicillium Example of xerophilic mold aspergillus & penicillium 4 ways to be exposed to bioaerosols ingestion; cut/puncture/injection; dermal; inhalation How do viruses replicate? injection of RNA into live host cell What is the common route of entry for mold exposure? inhalation What is the common route of entry for exposure to category 3 water? ingestion What does MVOC stand for? microbial volatile organic compounds What are MVOCs? odor (gaseous waste by-products) released by actively growing molds 3 sources for MVOCs reactivated pet urine, wet building materials, bacteria The presence of MVOCs can be an indicator of: unacceptable indoor air quality, active microbial growth, incomplete remediation What is a micron? unit of measurement equal to 1/1,000,000 meters What is the definition of viable? able to reproduce (germinate) What is the definition of non-viable? not capable of germination What is the definition of settled spores? spores landed on surface but not actively growing

What is the definition of mycotoxins? toxigenic compound produced by molds under certain conditions Why do molds produce mycotoxins? defense mechanism What is the carcinogenic mycotoxin produced by aspergillus? aflotoxin What are the immunizations that water and mold technicians are recommended to have? hepatitis a&b, tetanus What is the time frame for stachybotrys to colonize? 7 - 12 days What is the time frame for aspergillus to colonize? 48 - 72 hours What is the size of most mold spores found in indoor water damaged environments? 2 - 20 microns What are the molds associated with bird & bat droppings? histoplasma capsulatum, Cryptococcus neoformans What are the 4 populations of individuals that are considered to be at a higher risk for exposure to mold & bacteria? elderly, children, pregnant women, immuno-compromised Why should initial sampling be conducted? remediation work plan, reduction of false claims, identify condition 2 environments Why is post-remediation sampling conducted? verify effectiveness of remediation, re-occupancy, resolve liability What is the sample method of choice for verification & why? air samples - determine if further investigation is needed What is a benefit of collecting a viable air sample? determine the species 4 common types of surface samples contact plate, tape, swab, bulk When can the containment and NAM be removed? once sampling results are returned and acceptable What is the ultimate criteria for clearance of a microbial remediation project? re-occupancy without complaint What are the recommendations/requirements to be an IEP? education, experience, protocols, etc. What are the recommendations/requirements to interpret sample data? special training, experience, field observations, etc

What are the 3 factors that should be considered when choosing an anti-microbial? type & extent of contamination, limitations, associated hazards 6 limitations of antimicrobial biocides concentration, temperature, pH, dwell time, application requirements, material compatability What are 3 types of antimicrobial biocides? sanitizers, disinfectants, sterilants What product is referred to as a "bound product?" antimicrobial static agent What is the result when applying antimicrobials to organic materials? anti-microbial is inactivated What are the types of antimicrobial static agents? biostat, bacteriostat, fungistat How is the efficacy of antimicrobials determined? testing on previously cleaned surfaces What is FIFRA? Fifra (FIFRA) is the legislation that sets the registration and labels for chemical disinfectants. Fifra was passed in 1947 and required all pesticides to be registered. What is the concern of mixing bleach with ammonia? bleach is very reactive & will release toxic gases when mixed with ammonia What is the best preventative for mold contamination? keeping the structure dry & well maintained Biocide A chemical or physical agent that is designed to kill or inactivate one or more groups of microorganisms Antimicrobial Static Agent An agent that is incorporated or applied to a product or surface to inhibit microbial growth Sanitizer A biocide that significantly reduces the number of vegetative environmental bacteria of public health importance Disinfectant A biocide that significantly reduces or kills up to 99.99% of recognized human pathogens and may kill some bacterial spores Biostat A product that suppresses living organisms Sterilant A biocide that can completely kill or inactivate significant challenges of resistant bacterial spores

Fungistat A product that suppresses fungal growth Bacteriostat A product that suppresses bacterial growth Ozone A gaseous phase biocide that is toxic to humans and is not recommended for microbial remediation UV Light Used inside HVAC ducts, crowded waiting rooms, airlocks and laboratories in an effort to control infectious agents What should the remediator do prior to using any tool or equipment? Be familiar with instructions & directions for use What is the process the remediator should follow when changing the pre-filters on the AFD? In a controlled manner (inside containment) while the unit is running How often should the pre-filters be changed on an AFD? 3 - 4 times daily, 1x daily during cleaning What are the concerns when attaching accessories or ducting to a NAM? reduction in CFM What is the testing procedure that can be used to check the efficiency of the HEPA filter? Dispersed Oil Particulate What tool can be used to perform the DOP testing? laser particulate counter What tool can be used to check the CFM of the AFD? anemometer What should the remediator do when there is a concern of health effects? document & recommend IEP, recommend occupant consult doctor Define pre-existing damage prolonged exposure, identified as not part of current loss what is the procedural guideline that the remediator should follow? S500 & S What is the definition of complexity? any condition that causes the project to become more difficult/detailed but doesn't prevent work from being done What is the definition of complication Arises after the start of work & causes a change in scope of work What is the definition of limitation? a restriction placed by others that limits the scope of work, remediation activities, or expected outcomes What is an invasive inspection?

removal of materials to further investigation What should the remediator do when completing an invasive inspection? Notify the client, take care to minimize collateral damage The protection factor for a full-face respirator is: 50 The protection factor for a half-face respirator is: 10 Which respirators offer NO protection against oxygen deficient environments? N-95, half/full face, gas, PAPR Which respirator offers a positive pressure inside the mask via a battery pack? PAPR PAPR powered air purifying respirator When are air-supplied respirators required? insufficient oxygen, extreme temperatures, high concentrations of dust, fumes, mists, gases, vapor When the oxygen exceeds ?% it creates an oxygen-enriched environment

What must the worker do each time they don their respirator? conduct a positive and negative seal check What are the maintenance steps that must be done to a half or full-face respirator? clean, store properly, dry, inspect What does the P100 of the respirator cartridge remove? 99.97% of particulates to 0.3 microns What does the organic vapor cartridge remove? MVOCs and chemical odors P1 disposable suits hold out ____% of dry particulate whereas a P2/P3 holds out ___% of dry particulate. 90, 100 What is the last piece of PE that should be removed & why? respirator, reduce potential inhalation exposure What is the order to remove (doff) PPE? protective suit, gloves, respirator What does OSHA require for a respirator program? medical eval, fit test, documented training, selection of respirators How should respirator cartridges be stored and why? clean & dry, seal with 3" tape, store in air tight bag; to prevent breakdown What is a risk to the technicians by wearing P3 disposable coveralls?

overheating What does OSHA General Duty Clause state? employers must provide a work place free from hazards that could result in injury, illness, or death What is the concern with not wearing PPE? illness such as respiratory dysfunction, fatigue, headache, infectious disease What are the common immunizations for technicians in order to perform sewage cleanup and who should the remediator consult? hepatitis a&b, tetanus, consult a doctor/medical profesional A __________________ air pressure differential between the work area and the surrounding space should be created to prevent contaminants from leaving the work zone. negative A(n) _____________________ should be constructed for entry into and exit from a remediation containment area. exit chamber What is the desired lower pressure to achieve & maintain inside the containment chamber?

• 5 to - 8 pascals What are the risks of using spray adhesive? flammable & toxic Why should a technician use a fire retardant polyethylene for containment? will not raise the fire load What is the slip factor recommended for 6 mil poly and why? medium - no oil or talc What is the goal for mold remediation? return to Condition 1 Condition 1 normal/acceptable Condition 2 contaminated with settled spores Condition 3 visible contamination What are the 3 types of containment? source, local, full What are the 5 principles of mold remediation stated in the S520?

1. Provide for health and safety of workers and occupants 2) document conditions and work processes 3) control the contaminant at the source 4) physically remove the contamination 5) correct the moisture problem to prevent recontamination When is source containment used

small amounts When is local containment used moderate amounts When is full containment used? significant amounts How is the number of decon/exit chambers for a mold remediation project determined? job & site specific What are 3 ways to evaluate negative pressure? visual, smoke tube, manometer What are the factors determining the maximum pressure that a containment chamber can be placed under?

1. size 2) strength 3) integrity 4) 5) What should the remediation contractor provide on every remediation job rather than relying on the homeowner to provide them? carbon monoxide detector What is the recommended procedure for changing the pre-filters on a HEPA filtration device? remove while AFD is running Air flow ALWAYS moves from ____________ to _________________ higher pressure to lower pressure What is the efficiency of a HEPA filter, and what do the letters stand for? 99.97% at 0.3 microns; High Efficiency Particulate Air What size mold spores should a good secondary filter remove? 1 micron @ 60% efficiency Formula for Air Changes per Hour (CFM x 60)/CF Formula for Cubic Feet per Minute required for a given number of ACH (CF x ACH) / Formula for Number of AFD units (CF x ACH) /60 = CFM req. THEN CFM req/CFM of Machine